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HAC > HSM Wing SOP > Flashcards

HSM Wing SOP Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for overseeing the execution of the daily flight schedule? Who approves changes to the flight schedule? In their absence who approves it

A

The SDO is responsible for oversight.

Changes must be annotated/approved by the CO.

If CO is not available priority is XO-OPSO-SDO

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2
Q

When embarked who approves changes to a published flight schedule?

A

Ships CO and Det OIC

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3
Q

What is the minimum weather required for Shore or Ship operations?

A

500-1

Unless positive radar control and a CCA/PAR are available for recovery in which case mins are 200-1/2

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4
Q

Can visiting aircrew have their qualifications recognized by a different command or do they need to go through the board process again? Who’s SOP shall they comply with?

A

Yes, and the reporting custodian’s SOP (I.e. the skipper of the aircraft that you fly)

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5
Q

Enlisted Aircrew _____ be utilized ______ on all flights

A

Should, to the max extent practical

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6
Q

FCF checklist items _____ only be conducted when the crew includes a ____. ______ Personnel shall not be carried on FCF’s for the sole purpose of _________.

A

Shall, FCP. Temporary Flight Orders, accumulating flight time.

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7
Q

Minimum crew requirements for tactical training events unless otherwise specified are:

A

HAC/L3, PQM, Aircrewman

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8
Q

Any pilot who has not flown in _____ days shall fly a warm-up flight with a _____. Warm-up flights should include ______

A

45 days, current HAC. Autorotation and other fam type maneuvers.

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9
Q

Pilots ____ not fly at night as PIC unless they are _____. To be considered _____ a pilot shall have flown a minimum of ____ night hours within the preceding _____ days. Between ____ and _____ days the ______ may authorize a day into night transition. After ______ days currency shall be regained by flying with a _____ PIC

A

Shall, night current. Night current, 2.0 night hours, 45 days, 45 and 60 days, squadron CO. 60 days, night current

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10
Q

For embarked dets who designates LSO’s? When operating for a short duration evolution (DLQs/ISATT) the LSO ____ brief the _____ or _____ prior to commencing DLQ operations.

A

Ships CO’s designate LSOs. The LSO shall brief the Ship CO or OOD

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11
Q

Pilots whose night DLQ currency lapses at home shall conduct an _____ or _____ event within _____ of DLQ requalification period.

How many evolutions need to be completed and what should be emphasized?

When practical what crew should it consist of?

A

OFT or FDLP within 30 days

3 TO/Downwind/Approach/Landings should be conducted emphasizing DLQ comms and CRM

When practical it should include the same crew as attending the DLQs

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12
Q

If the currency of all the pilots within a squadron or detachment lapses while deployed, how shall you attempt to regain currency?

If operational situation precludes compliance what must be done?

A

A current H-60 HAC (Sierra pilot)

A waiver to the unit’s major command ISIC (CVW or type wing) shall be submitted and a deliberate, risk mitigated approach shall be employed to allow non-current HACs to regain currency.

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13
Q

What are the reasons readiness must be re-established for an embarked detachment?

What are the required training events?

Is an ISATT observer required during this warm-up period?

A

Dets experience an OIC change,
Change of ship command (not fleet up)
Re-assignment to a new ship
More than 60 days elapse between embarked operations

DLQs (night/Day)
Emergency Flight Quarters
Crash on Deck Drill
Hot refueling
Straightening and Traversing evolutions
ELVA/smoke light approach
Lost plane homing

ISATT observer is not required

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14
Q

______, pilots ____ fly a minimum of ___ hours within the ____ days preceding fly-on for an underway period. Pilots ______ obtain night currency (______) and instrument currency (________) prior to the embarkation flight. During intervals of ______ days or less between embarked operations, pilots _______ fly a minimum of _____ hours and achieve night and instrument currency prior to the next embarkation.

A

To the max extent practicable, should fly, 9 hours, 45 days. Shall obtain, (2.0 in 45 days), (2.0 within 60 days). 45 days, should fly, 6 hours.

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15
Q

What is the night coupler currency? If you are not night coupler current what mission are you not able to be scheduled for? How do you regain currency?

A

2 wind line rescue or Night/IMC dip-to-dip patterns automatic approaches to a coupled hover at night in the previous 60 days.

