Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Health Science > HS II Midterm > Flashcards

HS II Midterm Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the first step to responding to any emergency situation?

A

assess the emergency situation and ensure the scene is safe for you to proceed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which type of burn should you flush with cool water?

A

first degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which of the following is true of shock?

A

patients with shock usually have a rapid, weak pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what of the following is true? of pulse and bp

A

all above is true:
systolic pressure is the pressure in walls of arteries when left ventricle contracts
diastolic pressure is the constant pressure in walls of arteries when left ventricle contracts
the radial pulse is measured in the underside of pts wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what of the following is false (of temp)?

A

hyperthermia or fever is a body temp below 101F to 104F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which of the following is false? of bp

A

pulse pressure is the difference between diastolic and systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which of the following is false? of pulse

A

apical pulse is measured by palpation at the apex of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

you are about to transport an elderly patient with a urinary catheter. which of the following must you keep in mind?

A

the collection bag must be kept lower than the pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most prominent symptom of renal calculus?

A

pain in kidney area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which of the following is true of ectopic pregnancies?

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most injected poisonings are a result of what?

A

drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

coma, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression are referred to as what?

A

opiate triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why is carbon monoxide especially dangerous?

A

it is colorless, odorless, and kills quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what might affect airway patency in a pt who drank a caustic solution?

A

burns in throat and mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which of the following is a significant sign that the patient may have mixed alcohol with other drugs?

A

lowered vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what should be your first priority when dealing with an inhalation poisoning?

A

calling trained personnel to secure the scene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does activated charcoal help in some cases of poisoning?

A

it binds to the poison and prevents it from being absorbed by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the priority when dealing with an absorption poisoning?

A

decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

you are responding to a patient with an absorption poisoning. what should you do after brushing off solid material and removing contaminated clothing?

A

flush the area with large amounts of clean water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which of the following is a substance used to counteract the effects of a poison?

A

antidote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treatment of the poisoned pt often focuses on what?

A

managing related symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the term for a severe allergic reaction that occurs during the first exposure to the allergen?

A

anaphylactoid reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the first step towards controlling Type 2 diabetes?

A

monitoring diet and exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which of the following is true of oral glucose?

A

it can be a choking hazard for patients that cannot swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

chronic bronchitis and emphysema are examples of what type of disease?

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which of the following describes a pt with apnea?

A

no breathing at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

a pt experiencing a severe, life-threatening asthma attack will likely need which of the following interventions?

A

positive pressure ventilations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which of the following is a common symptom of heart failure?

A

all of the above:
jugular vein distention, edema, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the medical term for heart attack?

A

acute myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

if the cardiac pt is not hypotensive, the pt is usually transported in what position?

A

sitting up on the stretcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how should a pt with abdominal pain who is not in shock be positioned on the stretcher?

A

position of comfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when can heart attacks occur?

A

all of the above:
when a pt is at rest, when a pt is under emotional stress, when a pt is under physical stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pain from apendicitis is felt in which abdominal quadrant?

A

right lower quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

responsive stroke pts should be placed in what position for transport

A

supine with the head of the stretcher raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which of the following is priority when a pt has an altered mental status?

A

handling threats to the pts airway, breathing, or circulaiton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which of the folllowing indicates stroke when using the Cincinnati Stroke Scale?

A

asymmetrical movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which of the following conditions can have the same symptoms as stroke?

A

all of the above:
hypoglycemia, seizure, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which of the follow describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

A

a minor stroke in which symptoms resolve soon after onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is another term for syncope?

A

fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a hypoglycemic pt may display what symptoms?

A

all of the above:

bizarre behavior, shaking or tremors, sweating, rapid pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what causes type 1 diabetes?

A

the pancrease does not produce any insulin

42
Q

what type of diabetes is typically diagnosed during childhood?

A

type 1

43
Q

which of the following is important when using a pulse oximeter on a respiratory pt?

A

get a baseline measurement b4 administering oxygen

44
Q

what is another term for shortness of breath?

A

dyspnea

45
Q

what is the most effective method of preventing transmission of infection diseases?

A

hand-washing

46
Q

which type of mask should be used if the pt has tuberculosis?

A

n-95 particulate mask

47
Q

what is the purpose of universal precautions?

A

a list of guidelines that will help prevent the transmission of disease

48
Q

what is a pathogen?

A

a microorganism that causes infection and disease

49
Q

is what situations should alcohol-based cleaners be used instead of washing hands w soap and water?

A

when soap and water are not available, but wash with soap and water as soon as possible

50
Q

which abbreviation refers to both eyes?

A

OU

51
Q

what is the primary role of a medical assistant during an EENT exam?

A

to assist the physician in any way that is needed

52
Q

what is the term for a defect in near vision?

