Host Defenses & Viral Oncogenesis Flashcards

1
Q

How does the innate immune system recognize viruses? What cytokines are secreted in Type I IFN secretion? Type II?

A
  • PRRs (like TLRs: PKR, RIG-1)
  • IFN∂, IFNß (activate NK cells); TNF∂, IL-1, IL-6
  • IFN-gamma (via NK cells; INHIBITS TH2 RESPONSE), IL-2, IL-12
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2
Q

Why does a virus titer plateau in an immunocompetent patient after about 3 days? What ultimately eradicates the virus?

A
  • Primary immune response: Type I IFN secretion

- T-cell mediated killing of infected cells (CTL goes to infection site via Th1 stimulation)

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3
Q

Why would you avoid using IFN-gamma to treat patients with viral infections?

A

too many side effects; causes flu-like symptoms

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4
Q

Describe how IFN∂ and IFN ß cause an immune response in virus-infected cells.

A

cell senses foreign nucleic acid via PKR, RIG-1, which causes a signaling cascade to activate IRF (TF), increasing IFN∂/ß transcription and release; this binds IFN∂/ß receptors on neighboring cells and stimulates (1) Jak/STAT pathway for those cells to secrete OAS & PKR (2) anti-viral state

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5
Q

Once the neighboring cell has IFN∂/ß R activated, what is the pathway of 1. PKR and 2. OAS.

A

activated receptor –> increase synthesis OAS & PKR
PREVENTING PROTEIN SYNTHESIS!!!
1. PKR phosphorylates dsRNA (TLR!!) and phosphorylates eIF2∂ to inhibit mRNA translation in the cell
2. OAS causes binds dsRNA (TLR!!) and synthesizes oligo-adenylate from ATP, which activates RNAase L (endoribonuclease); degrades mRNA

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6
Q

What is the anti-viral state? (4 things)

A
  1. increase MHC I expression
  2. increase PKR/inhibit protein synthesis
  3. increase OAS/mRNA degradation
  4. increase 2’-5’ synthase expression
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7
Q

Why do cells upregulate their activating ligands during a viral infection? What other cells upregulate activating ligands? What do MHC I receptors do when binding an NK cell?

A
  • for NK receptors to bind for cell degradation
  • cancer cells
  • cause inhibition of degradation
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8
Q

During the adaptive immune response, MHC I Rs are upregulated to present viral Ag; What is the viral counterattack?

A

(a) inhibit/degrade TAP protein
(b) bind class I retroubiquitinase to degrade
(c) sequester MHC I in ER/Golgi
(d) downregulation of MHC I components

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9
Q

Apoptosis can be stimulated from within and from outside. Name 4 ways apoptosis can be stimulated exogenously.

A
  • GFs: Fas, TNF∂

- Cells: NK cells, CTLs

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10
Q

What do viruses do to counterattack complement system?

A

b/c cells encode CD59, DAF and MCP that prevent MAC from inserting into own cells, viruses use these genes on cell surface as well [poxvirus, CMV, HIV]

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11
Q

What do viruses do to counterattack the apoptotic tendencies of host cells?

A

(a) virus-encoded TNF receptors to provide a TNF∂ sink
(b) inhibit caspases
(c) virus-encoded homologs of anti-apoptotic proteins, like Bcl2
(d) inhibit p53/Rb

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12
Q

Why is epitope mutation a good strategy in small viruses?

A

have small genomes with only a certain amount of proteins; more mutations cause more strains to evade the immune system [HPV, HIV, HSV, VZV]

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13
Q

Describe how viruses counter-attack a IFN∂ and IFN ß immune response? (2 ways)

A

(a) viruses encode viral IFN∂/ß binding proteins that have greater affinity for IFN∂/ß than do cellular receptors [poxvirus]; IL-1 binding protein to prevent fever [poxivrus]
(b) NS1 on influenza binds RIG-1

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14
Q

What are viral counterattacks for the PKR/OAS/eIF2∂ pathways? (4 ways)

A

(a) phosphatase that de-P eIF2∂ [herpesvirus]
(b) decoy RNA that binds PKR [adenovirus]
(c) decoy eIF2∂ that binds PKR [poxvirus]
(d) dsRNA binding proteins sequester dsRNA and prevent PKR activation [poxvirus]

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15
Q

What is the virus counterattack to upregulation of MHC I complexes?

