HRM EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Prehistoric Medicine consists of?

A

Belief that illness was the result of supernatural forces, disease was caused by invasion of evil spirits.

Tribal priests drove angry gods and evil spirits from diseased bodies with the use of various plants, potions, and procedures such as trephining, which was cutting through the skull with a stone instrument to release evil spirits.

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2
Q

In Ancient Medicine, Greek Philosophers believed what?

A

Greek philosophers believed that earth, water, air, and fire were the four elements that governed their universe.

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3
Q

Hippocrates is considered what?

A

often called the “Father of Medicine”, was the first medical practitioner who considered medicine to be a science and an art, separate from religion

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4
Q

The Hippocratic Oath is?

A

still used today, expresses Hippocrates’ expression of early medical ethics and high ideals

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5
Q

What did Galen do?

A

Galen excised tumors and treated fractures

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6
Q

What did Antyllos do?

A

Antyllos treated cataracts and bronchial fistulae

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7
Q

Early Preventative Medicine started by…

A

minimizing contamination and isolation procedures being identified.

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8
Q

In the medieval years (864-930 AD), what diseases were identified?

A

measles, smallpox, tetanus, meningitis

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9
Q

First hospitals were created in?

A

the first hospitals were created in the middle East.

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10
Q

During the Renaissance years (1300-1600 AD), what changed?

A

Autopsies became more common in an attempt to understand the human body.

Anatomy became better understood as illustrators depicted internal organs, bones, muscles, blood vessels, nerves

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11
Q

In 1895, Wilhelm Roentgen discovered…..

A

X-rays to view inside the body

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12
Q

In 1898, Pierre and Marie Curie discovered….

A

radium which would become a weapon used to treat cancer

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13
Q

When was chemotherapy introduced?

A

1910

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14
Q

What did Penicillin become?

A

the first antibiotic

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15
Q

When were AIDS & HIV identified?

A

1981

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16
Q

Who isolated insulin at UofT in 1921?

A

Sir Francis Banting and Charles Best, under the direction of John James Rickard Macleod, isolated insulin.

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17
Q

Who invented was the Experimental external cardiac pacemaker-defibrillator?

A

Dr. John A. Hopps, 1951-1955.

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18
Q

Pre-confederation (<1867) Canadian Healthcare was provided by…..

A

Prior to confederation, the religious community and families provided health care to each other in the best way they could.

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19
Q

The first medical schools were established in the 1820’s, where was the first in Canada?

A

The Montreal Medical Institute was one of the first medial schools established in Lower Canada.

This is now the faculty of medicine at McGill University.

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20
Q

When was the The College of Physicians and Surgeons of Upper Canada established and permanently incorporated?

A

The College of Physicians and Surgeons of Upper Canada was established in 1839 and in 1869 was permanently incorporated.

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21
Q

Who pioneered the right for women to practice medicine?

A

The pioneers, Emily Howard Stowe and Jennie Kidd Trout were responsible for this.

Emily helped lead the creation of the Ontario Medical College for Woman which was affiliated with the University of Toronto.

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22
Q

What happened Post-confederation within healthcare?

A

The Victorian Order of Nurses were established in 1897 to provide needed care to the populace.

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23
Q

When was The Canadian Red Cross Society developed and assisted with the health of individuals, families, and communities?

A

May 19 1909.

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24
Q

When was old age pensions introduced in Canada?

A

in 1927

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25
Q

When was unemployment insurance created in Canada?

A

unemployment insurance in 1940

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26
Q

When was the family allowance created in Canada?

A

the family allowance was created in 1944.

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27
Q

Saskatchewan’s Premier Tommy Douglas, introduced what?

A

introducing government funded medical insurance in the 1940’s.

Premier Tommy Douglas initiatives in health care, moved throughout the other provinces in Canada.

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28
Q

In 1956 the Federal government passed the Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic services Act and the Medical Care Act in 1966. What do these two make when put together?

A

Together these acts formed the creation of Canada’s publicly-funded universal health insurance known as Medicare.

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29
Q

In 1984, The Canada Health Act was passed, what did it do?

A

prohibited user fees and extra billing by doctors.

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30
Q

What are the 3 main levels of Continuum of Care?

A
  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
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31
Q

What is primary care?

A

Primary Care: First point of contact care Includes preventive care and acute care medicine

Examples:
* Annual physical exam
* Health Education
* Immunizations
* Vision and hearing assessments
* Annual dental assessments
* Medical consultations
* Acute trauma
* Advanced Life Support (ACLS)

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32
Q

What is secondary care?

A

Secondary Care: Services provided by medical professionals whose primary care was provided by a primary care provider

Examples:
* Sub-specialty consultation
* Acute complex trauma
* Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS)
* On-call consults

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33
Q

What is tertiary care?

A

Tertiary Care: These services are provided by hospitals with advanced and/or specialized treatment abilities Services provided by uniquely qualified health professionals

Examples:
* Burn center treatments
* Neurosurgery
* Cardiothoracic surgery
* Neonatology
* Organ transplants
* High-risk pregnancies

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34
Q

What does the governing board do?

A
  • The governing board is basically the watch-dog of the hospital.
  • They ensure that the hospital is following its strategic plan, remains financially solvent, and operates under the Hospital Act and other regulations.
  • The bottom line responsibility of the governing board is to ensure the patient is well cared for.
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35
Q

What does administration do?

A

Hospital administration is the coordinators between staff and the Governing board.

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36
Q

Who are the medical staff?

A

This includes the physicians, other specialists that work in the facility.

That includes:
* Doctors of Osteopathy
* Medical Doctors
* Doctors of Podiatric medicine
* Doctors of dental surgery

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37
Q

What are house officers?

