HSM-37 SOP 3710.2H Flashcards

1
Q

O-2 WEATHER CRITERIA. In addition to weather criteria delineated in references (a), (b) and, (c) and local area course rules, the following minimums apply (ceiling/visibility):

Shore or Ship Operations - _________

Surface-to-Air Counter-Tactics (SACT) Training Flights -
__________

A
  • 500/1*

- 1000/3 - (with visible horizon)

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2
Q

WEATHER CRITERIA.

*NOTE 1: If __________ and a ______ or _______ is available for recovery, minimum launch weather minimums are ______.

A
  • positive radar control
  • Carrier Controlled Approach
  • Precision Approach Radar
  • 200/ 1/2
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3
Q

O-3 CREW REQUIREMENTS.

A

b. Enlisted Aircrew should be utilized to the maximum extent practicable on all flights

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4
Q

d. Minimum crew requirements for ______ ________ events unless otherwise specified are:

A
  • tactical training

- HAC/L3, Pilot Qualified in Model, and Aircrewman

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5
Q

FCF CREW REQUIREMENTS.

A

c. Functional Check Flight (FCF) checklist items shall only be conducted when the crew includes a designated Functional Check Pilot (FCP).

The minimum crew for all FCF evolutions is a designated FCP and an EP/BITS complete PQM.

The minimum crew required for non-FCF ground maintenance turns shall be two PQMs.

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6
Q

O-4 CURRENCY REQUIREMENTS a. In addition to minimum pilot and aircrew currency requirements outlined in references (b), (d) and (f), and local course rules requirements,

A

-any pilot who has not flown in 45 days shall fly a warm-up flight with a current HAC.

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7
Q

Warm-up flights ______ include:

  1. ______
  2. ______
  3. ______
  4. ______
A
  • should
  • autorotations
  • single engine operations
  • dip-to-dip navigation
  • other Familiarization (FAM) type maneuvers as determined by squadron COs
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8
Q

Newly reporting pilots ______ complete an _________ _______ ____, and ______ _____ _____and _____ complete an ________ _______ ________ prior to their first flight.

A
shall
emergency procedures exam 
course rules exam
should 
Emergency Procedure (EP) simulator
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9
Q

Pilots _____ ____ fly at night as _____ ___ _______ unless they are ______ ______.

A

shall not
Pilot in Command (PIC)
night current

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10
Q

To be considered _____ _______ , a Pilot _____ have flown a _______ of ___ _____ _____ within the preceding ___ _____. Between ___ ___ __ ____, the squadron CO may authorize a ___ ____ _____ __________ to regain night currency. After___ ____, currency shall be regained by flying with a _____ _______ ___.

A
night current
shall
minimum
2.0 night hours
45 days
45 and 60 days
day into night transition
 60 days
night current PIC.
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11
Q

Pilots returning from _____ ______ or _______ _______ (_____ _____ ____ _____) _____ complete the following prior to being scheduled for additional flight events: a _______ ___ _____ _____ ____and a ___ __/____ _____ . Pilots _____ complete an __. ____prior to the flight

A
long deployment
prolonged absence (longer than 90 days)
shall
Kaneohe Bay course rules exam
day EP/BITS flight
should
EP Sim
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12
Q

For embarked detachments, qualified LSOs _____ be designated in writing by ___ ______ __ for deployment.

A

shall

the ship’s CO

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13
Q

When acting as LSO on a ship for a short duration evolution (e.g. ____ _______ _____________ (_____), ________ ____ ___ ________ ___ (_____)), the LSO does not need to be designated by the ship’s CO, but _____ _____ the ______ __ or ______ __ ___ ____ prior to commencing ___ evolutions.

A
Deck Landing Qualifications (DLQs)
Integrated Ship Air Training Team (ISATT)
shall brief
ship’s CO
Officer of the Deck
DLQ
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14
Q

Pilots whose _____ ___ currency lapses while at the parent squadron’s home base _____ conduct an ____ or ______ event within ___ _____ of scheduled DLQ requalification periods.

A
night DLQ
shall
OFT
FDLPN
30 days
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15
Q

During this event( DLQ OFT or FDLPN), Pilots _____ complete no fewer than _____ evolutions (takeoff, downwind, approach and landing), emphasizing DLQ-specific ___________ and ____ ________ __________

When _______ , these events _____ be conducted with the same Aircrew expected to participate in the scheduled DLQ requalification flight

A

shall
3
communications
Crew Resource Management (CRM)

practical
should

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16
Q

If detachments experience an ________ , ____ (_____ are exempt), ________, or ______, the detachment shall conduct the following embarked training evolutions to reestablish readiness before resuming operations and continue work-up schedule.