A

hyperopia

53
Q

which of the following is true of testing hearing with an audiometer?

A

the pt should not face the medical assistant during the test

54
Q

which item would be used to test for color deficiencies?

A

ishihara plates

55
Q

which item would be used to test a pts far vision?

A

snellen chart

56
Q

which tool would be most appropriate for testing a pts ability to hear different sound frequencies?

A

audiometer

57
Q

when being tested for far vision on a snellen chart, julia can read to line 50 w both eyes while standing 20 ft away. what is julia’s far vision for both eyes?

A

20/50

58
Q

during a far vision test, how far should the pt stand from the snellen chart?

A

20 ft

59
Q

which of the following is true at documenting complete physical exams?

A

documentation should include a synopsis of the phsyical

60
Q

what is the primary purpose of a peds growth chart?

A

to provide a visual assessment of the child’s growth pattern

61
Q

which pulse points should be checked in infants and small children?

A

apical with a stethoscope or femoral or brachial

62
Q

when using the thin prep pap method what should be done with the cervical brush after specimen in collected?

A

it should be stirred into a bottle of preservative

63
Q

which information should be gathered form pts prior to a GYN exam?

A

all of the above:

method of contraception, regularity and duration of menstrual cycles, date of last menstrual period

64
Q

which of the following tasks may be required of a medical assistant during a pap test?

A

prepare the specimen with a direct smear of liquid based method

65
Q

where should a tongue depressor be placed after it is used?

A

in a biohazard waste container

66
Q

which of the following is true about a near vision test w a jaegar chart?

A

a pt should hold the chart abt 14 inches from eyes

67
Q

what is the name of the position in which a pt lays face-up with feet elevated in stirrups?

A

lithotomy

68
Q

which examination technique involves listening to internal body sounds with a stethoscope?

A

ascultation

69
Q

the trendelenburg position increases circulation to the

A

brain and heart

70
Q

which of the following is used to open the vagina during a gynecological exam?

A

vaginal speculum

71
Q

in which direction does the pt lay while in supine position?

A

face up

72
Q

why should the physician be consulted before placing an elderly pt in prone position?

A

limited ROM in their necks can make it uncomfortable

73
Q

which two tools would be most helpful when examining the throat?

A

laryngeal mirror and tongue depressor

74
Q

which of the following is an example of an objective finding?

A

the pt has a fever of 99.8 degrees F

75
Q

Which of the following is an example of a subjective finding?

A

the pt says he is constantly fatigued

76
Q

in relation to medical records, what does the acronym soap stand for?

A

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

77
Q

which of the following is a lighted tool used to examine the ears?

A

otoscope

78
Q

in which position is the head of the bed elevated?

A

fowlers

79
Q

why is appropriate draping so important during physical exams?

A

draping helps to preserve a pts dignity

80
Q

what is blood pressure?

A

the force of blood against the artery walls

81
Q

which term is used to describe high blood pressure?

A

hypertension

82
Q

which of the following factors can affect blood pressure?

A

all of the above:
patient positioning, volume of blood in arteries, force of heartbeat, elasticity of arteries

83
Q

which of the following respiration rates is normal for a 6 yo girl?

A

20

84
Q

your adult pts bp reading is 175 mmHg systolic and 99 mm Hg diastllic. What should you do next?

A

quickly but calmly report the reading to your supervisor

85
Q

which of the following is true of respirations?

A

respiration should be counted while your fingers are still in the position used to measure pulse

86
Q

your pt is having difficulty breathing and has a respiration rate of 5 bpm. which of the following describes ur pt?

A

bradypnea

87
Q

what does a pulmonary function test measure?

A

breathing and lung function

88
Q

which of the following respiration rates is considered normal for an adult male?

A

18

89
Q

which example is the correct way to record apical pulse?

A

AP 68 strong and regular

90
Q

a pulse rate of fewer than 60 bpm is described as which of the following?

A

bradycardia

91
Q

mr.dennis states that he has an arrhythmia. what do you now know abt the pt?

A

the pt may have an abnormal pulse rhythm

92
Q

which of the items increases a pts pulse rate?

A

fever

93
Q

where is radial pulse measured?

A

on the underside of the pts wrist

94
Q

which range is the average pulse rate for infants?

A

100-160

95
Q

where is the carotid pulse site?

A

on the side of the pts neck

96
Q

which of the following is a definition of pulse?

A

the pressure of blood pushing against an artery as the heart beats

97
Q

which of the following rectal temps indicates hyperthermia?

A

105F

98
Q

which of the following shows a temp measurement documented correctly?

A

2/15/XX, 1600, 101.2, Gloria Jackson, MA.

99
Q

what does temperature meausre?

A

the balance btw heat produced and heat lost

100
Q

in addition to height and weight, taking infant body measurements includes which of the following?

A

head circumference

Health Science (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions