H.P.A. Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Clinical presenation of acromegaly

A

excessive sweating, joint pain, headache, visual field loss, diplopia, carpel tunnel, sleep apnea, osteoarthropathy, menstrual irregularities or sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormone will slow the production of GH from the anterior pituitary?

A

somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

three etiologies of acromegaly

A

pituitary adenoma (>95%) hypothalamic tumor ectopic GH or GHRH secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clinical diagnosis of acromegaly requires 2 or more of the following symptoms

A

new onset diabetes, arthralgia/fatigue, new onset HTN, biventricular myocardial hypertrophy, and systolic or diastolic dysfunction, headaches, carpal tunnel syndrome, sleep apnea, loss of vision, diaphoresis, colon polyps, progressive jaw malocclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Biochemical/Radiological diagnosis of acromegaly

A

elevated serum IGF-1 AND serum GH >1 two hours after OGTT

pituitary MRI → screen for adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Primary treatment for acromegaly

A

surgical resection of tumor surgical RR > medical RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Secondary treatment for acromegaly

A

GHR antagonist dopamine agonist somatostatin receptor ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adjunctive therapy for acromegaly

A

radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

GHR Antagonist for acromegaly

A

pegvisimant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Side effects of pegvisimant

A

hepatotoxicity, nausea, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what needs to be monitored in a patient on pegvisimant?

A

IGF-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Three somatostatin receptor ligands used in treating acromegaly

A

octreotide, ianoreotide, pasireotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Side effects of somatostatin receptor ligands

A

GI upset, malabsorption, constipation, gallbladder disease, hair loss, bradycardia, glucose intolerance (mainly pasireotide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Two dopamine agonists used in treating acromegaly

A

cabergoline and bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Side effects of dopamine agonists

A

GI upset, orthostatic hypotension, headache, nasal congestions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Patient presents with severe short stature or less severe stature with growth failure, diagnosis?

A

GH Deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnosis of GH Deficiency

A

severe growth failure, delayed bone age, very low serum GH, and IGF ghrelin receptor agonist response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment for GH deficiency

A

somatropin → genotropin omnitrope, humatrope, norditropin, saizen, zomacton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Side effects of somatotropins

A

edema, arthralgia, headache, paresthesia, dizziness, diaphoresis, GI upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do you monitor when treating a patient with somatropin?

A

growth curve, bone age, glucose levels, fundoscopic exam (retinopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Three classes of hormones produced by the adrenal cortex

A

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) glucocorticoids (cortisol) androgens (testosterone and estradiol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is produced by the adrenal medulla?

A

catecholamines → Epi and NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When are cortisol levels the highest?

A

6 - 8 am

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Excess cortisol causes the glucocorticoid disorder

A

Cushings Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Three etiologies of Cushings Syndrome

A

ACTH dependent ACTH independent iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Excess aldosterone causes the mineralocorticoid disorder

A

primary or secondary aldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Inadequate cortisol causes the glucocorticoid disorders

A

Addisons Disease → primary HPA axis suppression → secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Inadequate aldosterone causes the mineralocorticoid disorder

A

hypoaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

clinical presentation of Cushings syndrome

A

central weight gain, facial rounding, hirsutism, hump on upper back, severe fatigue, muscle weakness, bone fractures, high BP, anxiety/irritable/depression, infections, diabetes, decreased concentration and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

two etiologies of ACTH dependent Cushings syndrome

A

pituitary adenoma ectopic tumor outside of the pituitary secreting ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where will you find the adenoma or carcinoma in ACTH independent Cushings Syndrome

A

adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What causes iatrogenic Cushings syndrome?

A

excessive pharmacologic glucocorticoid supplementations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the normal 24 hour secretion of cortisol?

A

~20 mg

34
Q

Which exogenous glucocorticoid is most equipotent to cortisol?

A

hydrocortisone

35
Q

Which drugs decrease glucocorticoid clearance and cause iatrogenic Cushings?

A

CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors

36
Q

Hepatic disease, renal disease, increased age, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, pregnancy are disease states that decrease what?

A

glucocorticoid clearance

37
Q

What pharmacologic agents can cause iatrogenic Cushings?

A

progestins

38
Q

Which tests are done to confirm elevated cortisol levels?

A

midnight plasma (cortisol)

24 hr urine free cortisol

late night salivary (cortisol)

dexamethasone suppression test

39
Q

Two ways to determine etiology of Cushings

A

plasma ACTH CT or MRI screen for tumors

40
Q

first line treatment for ACTH dependent Cushings

A

surgical resection of tumor

41
Q

Traditional approach to medical therapy in Cushings

A

ketoconazole + metyropone consider mitotane

42
Q

What pharmacologic agent is used to treat female with Cushings?

A

ketoconazole

43
Q

What pharmacologic agent is used to treat males with Cushings?