It is________ to have an ISATT _______ present during this warm-up period:

A
OIC change
ship Change of Command 
Fleet-up XOs to COs
reassignment to a new ship
more than 60 days elapse between embarked operations

not required
observer

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17
Q

The detachment shall conduct the following embarked training evolutions to reestablish readiness before resuming operations and continue work-up schedule.

A-G (7 evolutions)

A

(a) Day and night landing requalifications
(b) Emergency flight quarters
(c) Crash on deck drill
(d) Hot refueling
(e) Straightening and traversing evolutions
(f) Emergency Low Visibility Approach (ELVA)/Smoke Light Approach
(g) Lost Plane Homing

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18
Q

Pre-embarkation Proficiency. To the ____ ______ practicable, Pilots should fly a _________ within the ____________ for an underway period. Pilots ______ obtain _____________ and _______________ prior to the embarkation flight.

A

maximum extent
minimum of 9 hours
45 days preceding fly-on
shall
night currency (2.0 hours within 45 days)
instrument currency (2.0 hours within 60 days)

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19
Q

During intervals of ___________ between embarked operations, Pilots ______ fly a ____________ and achieve night and instrument currency prior to the next embarkation.

A

45 days or less
should
minimum of 6 hours

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20
Q

To be night coupler current in accordance with reference (c), Pilots ____________or _____________ patterns to __________ to a __________ at night in the preceding ___ ______.

Pilots failing to meet this requirement shall not be scheduled to fly ______________ (to include Plane Guard)

A
shall have flown 2 windline rescue 
Night/IMC dip-to-dip
automatic approaches
coupled hover
60 days

night search and rescue (SAR) missions

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21
Q

To be considered instrument flight current,
Pilots _____ have flown a _________ of simulated or actual instrument time within the preceding _________.

Currency requirements may be satisfied in the ______ or _________.

A

shall
minimum of 2.0 hours
60 days

aircraft
flight simulator

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22
Q

CREW REST REQUIREMENTS
(1) Aircrew __________ for official duties _________________ to the scheduled completion of all __________________. Aircrew involved in ___________ not report for official duties earlier than _______________ to the scheduled completion of all flight and post-flight duties.

A
shall not report
earlier than 12 hours prior
flight and post-flight duties
night flights should
10 hours prior
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23
Q

CREW REST REQUIREMENTS
(2) Aircrew _________ be scheduled to brief a flight event until ____________ completion of post-flight duties, simulator events and subsequent debriefs (normally _____________), or squadron duty.

Aircrew ________ be scheduled to brief a flight event until ______ after completion of post-flight duties

A

should not
12 hours after
one hour after the event

shall not
10 hours

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24
Q

CREW REST REQUIREMENTS
(3) Aircrew traveling to a destination outside Hawaii but no more than __________ away _____ be allowed a recovery time (not scheduled for a flight event) of _______ upon their return.

Aircrew traveling outside of _________ shall consult with the ___________ to determine their recovery time

A

three time zones
shall
24 hours

three time zones
Safety Department

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25
Q

RADIUS OF ACTION

Shipboard radius of action is ___________or maximum _____________ range, whichever is _____.

A

150 Nautical Miles (NM)
reliable navigation/ communication
less

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26
Q

RADIUS OF ACTION
Radius of action beyond ______ in support of specific ______________missions may be approved by ___when dictated by _________, provided ______________ has been conducted.

Time spent beyond _______ shall be limited to the minimum required to accomplish mission objectives.

A
150NM
operational or tactical training 
ISIC
mission planning
deliberate Operational Risk Management (ORM)

150NM

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27
Q

RADIUS OF ACTION
b. One-way flights _____ be limited to _____ ____-__-____ and _____-__-____ and _______ ____-__-_____.

Ship-to-shore range is to a point at which __________________________.

A
shall
150NM
ship-to-ship
shore-to-ship
200NM 
ship-to-shore

a safe landing can be made.

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28
Q

____________, ______________, ______________, and ____________ _____ not be performed with passengers embarked or during orientation flights (to include __________ _________ flights).

A
Simulated emergencies
practice autorotation
intentional aircraft degradations
ordnance release 
shall 

midshipman familiarization

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29
Q

a. Overland:
Populated Area ________
Unpopulated Area _______

b. Overwater:
Day ________*
Unaided Night __________
NVD _________

*NOTE: Flight operations down to _________ during day conditions is intended for ___________________ where the altitude profiles support authorized mission or training objectives.