A

includes physicians who work in the medical facility, also known as house staff.

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38
Q

What are the categories of Medical Staff?

A

Active – practitioners who admit patients in a facility, perform both outpatient and inpatient procedures, and work full time in the facility

Associate – resident in training

Consulting – includes specialists

Courtesy – physicians currently working in other facilities; can also be consulting physicians.

Honorary – staff who have worked for many years, and consult post retirement, although not in a medical capacity.

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39
Q

Allergy and Immunology is?

A

Treatments of allergies and the immune system

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40
Q

Anesthesiology

A

Pain management, surgery and beyond

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41
Q

Colon and Rectal Surgery

A

Treatment and management of diseases of the intestines; diseases of the intestines

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42
Q

Dermatology

A

Care for skin disorders

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43
Q

Family practice

A

Total health management

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44
Q

General surgery

A

Regular surgeries

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45
Q

Gynecology

A

Care of female reproductive and urinary conditions

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46
Q

Internal Medicine

A

Treatment of adult medicine

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47
Q

Medical Genetics

A

Care of patients with Genetically linked diseases

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48
Q

Neurology

A

Care and treatment of disorders of the nervous system

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49
Q

Obstetrics

A

Management of pregnancy

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50
Q

Ophthalmology

A

Care of eye disorders

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51
Q

Orthopedics

A

Care of musculoskeletal disorders

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52
Q

Otorhinolaryngology

A

Care of disorders of ear (ot), nose (rhino) and throat (Laryng)

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53
Q

What is Health Data?

A

health facts about a patient that describe a health issue

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53
Q

Plastic and reconstructive surgery

A

Repair and restructure of body surfaces

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54
Q

Psychiatry

A

Care of behavioural health issues

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55
Q

Radiology

A

Diagnostic tool

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56
Q

Thoracic Surgery

A

Surgical procedures for chest area

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57
Q

Urology

A

Treatments for disorders of the genitourinary system and adrenals

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58
Q

A typical flow through the life of a health record is?

A
  1. Patient is discharged from facility.
  2. Chart is held in the medical unit that the patient was in for several days so that final nursing notes can be documented and physicians can have an opportunity to complete their written notes.
  3. Chart is picked up by a “chart runner” whose job is specific to picking up discharged charts and safely bringing them to the Health Records Department.
  4. Once received in the health records department, a discharge list is produced, and items are checked to ensure that all discharged records are in the department. Missing records are followed up on immediately.
  5. All charts are logged into the department on a chart tracking system, which provides an audit trail of the charts whereabouts.
  6. The chart then gets assembled, and scanner readied in an electronic environment.
  7. Once scanner readied, it moves to the scanning area. Each page is scanned-front and back, and then moved to the verifying desk.
  8. The chart is verified – this means each page is looked at to ensure that all the information is for the same patient, and same admission, and the quality of the scanned item is good.
  9. The chart moves to the analysis desk where area are checked to ensure compliance with internal documentation requirements
  10. If there are no discrepancies found in analysis, the physical chart can be set for destruction. The computerized chart is considered the original chart.
  11. If discrepancies are found, a discrepancy sheet is printed off detailing what the attending physician must complete. The physical chart is filed by physician name in an incomplete chart room.
  12. Once completed the discrepancy is closed in the system, items that require re-scanning are done at this time. Once all is verified again, the chart can be set for destruction.
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59
Q

When is the Health Records Department Open?

A

The health record processing department is open 24 hours per day, and all 7 days.

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60
Q

Receptionist responsibilities?

A
  • The receptionist assists people that come into the department.
    • Provide medical documentation/chart copies to the emergency department, (ER), Intensive care unit (ICU) Continuing care unit (CCU) and Ambulatory care for patient care.
  • Telephone duties

*order stationary and other supplies for the department.

  • Sign in charts that are being returned to the department. (Except for daily discharge charts)
  • Sort incoming mail and distribute as required.
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61
Q

What does a discharge clerk do?

A
  • ensure that all inpatient discharge reports are received, recorded and organized by date and placed in the designated area.
  • control and log all fetal monitoring strips.
  • daily discharges are imported electronically and printed off as a check list.
  • receives the physical chart in the department and records receipt of all discharged charts in an electronic chart tracking system
  • follows up on missing charts or documents by contacting the unit that the patient was on.
  • Organizes and files chronic care chart “thinning”.
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62
Q

What is “thinning”?

A

Chronic care patients are acutely ill patients that require extensive care, and their visits are lengthy.

This creates a thick chart which is not easy to control on the floor, so certain components, such as the (MAR) medication administration reports or continuing care flow sheets are forwarded to the health records department for storage until the patient is discharged.

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63
Q

File Clerk-Scanner Ready, does?

A
  • Whether a chart is being processed to be filed manually or to be scanned into the system, it must be properly prepared.
  • The file clerk removes all staples, removes duplicate forms (admission sheets, emergency face sheets), ECG rhythm strips and odd sized results and reports must be taped carefully on a mounting sheet.
  • All sheets that do not have an Addressograph label have to be labeled with patient name, unit number, and account (admission) number. If they are double faced sheets, both from and back must be labeled.
  • The clerk then will put the chart in assembly order, ensuring that all patient documentation is in date order, and all information is for this patient and encounter from time of admission to discharge.
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64
Q

Scanning Clerk does what?

A
  • For facilities that scan documentation into a chart, the scanning clerk will verify that charts have been properly scanner readied.
  • They scan the chart in the optical scanner, and rescan imperfect images.
  • They are responsible for troubleshooting minor issues with the scanner and reporting the bigger ones.
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65
Q

Verifying Clerk does what?