You cannot be scheduled to fly night SAR to include plane guard missions.

To regain currency, pilots shall fly two wind line rescue or night/IMC dip to dip patter to a coupled hover at night with a current PIC

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16
Q

What are the instrument flight currency requirements.

Are the currency requirements required to be actual/simulated and can they be done in the sim or the aircraft?

If your currency lapses what can you not do?

A

2.0 hours of simulated/actual time in the aircraft or sim the preceding 60 days.

It prohibits you from flying as PIC until you regain currency with a current PIC.

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17
Q

Deriving illumination information for planning and briefing night operations ______ be done in accordance with ______. The sumo tool, included in JMPS, is _______ for environmental planning

A

Shall be done, CNAF

Also permitted

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18
Q

Aircrew _____ not be scheduled to brief a _____ until ____ hours after _______.

A

Aircrew shall not be scheduled to brief a flight event until 10 hours after completion of post-flight duties.

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19
Q

What is the shipboard radius of action?

Can this radius be increased?

A

150 Nr or max reliable nav/communication range whichever is less.

Radius can be increased by ISIC when dictated by mission planning provided deliberate ORM has been conducted and time spent beyond 150 Nm shall be limited to the minimum required to accomplish mission objectives.

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20
Q

What are one way ship to ship and shore to ship limits. What is considered shore?

A

150 Nm ship-ship
200 Nm ship-shore

Ship to shore range is to a point at which a safe landing can be made.

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21
Q

What operations shall not be performed with passengers embarked or during orientation flights?

A

Simulated emergencies
Practice auto rotations
Intentional Aircraft Degradations
Ordnance release

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22
Q

Naval Aviaton Survival Training program is ______ for all orienteers unless _______ in rare cases but designated approval authority.

A

Mandatory

Waived

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23
Q

When can you go below the minimum age flight altitudes?

A

Dictated by operational requirements

Directed/Required by controlling agencies
Published restrictions
Approved training ranges

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24
Q

What are your overland, over water and coupled hover altitude limits?

A

Overland
Populated: 1000 AGL
Unpopulated: 500 AGL

Overwater
Day: 50 AGL
Unaided Night: 150 AGL
NVD: 100 AGL

Note: Flight operations down to 50 ft over water during day is intended for operational or tactical training flights where the altitude profiles support authorized mission or training objectives

Coupled Hover: 70 ft AGL

Note: Following establishment of a steady coupled hover at 70Ft, aircraft altitude may be reduced to no lower than 40 FT to conduct live hoisting at PIC’s discretions.

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25
Q

What are your Terrain Flight and SACT altitude limits?

A

TERF/Low Level: 200 ft AGL (only on approved low level routes and ranges).

SACT:
Day 100 AGL
Night: 500 AGL

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26
Q

Up to rotor engagement how shall checklists be completed?

After rotor engagement how shall checklists be performed?

A

Challenge-Reply-Reply

Challenge-Reply

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27
Q

When can checklists be performed silently?

A

When necessary to avoid interference with other cockpit duties and when safety of flight is not a consideration.

Items that require a response by another crew member must be verbalized.

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28
Q

If the stab auto mode PBS is not illuminated when ac power is applied what must be done?

A

Stab lock pins shall be visually checked prior to flight.

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29
Q

The rescue hoist op check _____ be completed on the first flight of the day to ensure _______

A

Should, to ensure SAR capability.

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30
Q

When shall single engine airspeed and stab programming be called?

A

First takeoff of each flight.

Stab programming shall be called after re-engaging the auto mode after actual or sim failure.

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31
Q

The landing checklist _____ be completed when transitioning from ____ to _____ or vice versa

A

Shall be completed, pad to runway

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32
Q

In flight checklist ____ be utilized any time that the mission is altered from what was briefed.

A

Shall

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33
Q

Pax ____ not occupy the aircraft during hot refueling. Aircrewman ____ assist in monitoring refueling ops.

A

Shall not, Shall assist

34
Q

During crew switches, the helicopter _____ be under the control of a ______ and there ______ be a PIC to PIC verbal turnover.

A

Shall be under the control of a designated helicopter pilot.

There shall be

35
Q

After hot seating what step do aircrew begin with in the checklist?