A

1,000 FT AGL
500 FT AGL

50 FT AGL
150 FT AGL
100 FT AGL

50 FT over water
operational or tactical training flights

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30
Q

c. Coupled Hover: _______*
* NOTE: Following establishment of a steady coupled hover at _______, aircraft altitude may be reduced to no lower than ____________operations at the PIC’s discretion

A

70 FT AGL
70 FT AGL

40 FT to conduct live hoisting

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31
Q

d. Terrain Flight (Low Level Routes): ________
(Only on _________ and ranges).

e. SACT Training:
Day ________
Night _______

A

200 FT AGL
approved low level routes

100 FT AGL
500 FT AGL

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32
Q

a. If the STABILATOR AUTO MODE PBS is not illuminated when _________, _____________ _____ be_________ prior to flight.

A

AC power is applied
stabilator lock pins shall
visually checked

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33
Q

b. The Rescue Hoist Operational Check ______ be completed ___________ to ensure __________.

A

should
on the first flight of the day
SAR capability

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34
Q

c. _____________ and _____________ _____ be called on the _________ and stabilator programming ______ be called after ____________ subsequent to a _______________________.

A
Single engine airspeed
stabilator programming shall
first takeoff of each flight
shall 
reengaging the AUTO mode
simulated or actual failure
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35
Q

The ______________ ______ be accomplished when transitioning from ____________ operations or vice versa.

A

landing checklist shall

pad to runway

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36
Q

Aircrew ______ utilize the _______________ any time that __________ is altered __________________.

A

shall
In-Flight Mission Change Checklist
the mission is altered from what was briefed

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37
Q

Passengers _____________ during hot refueling.

Aircrewmen ______________ refueling operations.

During crew switches, the helicopter shall be under the control of a _____________ and there __________________turnover. The new crew shall begin with ________________.

A

shall not occupy the aircraft

shall assist in monitoring

designated helicopter Pilot
shall be a PIC to PIC verbal
step 9 of the “Post Engagement Checks.”

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38
Q

Personnel shall not proceed _______________, unless ________________, while rotors are turning.

A

aft of countermeasures dispensers

arming/de-arming the system

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39
Q

All crewmembers _______ brief with the HAC at his/her first scheduled brief time.

If aircrew are not present due to in-flight commitments, the HAC ____________________ is complete.

A

should

shall not taxi until the flight crew brief

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40
Q

PIC to PIC verbal turnovers _______ include a check for ___________________.

A

shall

any exceedances through the IMDS table

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41
Q

Aircraft _____________ to the greatest extent possible whenever the possibility of ____________.

A

shall ground taxi vice air taxi

damage from rotor wash exists

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42
Q

Seat and gunner’s belts __________ per CNAF to the maximum extent possible. All occupants of the aircraft __________ seats with ___________ secured during _____________.

A

shall be utilized
should be in crash worthy
seat and shoulder harness
take-off and landing

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43
Q

Detachments operating on __________ with two manned embarked helicopters utilizing the Rapid Securing Device (RSD) ___________________ unless an emergency landing site (shore or ship) is available within _______ for the ___________.

A

single-spot ships
shall not conduct concurrent flight operations
50NM
duration of the evolution

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44
Q

The _____ alternate landing site requirement applies to missions where the parent ship _______________, and does not apply to missions scheduled for _______________.

A

50NM
is the intended point of landing for both aircraft
termination at other than the parent ship

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45
Q

The _____ requirement does not apply to _____ for scheduled embarkations.

For ______, thorough prior mission planning shall be conducted and _____________ which takes into consideration potential ___________.

A

50NM
fly-ons

fly-ons
no-go criteria determined
flight deck/hangaring delays

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46
Q

The_______ alternate landing site limitation does not apply for concurrent __________ flight operations

A

50NM

manned/unmanned

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47
Q

Cell phones _________ with the parking brake engaged to ____________ or __________ to aid in troubleshooting, but ___________ in accordance with CNAF.

A

may be used on deck
check weather or photograph display details
may not be used in-flight

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48
Q

On ___________, photography by the ________________ is authorized at the discretion of the pilot in command above __________, greater than ____ feet AGL with _________ and _________.

This does not preclude ________ on FCFs or photographing ____________.