A
  • The verifying clerk will verify the image quality of all documents.
  • They assign or confirm that the correct patient and form identification is available for each form.
  • They confirm that the document image has become a part of the electronic record.
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66
Q

What does the analysis clerk do?

A
  • The analysis clerk is responsible for ensuring inpatient information is complete according to legislated and hospital guidelines.
  • The clerk prepares incomplete notification sheets that inform the primary physician of discrepancies in the chart.
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67
Q

What does a destruction clerk do?

A

completes a destruction log of charts that have been successfully scanned and verified, and ensures safe destruction of the paper copy.

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68
Q

What does an Incomplete Chart Room Clerk do?

A
  • The incomplete file room clerk is responsible for filing all of the charts awaiting completion by physicians.
  • They file all charts in terminal digit order and by physician name and assist physicians with determining issues with the chart.
  • At times they are required to reanalyze a chart if the physician points out an error in directing the chart to the most responsible physician.

Finally, once a chart is completed by a physician, they discharge the chart from the incomplete file room and direct it to destruction; as well as sending any paper changes for rescanning. (Also called scan-complete)

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69
Q

What does the File Clerk – Clinic Retrieval do?

A

The primary function of the clinic retrieval clerk is to provide patient records for scheduled clinic visits.

The clerk prints off the clinic listings for the next day, then prints off the requested patient information from the chart.

Documents are organized in files, and are signed out to the clinic.

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70
Q

What does the File Clerk- Report Distribution do?

A

This position entails distribution of medical diagnostics and clinical reports to primary care physicians, specialists, legal firms, and insurance companies as required by the writer of the document.

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71
Q

What reports are handled by the record distribution clerk?

A
  • consultations
  • clinical reports
  • discharge summaries
  • history and physical reports
  • oncology notes
  • operative notes
  • psychiatric notes
  • social work notes
  • preadmission notes
  • diabetes education notes
  • nephrology notes
  • speech and audiology
  • occupational health
  • physiotherapy
  • emergency treatment records and other specialties of the facility.
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72
Q

What does the Reception- Release of Information do?

A
  • The release of information receptionist greets clients coming into to the department, assisting them with the completion of their consent to disclose medical information.
  • They explain the general procedures in the department, and request input from the specialist when the questions are beyond their scope.
  • They also key all requests for release in information into the ROI request screen, and print letters for additional information required.

*They may do other general clerical duties as required.

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73
Q

Medical Transcriptionist

A

transcribes dictated data creating medical reports such as consultations, clinical reports, discharge summaries, History and physicals.

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74
Q

Health Record Technician-Coder

A

A coder assigns codes from Classification Systems to abstracted medical information including: diagnostics, and interventions to disorders/diseases.

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75
Q

Health Data Analyst

A

A health data analyst compiles statistical data for hospital usage, W.H.O., and C.I.H.I.

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76
Q

Release of Information Specialist

A

A release of information specialist processes requests for medical information from hospitals, doctor’s offices, patients and their families, social service agencies, police, insurance companies, legal firms, risk management, and others.

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77
Q

Manager of Health Information Department

A

The managers of heath information departments are responsible for a range of areas, and depending on the size of the facility; can be responsible for the day to day flow of record processing, transcription, coding, analysis, and hospital statistics.

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78
Q

Director of Health Information Management

A

The director of health information management is responsible for all of the functions within the department, including Privacy with direct reports often including departmental management, and Release of Information.

They are involved in many committees both internally and externally.

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79
Q

Contract Service

A

Contract services are used in the Health Information Management for transcription, coding, and image scanning for chart processing.

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80
Q

CHIMA stands for?

A

In Canada, the governing body of health information management professionals is the Canadian Health Information Management Association (CHIMA).

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81
Q

CCHRA stands for?

A

The Canadian College of Health Record Administrators

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82
Q

What are complications?

A

Additional diagnoses that describe conditions arising after the beginning of hospital observation and treatment and that modify the course of the patient’s Illness or the medical care required; they prolong the patient’s length of stay by at least one day in 75 percent of the cases.

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83
Q

What is a Comorbidity?

A

Pre-existing condition that will, because of it’s presence with a specific principal diagnosis, cause an increase in the patient’s length of stay by at last one day in 75 percent of the cases.

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84
Q

Acute Care Facilities

A

When we refer to acute in a medical context, it means a disease or occurrence that that came on suddenly.

An example would be tonsillitis, or else, a car accident that takes you to a hospital for medical care.

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85
Q

Behavioral hospitals

A
  • These facilities provide care for mental health issues, and or chemical dependency.
  • The Centre for Addiction and Mental Health (CAMH) is the largest mental health facility in Ontario. It has 26 offices across Ontario which services all types of mental illness as well as addiction control.
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86
Q

Home Care

A

Home care is provided to people who require assisted living in their homes.

They may have a serious illness, physical or mental disability.

The population serviced by home care would be mainly senior, however all age ranges would be covered.

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87
Q

What is the CCAC and what does it do?

A

Community Care Access Centre is a service provided that helps to coordinate care at home, or access to assisted living in the community.

They also assist with arrangements for Long term care. The CCAC’s are funded in Ontario by Local Health Integration Networks (LHIN) of the Ministry of Health and Long -Term Care.

What this means, simply, is that they are covered under OHIP.

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88
Q

Hospice

A

Hospice care involves care for terminally ill patients that have determined that they desire to spend their last days in their own homes or at times within a facility.

The focus of care is palliative, not curative. Palliative care includes services that relieve pain and discomfort for the patient.

It also provides support to family members that are assisting in the care.

This is classified as Respite care.

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89
Q

Long Term Care

A

Long-term care involves a move into a facility which specializes in individuals who cannot live in their homes independently.