A

(a) remove MHC I from surface but leave HLAC on surface
(b) “decoy” MHC I molecules [CMV]
(c) decrease activating ligand by sequestering/lysosomal degradation
(d) decrease adhesion molecules (ICAM-1/CD80/B7); less adherence means less chance of binding

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16
Q

Describe two pathways by which apoptosis occurs.

A

(1) TNF∂ binds R on cell, activates pro-capsase8, which activates pro-capsase3, activating capsase3, which induces DNA fragmentation and cell death
(2) cellular component induces p53, which inhibits Bcl2/BclXL, allowing for cytochrome C to transport from mitochondria to cytosol to initiate pro-capsase 9, activating pro-capsase3 and thus capsase 3, inducing DNA fragmentation and cell death

17
Q

The current estimate is the _____% of human cancers are due to viruses. Which viruses are most associated with human cancer (6)?

A

-12%

Hep B, Hep C, EBV, HHV8, HTLV1, HPV

18
Q

Describe how viruses can INDIRECTLY causes altered cell growth.

A

[Hep B, Hep C]
chronic infection, causing inflammation can increase proliferation and the probability that cells will develop a mutation

19
Q

Describe how viruses can DIRECTLY alter cell growth.

A

[HPV]
can push cells into S phase when they are not ready for it yet; will override normal cellular controls and cause inappropriate dividing

20
Q

What is Merkel cell polyoma virus (MCPyV)? How does it cause cancer?

A

in immunocompromised/elderly patients, causes deletion that renders virus unable to complete replication cycle (PERSISTENT INFECTION); causes skin cancer

21
Q

Describe the structure/tropism of papillomavirus. In cancer, which cells undergo a change in tropism?

A
  • small, (c)dsDNA; many subtypes (1/3 infect genital tract)
  • infects cutaneous/mucosal epithelia
  • all infected epithelial cells; keratinocytes especially (usually only basal cells replicate!)
22
Q

Papillomavirus has early and late genes; which genes play a role in oncogenesis (4)? Which strains are high-risk HPV strains for cervical cancer?

A

E5 = stimulates constitutive growth factor signaling
E6 (turbo version) = recruits ubiquitin ligase to degrade p53; induction of telomerase
E7 (turbo version)= inhibit Rb (cell cycle)
E2 is lost (usually regulates viral replication)
-HPV16, HPV18, HPV6, HPV11

23
Q

Describe the infection process of papillomavirus and which genes are expressed.

A
  1. microabrasion in epithelium allows virus to infect basal layer; E1, E2, E6, E7 expressed
  2. move up to spinous/granular layers; Late genes expressed/viral genome amplification
  3. virion assembly/release in keratinocytes (no longer anucleated–change in differentiation)
24
Q

Describe the roll of (a) p53 and (b) Rb proteins in the cell.

A

(a) p53 causes Bcl/BclXL to be inhibited; cytochrome C release and apoptosis
(b) inhibits progression from G1 into S phase when de-P; Cdk/cyclin inactivates Rb

25
Q

During the early states of acute and persistent HPV infection, the viral DNA is maintained as an ______. The development of carcinoma is associated with ______ of the DNA. Which genes are always retained? Which are lost?

A
  • episome
  • integration
  • E6/E7
  • E2, capsid proteins
26
Q

Once integration happens in HPV, can the infection resolve?

A

No; because integration caused loss of capsid proteins, which would create an immune response

27
Q

The ideal biomarker for HPV diagnostics would be for _____ and _____.

A
  • HSIL (high grade intraepithelial lesion)

- Cervical cancer

28
Q

What is the L1 protein for HPV diagnostics? What does this mean for vaccines?

A

The HPV capsid “alarm” protein that initiates cellular defense; self-assembles into VLPs (pentons)
-good target for vaccine!!!; induces protective, humoral immunity and Abs at mucosal surface before establishment of infection

29
Q

Would a PAP test detect HPV infected cervix? What is a major problem with the PAP test?

A
  • Not necessarily because the cells could still be normal; HPV not integrated yet!
  • It is subjective
30
Q

What test would you use to detect and quantify different strains of HPV DNA?

A

Hybrid Capture Assay; assay glows when RNA (on chip) and DNA (HPV culture) hybridize

31
Q

What strains of HPV does Guardasil have? Ceravix? How old should girls be to get vaccinated? Boys?

A
  • HPV 16, 18, 6, 11
  • HPV 16, 18
  • Girls = 11-12 years
  • Boys = 10-11 years (cause 25% of oropharyngeal caners!!!)
32
Q

HPV is the _____ most common cause of cancer among women; there are _____ new cases diagnosed each year.

A
  • second or third

- 1/2 a million