A

Step nine of the post-engagement checks

36
Q

How far aft can personnel go inside the rotor arc when the rotors are turning? What is the only exception.

A

Aft of the Countermeasure dispenser unless arming/de-arming.

37
Q

Aircraft _____ ground taxi vice air taxi _______ whenever the possibility of damage from the rotor was exists

A

Shall ground taxi, to the max extent possible.

38
Q

Flights with multiple squadrons participating require a _____ between PICS. It may be (5 methods)

A

Joint brief

Face-to-face
PHONECON
message
Email
Per SOPs
39
Q

Seat and gunner’s belts _____ be use to the max extent possible. All occupants of the aircraft ______ be in crash worthy seats with seat and shoulder harness secured during take-off and landing.

A

Shall be used,

Should be in

40
Q

All flyovers should be:

What is required for deviation from the above requirements.

A

Non-maneuvering, general wings level passes of one to two aircraft (waiverable to four)

Restricted to a single pass over a fixed point at a specified time.

Conducted no lower than 500 AGL with consideration given to the height of obstacles in the vicinity of the flyover.

Conducted no slower than 60 KIAS

Deviations submitted through TYPE Wing for TYCOM approval.

41
Q

Detachments operating on ______ ships with two manned embarked helicopters utilizing the RSD shall not conduct _______ flight operations unless __________ is available within _______ for the duration of the evolution.

A

Single-spot ships, concurrent flight operations, a suitable landing site (shore or ship), 50 Nr for the duration

42
Q

What exceptions are there to the 50 Nm concurrent flight operations rule? What is still required?

A
  1. The parent ship is not the intended point of landing for both aircraft. (Does not apply to missions scheduled to terminate at other than the parent ship)
  2. Does not apply to fly-ones or scheduled embarkation.
  3. Does not apply for concurrent manned/unmanned flight ops.

For fly-ones, thorough prior mission planning shall be conducted and no-go criteria determined which takes into consideration potential flight deck/hangaring delays

43
Q

All staged/mission related photography must be approved by ____. Unplanned/non-briefed photography is _____

A

The CO, prohibited.

44
Q

If the APU is required for in-flight operations where should it be started to the max extent possible.

A

On deck

45
Q

When conducting VERTREP ______ a _____ power margin ______ exist between ______ and _______ when a load is lifted from the deck.

A

VERTREP training, 10% power margin shall, MRP and max power required.

46
Q

During night overwater flights below 500 ft AGL, consideration should be given to setting the DH no lower than _____. When operating in the shipboard landing patter, each pilots DH _____ be set to an altitude determined by the crew that best _______. Each crew member _____ verbalize to the crew their _______ and ______.

A

10% less than current altitude. Should be set, facilitates CRM. Shall verbalize, DH settings and activation warning tones.

47
Q

All crew members ______ acknowledge when an altitude warning system aural tone is activated. This is ______ expected when operating in a traffic pattern.

A

Should, not expected.

48
Q

Establish a steady coupled hover shall be completed prior to _____. PNAC ______ adjust LONG and LAT potentiometers to control ____ and limit _____ to no greater than _____.

A

DOWN DOME. Should adjust, drift and limit ground speed, 2Kts.

49
Q

Cable angle hover mode ______ be operable for all dipping sonar operations. Submerged Override _____ not be used for routine operations.

A

Shall, Shall.

50
Q

Dipping sonar operations _____ not be conducted in seas with wave heights exceeding ____ ft, winds exceeding _____, or known/discovered currents greater than _____ during ULT or Fleet level exercises (I.e. group sail/comptuex). Pre-flight deliberate ORM and in-flight time critical ORM assessment of _______ or ______ sea state conditions and currents _____ be accomplished prior to dipping sonar operations.

A

Should, 10 ft, 17-21 kts, 4kts. Forecasted or observed, shall be

51
Q

If Cable angle exceeds the ______ all crew members _____ verbally acknowledge the deviation and ensure ______.

A

4.25 degree inner ring, shall verbally, appropriate corrections are being made to center the cable.

52
Q

What are your POCL restrictions and when do they not apply.

A

Up to 1000 ft ceiling, half the ceiling (I.e 700 = 350 POCL). Above 1000, ceiling -500 (I.e. 1600 = 1100 POCL).