The CCAC’s are funded in Ontario by the Ministry of Health and Long -Term Care.

What this means, simply, is that they are covered under OHIP.

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90
Q

The Patient Record: what is it?

A
  • It is called a health record, medical record, and medical chart.
    • It is a business record
  • It is a legal document
  • It is a method to store Administrative data which is a compilation of demographic, socioeconomic, and financial data.
  • It is primarily a history of the health of the patient.
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91
Q

Demographic Data

A

a statistical term used to refer to characteristics (information) of human population. Simply put-it is basic information about you.

1. Name 
2. Address 
3. Telephone number 
4. Date of birth 
5. Emergency contacts 
6. Gender
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92
Q

What is socioeconomic data?

A

If we break down this term, socio=social, and economic= financial position.

Included in this group is:
1. Marital status
2. Race/ethnicity
3. Occupation
4. Place of employment

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93
Q

What is financial data?

A

Financial data would include insurance including OHIP plus any secondary insurance. It is a method to store Clinical Data.

Example
1. insurance
2. OHIP
3. Secondary Insurance

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94
Q

What is clinical Data?

A

Clinical data is as the term infers is Health information that includes diagnostic reports, such as:

  1. Radiology
  2. Lab reports
  3. Cardiopulmonary reports
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95
Q

What does CPSO stand for and what does it do?

A

The College of Physician and Surgeons of Ontario.

They have produced a policy statement with covers administration of Heath records.

The college is a regulatory body for the medical practice.

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96
Q

Medical records can be subject to reviews from regulatory bodies such as…

A
  1. CPSO Peer Assessment Program and Independent Health Facilities Program
  2. The Coroner’s office-CPSO investigations
  3. OHIP billing reviews
  4. The medical records are requested in lawsuits, hearings and inquests.
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97
Q

The Cumulative Patient Profile (CPP) is made up of what?

A
  1. Patient demographic information – name address phone numbers OHIP number.
  2. Personal and family data-next of kin, person to notify, family health history, occupation, and major events that may have affected the patient through their life.
  3. Medical history of patient
  4. Risk Factors – smoking, stress in personal or occupational matters, family genetics.
  5. Allergies and drug reactions
  6. Health maintenance – annual physical, breast screening, colonoscopy, bone density
  7. Names of consulting physicians
  8. Long term treatment-current medication, dosages and treatment. Ex Asthma treatments
  9. Major Investigations
  10. Date the CPP was last updated
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98
Q

SOAP is an acronym that stands for….

A

S-Subjective: describes the patient’s statement of how they feel-(symptoms)

O-Objective: describes the findings of diagnostics done prior to this assessment

A-Assessment: describes the opinion, or possible diagnosis of the physician

P- Plan: describes what the physician will do to care for the patient.

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99
Q

Most Responsible Physician (MRP) is

A

The physician that attended to the patient through their episode of care.

They are responsible for completion of the Admission sheet, also known as the Admission Face Sheet which provides a summary of the care.

They are also responsible for completion of the discharge summary which is another form of summary.

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100
Q

The Longitudinal Patient Record

A

contains all of the information from all episodes of care that a patient receives; including all the different family doctors, specialists, hospitals, radiology centres, labs, etc. that a patient has received through a lifetime of care.

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101
Q

What are important elements of the CPR?

A
  1. The record should include active and inactive problems, and should include all diagnostics, consults, clinical reports, and summaries of the history of the patient.
  2. The system must be secure in order to protect the confidentiality of the patient’s information.
  3. The data in the CPR should be maintained utilizing a standardized dictionary of terms.
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102
Q

Bar coding

A

pre coded forms with bar codes automatically index or sort the document into the required area.

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103
Q

Report numbers

A

Certain documents are pre numbered, again with the purpose to index or sort the document into the required area.

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104
Q

Canadian Health Infoway

A

The Canadian Health Infoway was created in 2001 to coordinate and facilitate the creation and development of electronic health systems across Canada

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105
Q

What is done when a record is edited?

A
  1. Records should be accurate and promptly completed
  2. Records should follow chronological formats
  3. Records should be filed safely and maintained
  4. Records should be readily available when required.
  5. Records should be identifiable: patient name and other identifiers such as date of birth, health card number, and occurrence number.
  6. The record should tell the story of the encounter and support diagnosis determined as well as diagnosis and progressive care.
  7. Entries must be legible and authenticated by the author.
  8. Records must be retained for a period designated by provincial statues and hospital policy.
  9. All encounters must be coded and indexed to provincial standards
  10. The hospital must establish standard policies and procedures for release of medical information.
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106
Q

The Face Sheet or Admission face sheet is

A

so named as it is the first page of an inpatient encounter.

It lists demographic and clinical information.

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107
Q

What is an intervention?

A

what is done to correct a patient’s medical problem.

It may be surgical, or diagnostic in nature.

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108
Q

The Admissions Record Contains…

A
  • Facility name, address, hospital number
  • Patient name
  • Unit number
  • Registration number – also called an encounter number Admission date and time
  • Health card number Ambulance, Language spoken
  • Date of birth, sex, age, marital status
  • Age group
  • Resident code
  • Admission category – urgent
  • Patient address and phone number
  • Religion
  • Emergency contact name & phone number
  • Next of kin, and relationship
  • Comments
  • Accommodations: requested- (private, semi-private, ward)
  • Assigned room number
  • Transferred from
  • Most responsible Physician, Family Physician, Other physician(s)
  • Medical alerts
  • Estimated discharge date
  • Admitting diagnosis
  • Allergies: drug, food, others.
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109
Q

What is a Consultation?

A

additional opinions provided by specialists, an attending physician will request a specialist see a patient who has a complex condition.