A

metyrapone

44
Q

Why is keotconazole not first line in men?

A

reduced testosterone → hypogonadism and impotence

45
Q

Why is metyrapone not first line in women?

A

increase production of androgens → hirsutism

46
Q

what needs to be monitored in a patient on ketoconazole?

A

LFTs

47
Q

What can decrease the bioavailability of ketoconazole?

A

PPI therapy → need acidic environment for absorption

48
Q

this drug affects mitochondria in adrenal cortex cells and causes adrenal cortical atrophy

A

mitotane

49
Q

this drug is a dopamine agonist that binds to D2 receptors on corticotroph tumor cells → reduces tumor cell secretion of ACTH → reduction in cortisol production

A

cabergoline

50
Q

somatostatin analog that binds somatostatin receptors on corticotroph tumor cells to reduce their secretion of ACTH → results in less cortisol production

A

pasireotide

51
Q

Biggest side effect of pasireotide

A

hyperglycemia

52
Q

durg that is approved for treating Cushings disease with acute complications who have failed or can’t have surgery

A

mifepristone

53
Q

who is mifepristone contraindicated in?

A

pregnancy

54
Q

side effects of mifepristone

A

hypokalemia, elevated BP, endometrial hyperplasia

55
Q

first line treatment in ACTH independent Cushings

A

surgical resection of adrenal or other tumor causing excessive cortisol production

56
Q

what is the goal of tapering glucocorticoid therapy?

A

prevent hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis suppresion with glucocorticoid withdrawal

57
Q

signs of hyperaldosteronism

A

HTN, muscle tetany, excessive thirst, increased aldosterone to renin ratio, excessive urination, hypernatremia, glucose intolerance, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia

58
Q

Treatment for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

A

aldosterone receptor antagonist → spironolactone

potassium sparing diuretic → amiloride

59
Q

Treatment for aldosterone producing adenoma

A

surgical removal

60
Q

Term for decreased glucocorticoid (cortisol) production

A

adrenal insufficiency

61
Q

Hypotension and shock in a patient with adrenal insufficiency is called

A

acute adrenal crisis

62
Q

Most common etiology of acute adrenal crisis

A

abrupt glucocorticoid discontinuation with underlying HPA axis suppression

63
Q

clinical presentation of Addisons Disease

A

hypotension hyperpigmentation of skin exposed to friction fatigue and malaise N/V/D anorexia and weight loss dehydration hyponatremia hyperkalemia

64
Q

Clinical presentation of HPA axis suppression

A

normo or hypotensive no hyperpigmentation weight loss hypoglygemia hyponatremia eukalemia

65
Q

Test to diagnose adrenal hypofunction

A

corticotropin stimulation test → administer ACTH to assess adrenal cortisol production response

66
Q

two etiologies of Addisons Disease

A

autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex

TB

67
Q

clinical signs of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

low cortisol, aldosterone, androgen levels

high levels of CRH and ACTH hypotension

68
Q

Treatment for Addisons Disease

A

glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid supplementation

69
Q

Adverse effects of glucocorticoid therapy will mimic

A

symptoms of overproduction of cortisol

70
Q

What are some criteria that may make a patient more susceptible to glucocorticoid related osteoporosis?

A

low BMI hx of hip fracture smoker > drinks/day higher glucocorticoid dose

71
Q

How can you prevent glucocorticoid related osteoporosis?

A

supplement with calcium and vitamin D

72
Q

Which patient populations are at highest risk for opportunistic infections?

A

chemotherapy and organ transplant

73
Q

Steroids should be tapered if they have been taken ____

A

> 3 weeks

74
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused my abrupt withdrawal of what two agents?

A

glucocorticoid supplementation

progestins

75
Q

elevated levels of circulating inflammatory cytokines leads to an increased in __ and ___ secretion → normal physiologic adrenal “stress response”

A

CRH

ACTH

76
Q

three ways the adrenal “stress response” can be imparied and lead to secondary insufficiency

A

50% decrease in corticosteroid bind globulin → tissue resistance to cortisol and higher serum free cortisol

decreased downregulation of cytokines in tissues (proinflammtory state)

excess serum free cortisol → decrease in CRH, ACTH, and cortisol production

77
Q

three instances that require “stress donse” glucocorticoid therapy

A

acute illness or minor outpatient procedure septic shock ARDS

78
Q

mirtazapine, ketoconazole, phenytoin, rifampin are pharmacologic agents that can cause

A

secondary adrenal insufficiency

79
Q

signs of hypoaldosteronism

A

severe postural hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

80
Q

two possible etiologies of hypoaldosteronism

A

Addisons Disease adrenal tumor removal

81
Q

Treatment for hypoaldosteronism

A

mineralocorticoid supplementation → fludrocortisone