A
non-tactical events
pilot not at the controls or aircrewman
safe single engine airspeed
500
altitude hold engaged
ORM preformed

data recording
HIT check results

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49
Q

When the APU is required in-flight to support _________, per NATOPS, it should be ______________ to the maximum extent possible

A

essential operations

started on deck

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50
Q

When conducting vertical replenishment (VERTREP) training, a _______ power margin ______ exist between ___________ and maximum power required when _______________.

A

10 percent
shall
Maximum Rated Power (MRP)
a load is lifted from the deck

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51
Q

During ___________ flight below __________, consideration should be given to setting the Decision Height (DH) no lower than _________ than the current altitude.

A

night overwater
500 FT AGL
10 percent less

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52
Q

When operating in the shipboard landing pattern, each Pilot’s DH ________ be set to an altitude determined by the crew that best facilitates _______.
Each crewmember __________ to the crew their DH settings and ______________.

A

should
CRM
shall verbalize
activation of warning tones

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53
Q

In addition to night/IMC descent procedures in NATOPS, all crewmembers _______________ when an altitude warning system aural tone is activated.
This is not expected when
operating ___________.

A

should acknowledge

in a traffic pattern

54
Q

NATOPS Dipping Sonar/Coupled Hover Procedures item 8 “______________”
_______ be completed prior to “______”. PNAC should adjust LONG VEL and LAT VEL potentiometers to ________ and limit _________ to no greater than ______(drift limits do not apply while in ___________).

A
Establish a steady coupled hover
shall 
DOWN DOME
control drift
groundspeed 
2 kts 
sonar cable angle mode
55
Q

Cable angle hover mode ____________ for all dipping sonar operations. Submerged Override _______ be used for _______________.

A

shall be operable
shall not
routine operations

56
Q

Dipping sonar operations ______ not be conducted in seas with wave heights exceeding _____, winds exceeding ______, or __________ currents greater than ______ during _______ or __________ (Group Sail, _________, JTFEX, IDCERT, ___________,
DESIEX, International Fleet Exercises, SHAREM, etc.).

A
should 
10 feet
17-21 knots
known/discovered
4 kts
unit level training
fleet level exercises
COMPTUEX
Submarine Commander’s Course
57
Q

The _______ wind region is a precautionary range where ___________. Dipping _____________ with winds over _______ unless operational requirements exist. Pre-flight _______ and in-flight _____________ assessments of forecasted or observed ________ and _______ shall be accomplished prior to dipping sonar operations.

A
17-21 kts
21 kts is the upper limit
shall not be conducted
21 kts
deliberate ORM
time critical ORM
sea state conditions and currents
58
Q

If cable angle exceeds the _______________, all crew members ________________ the deviation and ensure appropriate corrections are being made to ________________.

A

4.25-degree inner ring
shall verbally acknowledge
center the cable

59
Q

During dipping sonar training operations (_____________), Payed Out Cable Length (POCL) _______________ up to ________ ceiling. When ceilings are above ______,
POCL __________________ ceiling.

A
with or without a submarine
shall be no more than half the ceiling
1,000 FT
1,000 FT
shall be no more than 500 FT below
60
Q

During _____________ involving a submarine, under conditions that ______________, then POCL _____________. However, ______ shall be conducted to minimize the risk to the ________________ in the event of a malfunction.

A
operational ASW
preclude a freestream recovery
need not be restricted
ORM
transducer assembly
61
Q

Dipping operations are prohibited with ________________ affecting _________ , _______ , or ___________ functions. Cease dipping operations following any _____________ in a hover until ____________ is performed.

A
(AFCS) degradations
Automatic Approach
Coupled Hover
Cable Angle hover
uncommanded pitch changes
maintenance action
62
Q

With an _______ (to include on MBIT), _________ operations until _________ is performed.

A

1177 fault
cease dipping
maintenance action

63
Q

If transducer ___________ are exceeded, _____________ and document on a Maintenance Action Form (MAF).

A

towing groundspeed limits

cease dipping operations

64
Q

While operating in a squadron’s ______ for _______, an Air Combat Training Continuum (ACTC) _______ Sensor Operator _______ be in the helicopter on any flight in which dipping is intended. For ___________, an ACTC ________ Sensor Operator ______ be in the helicopter on any flight in which dipping is intended to the ______________.

A
local area
unit level training
Level III
shall
fleet level exercises
Level III
should
maximum extent practicable
65
Q

Dipping is _______ in all ALFS-equipped aircraft. HACs _________ maintenance control of intent to dip and brief dipping operations to include review of ______, ______, and________ prior to employing the ALFS. Crews _______ conduct an MBIT on the first event of the day. The _____ of the sortie ________________.

A
authorized
shall brief 
environmentals
water depth
CRM
should
final dip
should be the deepest
66
Q

With the exception of _________, the dipping sonar shall only be pinged in __________. The Pilot in Command (PIC) shall complete a __________
and ensure __________ report is completed.

A

in-air pings
approved areas
Protective Measures Assessment Protocol (PMAP)
Sonar Positional Reporting System (SPORTS)

67
Q

The _______ is an approved area for conducting _________ operations located at the following coordinates:
Shallowest point is ______ at the ______.

A

Dip Box
active sonar
990 FT
SW corner

68
Q

Maintenance dips _______ be conducted in the ___________ bounded within _________ of the following coordinates:

A

should
shallow-water dip areas
one half mile

69
Q

IMDS cards _____________ from aircraft until _________. On hotseat, verify no ______ from previous flight with maintenance control before taxiing.

Maintenance cards _______ after each flight involving _________ and burned ___________________.

A

shall not be removed
final shutdown
EDECU codes

shall be burned
ALFS employment
prior to every shutdown

70
Q

In the event of a _________, it is assumed the crew has exhausted all means of ______________ and all _________ have been completed per NATOPS and 80T-122.

A

hung dome
recovering the dome
emergency procedures

71
Q

If embarked, the _______ or Helicopter Control Officer shall ensure all _______ are clear of the landing spot with the exception of the minimum number of ___________ (approximately ____).

A

Air Boss
personnel
maintenance personnel required
four

72
Q

Consideration should be given to ____________ or ________ to the deck either on or adjacent to the landing spot, ___________, with tie down straps to ________ onto which the dome could be lowered in order to _____________.

A

securing a mattress or padding
POCL dependent
provide a cushion
minimize damage

73
Q

The aircraft will hover at an __________________. Maximum safe altitude will depend on ______________ and _________. The Landing Signalman Enlisted (LSE) ________ be positioned in the __________ to provide signals for placing the dome on the deck.

A

appropriate altitude to facilitate recovery
POCL and environmental considerations
should
best location

74
Q

Conditions will dictate whether the cable will be ___________ to the deck. If lowered to the deck and __________ to allow maintenance personnel to disconnect the dome, they shall ensure the dome is _________________ and will then disconnect the dome from the cable.

After the dome is detached, the aircraft will _______________ and cable ______________ away from the landing spot.

A

sheared or the dome lowered
sufficient POCL exists
grounded to prevent electrical shock

begin a descent
shall be walked with two-person integrity

75
Q

If there is __________ to allow maintainers to safely work under the aircraft, the crew may opt to _____________ and then ___________.

If at any time, a ________ cannot be maintained during or after __________ and during the descent, the crew ________________ to facilitate safe recovery.

A

insufficient POCL
lower the dome onto the padding
slide over to land

stable hover
disconnecting the dome
shall execute the appropriate emergency procedure

76
Q

After landing and placement of chocks and chains, the cable _______ be placed in the aircraft cabin prior to __________.

A

should

aircraft shutdown

77
Q

Active or passive sonobuoy channels ___ and ___ shall not be dropped within ________ of the Hawaiian Islands. Additionally, active or passive sonobuoy channel _____ shall not be dropped at _______. Other sonobuoy channel restrictions for _______ should be verified
prior to launching for range events.

A
3
8
200 NM
1
PMRF
PMRF
78
Q

When away from own ship (except ____________) an aircrew member _____ witness the taking of the _________ from the hose for all _______ operations.

A

CVN, LHA, or LHD
shall
fuel sample
fueling

79
Q

During a DLQ session the PIC _____ conduct the ________ approach to a landing for each hot-seated pilot to afford them the opportunity to become _______________ and sight picture.

A

should
first night
acclimated to the night environment

80
Q

When conducting a SAR to______________, a __________ is approved for wear.

A

land and/or a large surface vessel

TRI-SAR and flight suit

81
Q

Per NAVAIR 00-80T-103, hot refueling aircraft with ________ loaded is _________. ______, _______, _________, ______, ______, _____, and ______ are authorized to be carried during _______.

A
live ordnance
prohibited ashore
Hellfire CATM
REXTORPs
empty Digital Rocket Launcher (DRL)
sonobuoys
smokes
Signal Underwater Sound
door guns
hot refueling ashore
82
Q

Hellfire missiles are authorized to be carried during ________ provided the event is part of ______________ training. Hot and cold refueling aircraft with ______ loaded is permitted afloat, with __________ approval.