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110
Q

Physician’s orders are?

A

gives guidance to the healthcare team. Orders can be provided for treatment, laboratory tests, radiology, medications with dosage, medical devices, to call in consults, provide seclusion, or restraints.

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111
Q

Progress Notes

A

notes that are made concurrently with a physician/ patient encounter.

They may also be called multi-disciplinary progress notes, as they are used by a variety of care-givers such as nurses, registered practical nurses physiotherapists, occupational therapist, respiratory therapists, social workers dieticians, etc

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112
Q

Subjective Data contains….

A
  1. Presenting complaint, including the severity and duration of symptoms.
  2. Whether this is a new concern or an ongoing/recurring problem.
  3. Changes in the patient’s progress or health status since the last visit.
  4. Past medical history of the patient and his or her family, where relevant to the presenting problem.
  5. Salient negative responses.
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113
Q

Objective Data contains….

A
  1. Relevant vital signs
  2. Physical examination appropriate to the presenting complaint.
  3. Positive physical findings
  4. Significant negative physical findings as they relate to the problem.
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114
Q

Assessment contains….

A
  1. Patient risk factors, if appropriate;
  2. Ongoing/recurring health concerns, if appropriate;
  3. Review of medications, if appropriate;
  4. Review of laboratory and procedure results, if available;
  5. Review of consultation reports, if available;
  6. Diagnosis, differential diagnosis, or problem statement in order of probability and reflective of the presenting complaint.
115
Q

Plan contains…..

A
  1. Discussion of treatment options;
  2. Tests or procedures ordered and explanation of significant complications, if relevant.
  3. Consultation requests including the reason for the referral, if relevant.
  4. New medications ordered and/or prescription repeats including dosage, frequency, duration and an explanation of potentially serious adverse effects.
  5. Any other patient advice or patient education (e.g., diet or exercise instructions, contraceptive advice);
  6. Follow-up and future considerations;
  7. Specific concerns regarding the patient including patient refusal to comply with your suggestions
116
Q

Consent form

A

This includes consents for medical interventions, surgical, or diagnostic procedures that are explained to the patient prior to the procedure, and signed in acceptance of the procedure.

117
Q

Anaesthesia records

A

Include pre and post anaesthesia reports and the anaesthetic record.

It includes a pre assessment of the patient’s health relative to the proposed surgery, allergies to medications, what medications are to be used, anaesthesia technique and agent, vital signs, and notes throughout the surgery.

It may also include post anaesthesia records that evaluate the patient’s condition after the surgery.

118
Q

Recovery Room Record

A
  • This may also be called Post Anaesthetic Care Unit Record.
  • This document notes the patient’s condition after the surgery, within the recovery room.
  • It notes the patient’s level of consciousness, vital signs and monitoring and status of infusions, dressings, tubes, catheters and drains.
119
Q

Pathology report

A

The pathology report notes a physical (gross) and microscopic description of tissue excised during an intervention.

120
Q

Ancillary visits are for diagnostic testing such as…

A
  1. Laboratory tests
  2. Diagnostic imaging
  3. Cardiopulmonary
  4. ETC
121
Q

Serial Numbering System

A

a system in which patients receive a new number for each encounter in the facility.

If a patient comes into the facility more than once, they could have several numbers.

122
Q

Unit Numbering System

A

the patient receives a unique number at the first encounter in the facility, and retains that number for all visits at the facility.

All of the patient’s visits are filed in the same chart.

The system is maintained on a computer.

123
Q

Serial Unit Numbering System

A

A combination of the two systems noted above-serial numbers are assigned, but after each encounter, all the records are filed together under the new number assigned.

124
Q

Alphabetic Filing

A

last name, first name, and optional middle name or initial.

125
Q

Numeric Filing

A

utilizes unique numbers assigned to patients. The record is filed according to that number.

126
Q

Straight numeric

A

Is also called consecutive numeric filing.

The records are filed in chronological order, from lowest to highest.

This system would be used in small clinics and offices.

127
Q

Terminal digit filing

A

also called reverse numeric filing, and is utilized in larger facilities and hospitals that use at least 6 digits in their filing system.

1. Primary – last two digits 
2. Secondary- middle two digits 
3. Tertiary – first two digits 

An example of this would be 12-34-56
Primary – 56 Secondary- 34 Tertiary – 12

128
Q

Middle digit filing

A

middle digits are primary, the digits on the left are secondary, and digits on the right are tertiary

An example of this would be 12-34-56:

Secondary- 12 Primary -34 Tertiary – 56

129
Q

Chart Tracking Process

A

The Process:
1. Charts are filed in date of discharge order.

  1. They are logged initially into the holding area of record processing.
  2. They are prepared for processing-scanner readying, then scanning. Once scanned, the charts are moved electronically to Analysis area.
  3. When the charts are analyzed for discrepancies and each page is verified for picture quality, they are moved electronically to:
    A) Destruction
    B) Incomplete chart area
130
Q

What kinds of indexes are used in healthcare?

A
  1. Master patient index
  2. Disease index
  3. Procedure index
  4. Physician index
131
Q

The master patient index (MPI)

A

a listing of all patients in a facility with links to an identifying number which is called a unit or unique number, and lists patient name and other identifiers, such as a health card number, and date of birth (In Ontario).

132
Q

The MPI may also be referred as a….

A

CPI or Central Patient Index

133
Q

What is the ICD-10-CA/CCI classification system?

A

CCI: Canadian Classification of Health Interventions

ICD-10-CA: International Statistical Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Canada.

134
Q

Disease registries

A

are collections of secondary data that relate to patients with a specific diagnosis, or interventions given to a patient for care.