During operational ASW involving a sub, under conditions that preclude a free stream recovery, POCL need not be restricted. ORM shall be conducted to minimize the risk to the transducer assembly in the event of a malfunction.

53
Q

Dipping ops are ______ with AFCS degradations affecting ______, _____, or ______. Cease dipping operations following _____ until _____.

A

Prohibited, Automatic Approach, Coupled Hover, or Cable Angle hover functions.

Any un-commanded pitch changes in a hover until maintenance action is performed.

54
Q

With an ________ cease dipping operations until _____

A

1177 fault (to include on MBIT)

Maintenance action is performed.

55
Q

What do you do if transducer towing groundspeed limits are exceeded?

A

Cease dipping operations and document on a MAF.

56
Q

What ACTC level requirements exist for SO employment of the dome?

A

In the local area doing ULT, LVL III SO shall be in the helicopter in which dipping is INTENDED.

For fleet exercises, a LVL III SO should be in the help on any flight where dipping is intended to the max extent practicable.

57
Q

What are your hung dome procedures?

A

It is assumed all emergency procedures and all efforts to recover the dome are complete.

A. The Air boss or HCO shall ensure all personnel are clear of the landing spot with the exception of the min number of maintenance personnel (approximately 4)

B. Consideration should be given to securing a mattress or padding to the deck. To provide a cushion for the dome.

C. The a/c will hover at an appropriate altitude to facilitate recovery. Max safe altitude will depend on POCL and environmental considerations. The LSE should be positioned in the best location to provide signals for placing the dome on the deck.

D. Conditions will dictate whether the cable will be sheared or the dome lowered to the deck. If lowered to the deck and sufficient POCL exists to allow maintenance personnel to disconnect the dome, they shall ensure the dome is grounded to prevent electrical shock and will then disconnect the dome from the cable.

E. After the dome is detached, the aircraft will begin a descent and cable shall be walked with two-person integrity away from the landing spot. If there is insufficient POCL to walk outside the arc, the aircraft may slide over to land. If a stable hover cannot be maintained during or after disconnecting the dome the crew shall execute the appropriate emergency procedure to facilitate safe recovery.

F. The cable should be placed in the cabin prior to shutdown.

58
Q

What are your EKB requirements

A

Pilots are authorized to utilize EKBS while airborne. Prior to use, all crews shall be briefed on who is using a tablet, for what purpose and any in-flight duties shifting to other crew members while the tablet user is heads down.

59
Q

What are your ordnance safety procedures.

A

A. HOT REFUELING: Per 80T-103, hot refueling aircraft with live ordnance loaded is prohibited ashore. Hellfire CATM, REXTORP, empty DRL, sonobuoys, smokes, SUS, and door guns are authorized to be carried during hot refueling ashore. Hellfire missiles are authorized to be carried during hot seats ashore provided the event is part o NAWDC or Weapons School sponsored training. Hot and cold refueling aircraft with ordnance loaded is permitted afloat, with ship’s CO approval.

B: SHIPBOARD LANDING: Aircrews are authorized to conduct multiple shipboard approaches and landing with missiles and rockets loaded with concurrence of the ship’s CO.

C: Shipboard straightening, maneuvering and traversing of the aircraft while loaded with hellfire CATMs shall be limited to traverse qualified personnel. Straightening, maneuvering and traverse training with CATMs loaded is prohibited. Downloading earshot missiles shall be conducted prior to any of the above evolutions except in an emergency with the specific authorization of the ships CO. Traversing at slow speed between the maintenance line and the flight position with earshot missiles loaded is authorized at ships COs discretion with ISIC approval.

D. The M-299 and APKWS/DRL release and control checks shall only be conducted with the extended pylons int he ready for flight position.

E. Passengers shall not be embarked when the Gau-21 crew served gun is installed. If a crew served weapon is required during passenger transfer, the M240 shall be utilized. The M240 shall be kept in the stowed position when not in use, and ammo cans shall be secured to prevent missile hazards in the event of an emergency.

F Crews conducting live Gunners Exercise events shall be responsible for own range clearance to a minimum of 5NM beyond maximum weapons employment envelopes for the GAU-21 and M240 crew served weapons.

60
Q

Except _________, smoke markers _____ not be dropped closer than ______ from the coastline or an inland waterway, unless _______.

A

Except in an emergency, Shall not, 10 Nm, unless on a designated range or dip-area.

61
Q

Smoke markers that cannot be de-armed ______ be jettisoned outside of 10 NM from the ______ and prior to returning to home base and final landing.

A

Shall be, coastline

62
Q

With the exception of ________ and ______ carrying live ordnance over populated areas _______ be avoided. If a mission requires flight to a facility near a populated are ________ be use.

A

Sonobuouys and smoke markers, shall be avoided. The most direct route that will minimize civilian exposure shall be used.

63
Q

Removal or replacement of the sonobuoy launcher cover ______ not be performed with the rotors engaged. If the cover is removed or replaced with rotors turning, ________ be utilized.

A

Should not be performed. Two Person integrity shall be used.

64
Q

The sonobuoy launcher cover ______ be fastened with all possible attachment bolts, but no less than ______. Additionally, all _______ are required. Missing bolts _______.

A

Shall, no less than 11 total. All corner bolts. Missing bolts shall be documented on a MAF.

65
Q

Static Display of an aircraft requires what additional precautions?

A

a. Battery disconnected and appropriate circuit breakers pulled.

B. Sonobuoy launcher pressure vented.

C. All intake plugs/covers installed.

D. Rotor brake lock on.

E. All doors/panels closed unless a crew member is present

F. No visitor shall enter the helicopter or display area unescorted. Visitor access to the aircraft interior shall be controlled and supervised by a crew members. Non-crew members shall not be permitted access tot he engine/transmission deck/tail pylon.

G. Following a static display, a preflight inspection is required paying particular attention to both interior (switches, circuit breaker etc.) and exterior areas (antennas, panels, fueling ports, pitot-static systems. Etc).

H. COs shall promulgate procedures governing carriage of inert external stores during aircraft static displays. Live ordnance is prohibited during static displays.

66
Q

All personnel _____ use authorized eye, hearing and head protection in hangars and on the flight line. ______ hearing protection is required when within ____ ft of aircraft with rotors turning or within _____ of aircraft with only _____ turning. ______ hearing protection is required when within _____ of aircraft with rotors turning or APU running for extended periods of time. _______ is not required inside the aircraft.

A

Shall use. Single Hearing protection, 200 Ft, 50 ft of APU. Double hearing, 30 ft. Double hearing protection.

67
Q

Rings ______ not be worn while operating or working on aircraft or moving ground suppport equipment.

A

Shall

68
Q

No one ____ climb on top of aircraft unless _______. If only the _____ is operating, personnel may climb on top of an aircraft only with the permission of the ______. In this case the _____ shall ensure that one of the _____ visually checks the top of the aircraft for _____ and _____ prior to continuing with the engine start.

A

Shall, both engines are secured. APU, PIC. PIC, aircrew, integrity and FOD.

69
Q

All personnel _____ wear a cranial or helmet with strap fastened whenever climbing on any part of the aircraft. Can this requirement be relaxed?

A

Shall, It can be relaxed only as long as required to perform maintenance or an inspection in which headgear restricts the proper accomplishment of the task.

70
Q

All personnel ______ enter and exit the rotor arc at the _____ and ______ o’clock positions _______ and only by the direction of a ______ and only after the _____ has received clearance from the PAC. In the absence of a PC, personnel entering and exiting the rotor arc _____ receive clearance from the PAC. Personnel _____ not enter or exit the rotor arc when Pilots are either entering or exiting the cockpit.

A

Shall, 3/9 O’clock, to the max extent possible, PC/LSE, PC.

Shall shall

71
Q

What is the maximum number of unfastened, broken or missing fasteners?

A

TGB Cowling:
Max in a row—2
Max total—3

IGB Cowling:
Max in a row—2
Max total—3

Vertical tail driveshaft cover:
Max in a row—2
Max total—3

Other tail driveshaft covers:
Max in a row—1
Max total—1

72
Q

Flight with unfastened, broken or missing fasteners is _____. Corner fasteners _____ be fixed as soon as practicable by qualified maintenance personnel.

A

Not recommended. Should

73
Q

CO’s are authorized to accept maintenance qualifications from other commanders as long as the technician is

A

Current and fully qualified for the respective tasks by their current command. Members must be loaded into the hosting squadrons NALCOMIS/OOMA system to perform maintenance and sign off discrepancies.

74
Q

RAS and Ship weapons firing evolution considerations.

A

Aircraft should be airborne or in the hangar during all ship weapon firing evolutions.

For RAS evolutions, consideration should be given to hangaring the aircraft, if not airborne, when shot lines are being fired from the replenishment ship in the vicinity of the flight deck.

75
Q

Who approves deviation of the aircraft tactical paint scheme.

A

Type Commander, via type wing.

Only the sonobuoy cover shall be approved for painting with a squadron CO approved design.

76
Q

Post installation maintenance dips from shore ______ be conducted in an area with no more than ______ feet water depth to facilitate recovery efforts in the event of loss of transducer. For SOCAL operations, post installation maintenance dips shall be conducted in Imperial Beach Dip Area Charlie.

A

Shall be conducted, no more than 2000 ft.

77
Q

What additional Prohibited maneuvers does the SOP delineate

A

Simulated emergencies shall only be introduced in the aircraft under the cognizance of a designated HAC.

Compound emergencies involving the degradation of two or more unrelated systems shall not be introduced, initiated or practiced.

No circuit breakers shall be pulled to initiate a sim emergency with the following CO authorized exceptions:

  1. HACs may be authorized to pull the Batt bus panel circuit breaker to simulate failed backup attitude indicator for training during Day/VFR conditions only.
  2. ANI Aircrewman and current qualified FRS aircrew instructors may pull circuit breakers necessary for simulating rescue hoist, cargo hook, RAST, mission power, radar and acoustic malfunctions.

Practice autorotation at night are prohibited. In addition, simulated emergencies requiring the actual degradation of aircraft systems at night are prohibited with the following exceptions:

  1. Single engine approaches and landings to a. Prepared surface with adequate overrun and underrun to allow for safe execution.
  2. Single engine running landings
  3. Boost-off and failed SAS/AFCS
  4. Simulated lost ICS
  5. Stab auto mode failure.

Simulated single engine failures from a hover out of ground effect shall only be initiated over a surface where a run-on landing can be made (HOGE cut guns)

Dual engine malfunctions, tail rotor drive emergencies, total AC power failure, and in flight emergency simulation that requires placement of an engine in DECU lockout shall only be accomplished in the OFT.

78
Q

In flight training operation in DECU lockout are prohibited unless? Can you put the DECU in lockout for troubleshooting purposes if its not in a checklist?

A

A scheduled FCF training flight while conducting FCF checklist steppes IAW NATOPS.

No you can’t.

79
Q

What are the H2P-H2P flight restrictions. What are the requirements for a shipboard H2P/H2P flight?

A

Sim emergencies, movement of PCLs from the FLY position (except in case of emergency), night coupled approaches, and 180 degree practice autos are prohibited.

Shipboard 2p 2p flights may be scheduled by OICs with the permission of squadron and ship COs and shall be conducted as Day, VMC, non tactical training flights only.

80
Q

CAL/LZ training ____ be conducted on approved ranges or airfields in accordance with governing directives. What shall be calculated? What shall be conducted prior to commencing the approach? THE MRP vs. max Pr margin ____ be ____ or greater to proceed. Operational CAL/LZ flights other than those of ________ shall also adhere to this power margin.

A

Shall.

Power Required and Power available using expected conditions at the CAL.

Prior to the approach you shall conduct a power available check at the planned landing altitude.

Shall be 10% or greater. Operational Necessity.

81
Q

Can the ELRF be used outside of an approved laser range? What requirements exist?

A

Yes, it may, but it shall not be used on personnel or wildlife. Crew acknowledgement is required prior to selecting and prior to arming the elrf. Concurrence must also acknowledge ELRF is indicated in the lower left portion of the flier attack page.

82
Q

What is the NVD nite lab periodicity.

A

48 months from the last day of the month in which the training is received. May be accomplished 60 days preceding expiration, but still extends for 48 months from the date the current training expires. Pilots shall not fly NVD aided events unless Nite lab current

HAC (2 decks)

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