A

hot seats ashore
NAWDC or Weapons School sponsored
ordnance
ship’s CO

83
Q

Aircrews are authorized to conduct _______________ with missiles and rockets loaded with concurrence of the ________.

A

multiple shipboard approaches and landing

ship’s CO

84
Q

Straightening, maneuvering and traverse training with _________ loaded is prohibited. Downloading ______ missiles shall be conducted prior to any of the above evolutions, except _______ with the specific authorization of the ______.

A

CATMs
warshot
in an emergency
ship’s CO

85
Q

Traversing at _______ between the ______ and the ______ with warshot missiles loaded is authorized at ______discretion with ______.

A
slow speed
maintenance line
 flight position 
ship’s COs 
ISIC approval
86
Q

The M-299 and APKWS/DRL _________ checks ______ only be conducted with the extended pylons in the ______ position.

A

release and control
shall
ready for flight

87
Q

Passengers ________ when the _____ crew-served gun is installed. If a crew served weapon is required during passenger transfer, the ______ shall be utilized. The _____ shall be kept in the ________ when not in use, and ammo cans _________ to prevent _________ in the event of an emergency.

A
shall not be embarked
GAU-21
M240
M240
stowed position
shall be secured
missile hazards
88
Q

Crews conducting ___________ events _____ be responsible for own range clearance to a minimum of _______________ for the GAU-21 and M240 crew-served weapons.

A
  • live Gunnery Exercise
  • shall
  • 5NM beyond maximum weapons employment envelopes
89
Q

Except ________, smoke markers ______ not be dropped closer than ____ from the coastline or in inland waterways, unless on a _____________.

A
  • in an emergency
  • shall
  • 10NM
  • designated range or dip area
90
Q

Smoke markers that cannot be de-armed _____ be jettisoned outside of ______ from the coastline and prior to returning to home base and final landing.

A
  • shall

- 10NM

91
Q

With the exception of _______ and ________, carrying live ordnance over populated areas __________. If a mission requires flight to a facility near a populated area the __________ that will minimize civilian exposure ______ be used.

A
  • sonobuoys
  • smoke markers
  • shall be avoided
  • most direct route
  • shall
92
Q

Removal or replacement of the sonobuoy launcher cover ________ be performed with the __________. If the cover is removed or replaced with _____, _________ shall be utilized.

A
  • should not
  • rotors engaged
  • rotors turning
  • two-person integrity
93
Q

The sonobuoy launcher cover ____ be fastened with all possible attachment bolts, but no less than ______. Additionally, ________ are required per enclosure (2). Missing bolts _____ be documented
on a Maintenance Action Form (MAF).

A
  • shall
  • 11 total
  • all corner bolts
  • shall
94
Q

STATIC DISPLAY OF AIRCRAFT. In addition, the following safety precautions shall be taken:

a. ______
b. ______
c. ______
d. ______
e. ______

A
  • Battery disconnected and appropriate circuit breakers pulled.
  • Sonobuoy launcher bottle pressure vented.
  • All intake plugs/covers installed.
  • Rotor brake lock on.
  • All doors/panels closed unless a crewmember is present.
95
Q

All personnel shall use authorized ____, _____, and ____ protection in hangars and on the flight line. ____ hearing protection is required when within _____ of aircraft with ______ or within ____ of aircraft with ________. _____ hearing protection is required when within ____ of aircraft with__________ or ______ for extended periods of time. Double hearing protection is not required ___________.

A
  • eye, hearing and head
  • Single
  • 200 FT
  • rotors turning
  • 50 FT
  • only APU turning
  • Double
  • 30 FT
  • rotors turning or APU running
  • inside the aircraft
96
Q

__________________ while operating or working on aircraft or moving ground support equipment.

A

-Rings and earrings shall not be worn

97
Q

No one shall climb on top of aircraft unless ____________. If only _____ is operating, personnel may climb on top of an aircraft only with _________________.

A
  • both engines are secured
  • the APU
  • the permission of the PIC
98
Q

If the _________ is on, care must be taken when moving ________ to prevent injury to maintenance personnel. In this case, the PIC shall ensure that one of the Aircrew ____________ the top of the aircraft for _______ and _______ prior to continuing with the __________.

A
  • back-up pump
  • flight controls
  • visually checks
  • integrity
  • Foreign Object Debris
  • engine start
99
Q

All personnel shall wear a ______________________whenever climbing on any part of the aircraft. This requirement may be relaxed ______________ to perform maintenance or an inspection in which headgear restricts the _____________________.