135
Q

Trauma registries

A

are collection of data on accidents. The Canadian Institute of Health Information (CIHI) maintains an Ontario and a National Registry.

136
Q

Canadian Cancer Registry (CCR)

A

Collects information on the incidence of cancer throughout Canada and is maintained by the health division of Statistics Canada and supplied with the cooperation of the provinces and territories.

137
Q

Joint replacement registries

A

collect information on hip and knee replacements.

138
Q

Aggregate data

A

shows performance, utilization and resource management.

139
Q

Comparative data

A

show health related outcomes and research.

140
Q

Patient-centric data

A

directly relates to patients.

141
Q

Transformed-based data

A

used for clinical and management decision support.

142
Q

How is the newborn death rate calculated?

A

Number of newborn deaths x100
Number of newborn patients

So, if there were 5 newborn deaths and 300 overall newborns in a facility in a given month the equation would look like:

5/300 x 100 = 1.7%

143
Q

Average daily census

A

Used for planning of hospital services by administration

144
Q

Average Length of Stay is calculated by…

A

Total length of stay for a given month
Total number of discharges in a single month, including deaths

So if Woman’s Hospital had a total length of stay for their patients of 500 for January and 85 patients were discharged in that period:

500 =5.9 average length of stay for January
85

145
Q

PHIPA

A

Personal Health Information Protection Act

146
Q

Privacy

A

The quality or condition of being secluded from the presence or view of
others.

The state of being free from unsanctioned intrusion: a person’s right

147
Q

Confidentiality

A

The ethical principle or legal right that a physician or other health professional will hold secret all information relating to a patient, unless the patient gives consent permitting disclosure.

148
Q

Consent

A

to give approval, assent, or permission. A person must be of sufficient mental capacity and of the age at which he or she is legally recognized as competent to give consent

149
Q

Express consent

A

consent directly given by voice or in writing.

150
Q

Implied consent

A

consent made evident by signs, actions, or facts, or by inaction or silence.

Implied consent is used in situations where a patient is not able to communicate about their care; such as when someone is in a car accident, is unconscious, and there is no-one available to make decisions about their care.

151
Q

Release of Information specialist

A

is the individual that is responsible for release of patient medical information to individuals that are legally able to obtain information; either through consent of the patient, for patient care, or court order.

152
Q

Courier

A

Couriers are used mainly by legal firms and insurance companies, but occasionally a patient will utilize it as well.

They are used in cases where expedience is required, as in an upcoming court case, or wrapping up an insurance claim.

153
Q

What happens if a patient cannot be located in the MPI/CCI?

A

When a patient cannot be located, enter request as above, but in the unit/unique number field, enter the patient last name, and first name.

Additional information may be requested that may assist in locating the client/patient.

Ensure that the request number is noted on the request.

154
Q

Case mix

A

Sounds like cake mix, and it is the same idea.

A variety of ingredients go into a cake mix and combines to make a yummy treat.

As the name would suggest case mix is a grouping of medical cases, or else types and categories of patient medical information broken down by cost, diagnosis, or procedure.

155
Q

Classification systems

A

This is a system of assigning diseases and operations to code numbers covering groups of related diseases.

156
Q

Coding

A

In medical terms this refers to application of an alpha numeric code to a diagnostic procedure, or an intervention (curative) to that diagnosis.

157
Q

Critical pathway

A

These are guidelines that are developed in hospital as standards of care

158
Q

Data

A

this is defined as raw facts that are not interpreted or processed, such as numbers, letters, images, symbols and sounds.

159
Q

Data elements

A

a term to describe a single fact or measurement.

160
Q

Field

A

a group of characters.

161
Q

Record

A

a collection of related fields.

162
Q

File

A

A collection of records

163
Q

Intervention

A

A manipulation, treatment, or therapy; a broad term used by researchers to generally mean some act.

164
Q

Length of stay: (LOS)

A

The number of calendar days an inpatient is hospitalized from admission to discharge.

165
Q

Medical nomenclature

A

A medical Nomenclature (nō-mən-ˌklā-chər) is a vocabulary of clinical and medical terms.

166
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

An infection acquired after admission to hospital with consideration to incubation periods.

167
Q

Source Document

A

Business dictionary.com defines it as a critical part of an audit trail for establishing the authenticity, and tracing the history, of a transaction.

168
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

an incomplete fracture in which the bone is bent. This type occurs most often in children.

169
Q

Transverse fracture

A

a fracture at a right angle to the bone’s axis.

170
Q

Oblique fracture

A

a fracture in which the break has a curved or sloped pattern.

171
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

a fracture in which the bone fragments into several pieces.

172
Q

Impacted Fracture

A

is one whose ends are driven into each other. This is commonly seen in arm fractures in children and is sometimes known as a buckle fracture

173
Q

pathologic fracture

A

caused by a disease that weakens the bones, and stress fracture, a hairline crack.

174
Q

The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10-CA) is developed by…

A

the World Health organization and modified for use by Canada

175
Q

SNOMED stands for?

A

the Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine and it was designed as an inclusive nomenclature of clinical medicine for the purpose of accurately storing and retrieving clinical records of clinical care.

176
Q

SNOP stands for?

A

Systemized Nomenclature of Pathology

177
Q

What is Morphology?

A

refers to the size, shape and structure rather than the function of a given organ

178
Q

What is topography?

A

description of an anatomic region or a special part.

179
Q

Who uses SNOMED?

A

Canada, USA, Australia, Denmark, Lithuania, New Zealand, Sweden, The Netherlands and the United Kingdom

180
Q

Nomenclature is…

A

a vocabulary of clinical and medical terms.

181
Q

What does the Obstetrical Record contain?