A
  • cranial or helmet with strap fastened
  • only as long as required
  • proper accomplishment of the task
100
Q

All personnel ______ enter and exit the rotor arc at the __________ o’clock positions to the maximum extent possible and only by direction of a __________ and only after the _________________________.

A
  • shall
  • three and nine
  • Plane Captain (PC)/LSE
  • PC has received clearance from the Pilot at Controls (PAC)
101
Q

In the absence of a PC, personnel entering and exiting the rotor arc ____ receive clearance from the PAC. Personnel ____ not enter or exit the rotor arc when _____________________________.

A
  • shall
  • shall
  • Pilots are either entering or exiting the cockpit
102
Q

No one shall enter or exit the rotor arc unless the rotor system _______________ or _____________.

A
  • is at 100 percent Nr

- both engines are secured

103
Q

The PIC ____ ensure the aircraft goes through the Helicopter Rinse Facility (HRF) after _______, _________, after _____ or after flights involving _________ approaches and notify maintenance if unable.

A
  • shall
  • its last flight of the day
  • shipboard operations
  • coupled approaches
  • 10’/10 kts or 15’/0 kts
104
Q

The PIC shall not go through the HRF if the _________ is not installed, the _______will not close, the _______ is not installed, _____________ is not installed, or a _____ is installed.

A
  • SO window
  • cabin door
  • cargo hook access panel
  • sonobouy launcher cover
  • CATM
105
Q

Additionally, the PIC _____ ensure minimal water intrusion to the ______ and the ___________.

A
  • shall
  • MTS/FLIR
  • Radar Altimeter antennae
106
Q

During aircraft turnover, the ___________ be reinstalled following ASW events and ________ be downloaded following SUW events to permit use of helo rinse facility after subsequent sorties if a HRF is available. Installation or removal of the _____________ with _____ requires _______________.

A
  • sonobuoy launcher cover should
  • CATMs should
  • sonobuoy lancher cover
  • rotors engaged
  • two-person integrity
107
Q

Pilots that have not performed a blade spread/fold evolution _____ not fold blades until they have performed a blade fold sequence under the supervision of a ____ or qualified squadron ___________.

A
  • shall
  • HAC
  • Aviation Electrician’s Mate (AE)
108
Q

During both ____________operations, all aircraft cowlings, covers, access panels and cockpit doors _________________ whenever jet blast, prop wash, wind or rotor wash from an aircraft that is _____________could cause damage to them.

A
  • ship and shore-based
  • shall be closed and latched
  • air taxiing, taking off or landing
109
Q

Cowlings, covers, access panels and cockpit doors _____________ in the open position and ____________ when not performing maintenance or preflight inspections.

A
  • shall not be left unattended

- shall be closed and latched

110
Q

When opening the hydraulics bay access cover, securing straps ________. At sea, a minimum of ________ are required to open or close the hydraulics bay access cover while only ________ is required while the _________ are installed.

A
  • should be utilized
  • two people
  • one person
  • securing straps
111
Q

The maximum numbers of unfastened, broken or missing fasteners is as follows:

  • Tail Gearbox Cowling
  • Intermediate Gearbox Cowling
  • Vertical Tail Driveshaft Cover
  • Other Tail Driveshaft Covers
A

MAXIMUM IN A ROW / TOTAL

  • 2 / 3
  • 2 / 3
  • 2 / 2
  • 1 / 1
112
Q

NOTE: Flight with unfastened, broken, or missing corner fasteners is ________. Corner fasteners _____ be fixed ____________ by qualified maintenance personnel. ____________ corner fasteners and required ____________ fasteners are identified in enclosure (2).

A
  • not recommended
  • should
  • as soon as practicable
  • Tail Gearbox Cowling
  • sonobuoy launcher cover
113
Q

Aircraft should be _____________ during all ship weapons firing evolutions.

For RAS evolutions, consideration should be given to __________, if not airborne, when ________ are being fired from the replenishment ship in ______________.

A
  • airborne or in the hangar
  • hangaring the aircraft
  • shot lines
  • the vicinity of the flight deck
114
Q

Post-installation maintenance dips from shore _____ be conducted in an area with no more than ______ water depth to facilitate recovery efforts in the event of loss of transducer.

A
  • shall

- 2000 feet

115
Q

Simulated emergencies ___________ in the aircraft under the cognizance of a ___________.

Compound emergencies involving the _____________ shall not be
_________________.

A
  • shall only be introduced
  • designated HAC
  • degradation of two or more unrelated systems
  • introduced, initiated or practiced
116
Q

No circuit breakers _____ be pulled to initiate a simulated emergency.