A
  1. antepartum record/prenatal record
  2. labour & delivery record
  3. postpartum record
182
Q

What does the Neonatal Record contain?

A
  1. birth history
  2. newborn identification
  3. newborn physical exam
  4. newborn progress notes
183
Q

What does CC stand for?

A

Chief Complaint

184
Q

What does HPI stand for?

A

History of Present Illness

185
Q

The HPI should always include…

A

location, quality, severity, duration of condition, associated signs and symptoms.

186
Q

What are the PT REC DOC Guidelines?
(Patient Record Documentation Guidelines)

A
  • authentication
  • changes in a patients condition
  • communication with others, completeness
  • consistency
  • continuous documentation
  • objective documentation
  • referencing other patients
  • permanency
  • physical characteristics & specifics (specify)
187
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A

A = appearance
P = pulse
G = grimace (irritability)
A = activity (motion/muscle tone)
R = respirations

188
Q

What does CHEDDAR stand for?

A

C = chief complaints
H = history
E = Examination
D = details
D = drugs/dosage
A = assessment
R = return visit

189
Q

What does HPIP stand for?

A

H = history
P = physical
I = impression
P = plan

190
Q

What does EHR stand for?

A

Electronic Health Record

191
Q

What does EMR stand for?

A

Electronic Medical Record

192
Q

What does CCP stand for?

A

Cumulative Patient Profile

193
Q

What does PAT stand for?

A

Pre-Admission Testing

194
Q

What does POR stand for?

A

Problem Oriented Record

195
Q

What does MRP stand for?

A

Most Responsible Physician

196
Q

What does CPR stand for?

A

Computer Based Patient Record

197
Q

What does PHR stand for?

A

Personal Health Record (for personal use)

198
Q

What does DDC stand for?

A

Data Definition Language

199
Q

What does SQL stand for?

A

Structured Query Language

200
Q

What does PACU stand for?

A

Post Anaesthesia Care Unit Report

201
Q

What does EKG/ECG stand for?

A

Electrocardiogram

202
Q

What does EEG stand for?

A

Electroencephalogram

203
Q

What does CPI stand for?

A

Central Patient Index

204
Q

What are the problems with record duplication?

A

lose patient chronological visit history, which can impact continuum of care in the future.

205
Q

What is a registry?

A

a collection of information such as hospital admission/discharge registry.

206
Q

What is a disease registry?

A

collections from secondary data that relate to patients with a specific diagnosis/interventions given to a patient for care.

207
Q

What is a trauma registry?

A

collects data on accidents

208
Q

what are report numbers?

A

pre-coded forms with bar codes automatically indexed or sort the document into the required area.

209
Q

What is an intervention?

A

what is done to correct a patients medical problem, may be surgical or diagnostic in nature.

210
Q

what is an encounter?

A

professional contact via patient and provider who delivers services/ is professionally responsible for services given to the patient.

211
Q

what is a progress note?

A

contains statements related to the course of the patients illness, response to treatment, and status at discharge.

212
Q

what is a consultation?

A

additional opinions provided by specialists, an order that gives guidance to the medical team, orders that can change according to their needs.

213
Q

what is Information Capture?

A

recording representations of human thought, perceptions and actions documented during patient care.

214
Q

What is Report Generation?

A

construction of a healthcare document (paper or digital)

215
Q

What is Continuity of Care?

A

documentation of patients care services so that others can treat the patient with the proper source of information to base additional care on.

216
Q

What are secondary purposes of the PR?

A

evaluating continuity of care, providing info to 3rd party payers, provides data for research.

217
Q

What is Authentication?

A

means an entry is signed by the author (provider)

218
Q

What are Auto-Authentication Methods?

A

when the provider authenticated a dictated report prior to its transcription

219
Q

What are acceptable authentication methods?

A

written signatures, counter signatures, initials, fax signatures, electronic/computer key signatures or signature stamps.

220
Q

What is a telephone order (T.O)?

A

verbal order taken over the phone, for example, a nurse from a physician.

221
Q

What is a voice order (V.O)?

A

verbal order a physician dictates in the presence of a responsible person

222
Q

What is a signature legend?

A

a document maintained by the Health Information Department to identify the author by full signature when initials are used.

223
Q

What are signature stamps?

A

official stamps for a facility (statement must be signed that they will only use said stamp)

224
Q

What are delinquent records?

A

records that are not completed after 30 days of patient discharge date.

225
Q

How do you solve for delinquent records rate?

A

divide the total number of delinquent records by the total number of discharges within that period.

Example: as of September 15th, 175 total delinquent records, 510 patient discharged during said period.

175/510 = 0.343 x 100 = 34%

226
Q

The CPSO has a summary of essential information that should be in the CPP (Cumulative Patient Profile)

A
  1. patient demographic information
  2. Personal & Family Data
  3. Medical History of the Patient
  4. Risk Factors (smoking, stress, genetics)
  5. Allergies & Drug Reactions
  6. Health Maintenance (annual physical etc)
  7. Names of Consulting Physicians
  8. Long Term Treatment
  9. Major Investigations (if any)
  10. Date the CPP was last updated.
227
Q

What is an audit trail?

A

technical control created by electronic health care record system that lists all transactions & activities that occurred.

228
Q

What happens during PAT?

A

registration, testing (EKG) into one visit prior to admission to the hospital, results then put into the patient record.

229
Q

What is a provisional diagnosis?

A

a working/tentative diagnosis, preliminary diagnosis

230
Q

What is a patient representative?

A

a person who speaks on behalf of the patient, they must sign consent forms

231
Q

What is a nursing assessment?

A

it documents patients history, current medication and vital signs.

232
Q

What is reverse chronological date order?

A

most current document is filed first in a section of the record

233
Q

What is chronological date order?

A

oldest information first in a section, organized by date and made to read like a diary.

234
Q

What are primary sources?

A

original patient records, x-rays, scans, EKGs

235
Q

What are secondary sources?

A

indexes, registers, committee minutes, incident reports, source oriented records (SOR)

236
Q

What is a database?

A

a minimum set of data to be collected on every patient

237
Q

What is an initial plan?

A

actions that will be taken during patient care

238
Q

What is a Diagnostic/Management Plan?

A

used to learn about the patients condition as a whole.

239
Q

What is a Therapeutic Plan?

A

specific medications, goals, procedures, therapies and treatments.

240
Q

What are patient Education Plans?

A

plans to educate the patient about the condition theyre being treated for

241
Q

What are Archived Records?

A

records placed in storage and rarely accessed.

242
Q

What is a Retention Period

A

a time period in which a facility will maintain both paper/manual and electronic archived records.

243
Q

What is a Digital Archive?

A

storage system that consolidates electronic records

244
Q

What are Shadow Records?

A

paper records that contain copies of original records and are maintained separately from the primary record

245
Q

What is an Independent Database?

A

clinical information created by researchers typically in academic medical centres

246
Q

What is a purge?

A

removal of inactive records from the file system

247
Q

What is the Statue of Limitations?

A

the time period where a person may bring forth a lawsuit

248
Q

How do you destroy paper/manual records?

A

dissolving in acid
incineration (burned)
pulping or pulverizing (crushed to powder)
shredding

249
Q

How do you destroy electronic records?

A

magnetic degaussing
overwriting the data

250
Q

How do you destroy microfilm records?

A

using a chemical recycling process

251
Q

What is Record Assembly?

A

organizing discharged patient records according to accepted chart order & preparing it for storage

252
Q

What is Quantitative Analysis?

A

review of the patient record for completeness

253
Q

What is Qualitative Analysis

A

review of the patient record for inconsistencies

254
Q

What is Concurrent Analysis?

A

review of the patient record during inpatient hospitalization to ensure quality of care

255
Q

What is Statistical Analysis?

A

abstracting data from the patient record for clinical/administrative decision making

256
Q

What is a Deficiency Slip?

A

used to record chart deficiencies that are flagged in the record

257
Q

What is a hybrid health record?

A

some paper, some electronic methods

258
Q

What is a Record Transitional Template?

A

delineates various sources of the component parts of the patients record

259
Q

What are Operative Records?

A

gross findings
organs examined (visually/palpated)
techniques used during surgery

260
Q

The PACU Report is also called

A

the recovery room record

261
Q

What is a Pathology Report?

A

notes a physical and microscopic description of tissue removed during intervention

262
Q

What is an Ancillary Report?

A

documented by departments such as laboratory, radiology, nuclear medicine, assist physicians with diagnosis and treatment

263
Q

What is an Autopsy (Necropsy)?

A

examination of the body after death

264
Q

What is a Short Stay Record?

A

allows providers to record the history, physical examination, progress notes and physicians orders on one double sided form

265
Q

What is an Outpatient Visit?

A

visit of a patient on one calendar day to one or more hospital departments for receiving outpatient healthcare services

266
Q

What are Descriptive Statistics?

A

a summary of a set of data using charts, graphs and tables.
This data is shared with provincial, federal, and World health organizations

267
Q

If not by the CPSO , by who else can a facility be guided?

A

1.Public Hospital Act

  1. Long Term care Act
  2. Independent Health Facilities Act
  3. Mental Health Act
  4. Personal Health Information Protection Act (PHIPA)
268
Q

Medical records can be subject to reviews from regulatory bodies such as?

A
  1. CPSO Peer Assessment Program and Independent Health Facilities Program

2.The Coroner’s office-CPSO investigations

3.OHIP billing reviews

269
Q

What are serial number systems?

A

each time a patient is registered, a new patient number is given by the provider and a new patient record is created.

270
Q

What is Social Security Numbering?

A

using a patients SSN as their patient number, if there is no SSN available, a pseudo-number is provided.

271
Q

What is Serial Unit Numbering?

A

the patient gets a new number every time they visit, the previous record is given the new number and the most current information is in one folder in one location.

272
Q

What are the 2 main filing forms/systems?

A

Alphabetic & Numeric Systems

273
Q

What is Numeric Filing?

A

uses a number to file the patient record, most used in places with large populations.

274
Q

What are the 3 types of numeric filing?

A
  1. Straight Numeric
  2. Terminal Digit
  3. Middle Digit
275
Q

What is Straight Numeric Filing?

A

filed in strict chronological order according to patient number, going from lowest to highest.

276
Q

What is Terminal Digit Filing?

A

also called reverse numeric filing, allow for filing of larger 6+ digit patient numbers, used at very large facilities.

277
Q

What is Middle Digit Filing?

A

Same idea as terminal digit, but the middle number is primary and the left digits are secondary and the digits to the right are tertiary.

278
Q

What Indexes are used in healthcare?

A
  1. Mater Patient Index
  2. Disease Index
  3. Procedure Index
  4. Physician Index
279
Q

What is a Master Patient Index?

A

patients medical record number with common identification data elements

280
Q

What is a Disease Index?

A

Uses ICD-10-CM disease codes

281
Q

What is a Procedure Index?

A

uses ICD-10-PS and/or CPT/HCPCS procedure/service codes

282
Q

What is a Physician Index?

A

numbers assigned by the facility to physicians who treat inpatients & outpatients.

283
Q

What does the Release of Information Specialist do?

A

they are responsible for release of information to individuals that are legally able to obtain information; either through consent of the patient, for patient care or court order.

284
Q
A