A

-shall

117
Q

Practice autorotations at _________.

A

-night are prohibited

118
Q

simulated emergencies requiring the
____________ at night are prohibited with the following exceptions:
(1) ______________________ to allow for safe execution.
(2) __________ landings
(3) _______ and failed _________
(4) Simulated ____________
(5) _________ failure

A
  • actual degradation of aircraft systems
  • Single-engine approaches and landings to a prepared surface with adequate overrun and underrun
  • Single-engine running
  • Boost-off
  • SAS/AFCS
  • lost Internal Communication System
  • STAB auto mode
119
Q

Pilot and copilot radar altimeter indicators _____________ for practice autorotations. Aircraft Commanders ____ evaluate conditions such as _____________ before
practicing autorotations or ___________.

A
  • shall be operable
  • shall
  • gross weight, density altitude and winds
  • single engine landings to a spot
120
Q

Minimum autorotation entry altitude

should not be lower than: ________ for straight-ins, _______ for 90-degree and ______ for 180-degree autorotations.

A
  • 500 FT AGL
  • 800 FT AGL
  • 1,000 FT AGL
121
Q

Simulated _________ from a hover out of ground effect (e.g., 70 FT Coupled Hover) shall only be initiated ___________.

A
  • single engine failures

- over a surface where a run-on landing can be made

122
Q

To mitigate the possibility of exceeding engine or torque limits during practice single-engine maneuvers, the HAC should consider using one of the following two techniques:

(1) Leave at least ________ on the “malfunctioning” engine and ____________ to keep the “operating” engine _______.
(2) Leave _____________ and utilize a dual engine torque limit based on _____________,

A
  • 30 percent torque
  • adjust as necessary
  • below 135 percent
  • both PCLs in FLY
  • half of the single-engine max power
123
Q

____________, _________________, ________________, and in-flight emergency simulation that requires placement of an ______________ shall only be accomplished _____.

A
  • Dual engine malfunctions
  • tail rotor drive emergencies
  • total Alternating Current (AC) power failure
  • engine into (DECU) lockout
  • in the OFT
124
Q

CAL/LZ training shall be conducted on _____________ in accordance with their governing directives. Pre-mission planning _______ be conducted to calculate ____________ given expected conditions at the CAL/LZ site. A “power available” check ______ be conducted at the planned __________ before
___________.

A
  • approved ranges or airfields
  • shall
  • power available and power required
  • shall
  • landing altitude
  • commencing the approach
125
Q

The _____ available versus maximum power required margin shall be ___________ to proceed with the approach. Operational CAL/LZ flights other than those of _________ shall also adhere to this power margin.

A
  • MRP
  • 10 percent or greater
  • operational necessity
126
Q

The sensor operator window _______ be reinstalled by authorized maintenance personnel following CAL/LZ flights. Qualified aircrewmen _________ the sensor operator window for the purposes of utilizing the hot pits and/or helicopter rinse facility.

A
  • shall

- may temporarily re-install

127
Q

Night LZ operations _____ be conducted with the use of ______________. Day LZ training flights _____ be conducted with ____ aircrewmen. Night LZ training flights _____ be conducted with ____ aircrewmen. CALs shall have ____ aircrewmen and are ______ (House is defined as a CAL).

A
  • shall
  • Night Vision Devices (NVD)
  • should
  • two
  • shall
  • two
  • two
  • prohibited at night
128
Q

The ____ may be used for mission training purposes _______, but shall not be used on ________.

A
  • ELRF
  • outside of an approved laser range
  • personnel or wildlife
129
Q

Prior to commencing____________ or
practice ________ in the MH-60R, the APU and APU generator ______ be turned on to prevent the MD/FD and EGIs from securing due to the main generators dropping off line as a result of __________.

A
  • practice autorotations
  • single engine training
  • shall
  • excessive Nr drooping
130
Q

During initial SAR jumps at HSM-37, ____________, ________, __________, or _________shall be part of the aircrew to oversee hoisting operations.

A

a SAR Instructor, Assistant SAR Instructor, NATOPS Instructor, or assistant NATOPS Instructor

131
Q

If only one aircrewman is scheduled for NVD TACFORM, they _____, the _____ be notified, and the crew shall discuss the ORM with respect to the limitation of not having a second aircrewman.
An aircrewmen’s first NVD TACFORM flight at HSM-37 _____ be flown with a qualified
________.

A
  • shall be a NSI
  • CO shall
  • shall
  • NSI aircrewmen