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MLS 223/L PRELIMS > Host Defense, and Bacterial Pathogenicity and Virulence > Flashcards

Host Defense, and Bacterial Pathogenicity and Virulence Flashcards

1
Q

this is where mature B cells and T cells migrate to perfom their function

A

peripheral lymphoid organs

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2
Q

Infection as well as the development and progress of disease are related to 2 major factors which are

A
  • Microbe’s virulence and pathogenicity

- Host’s immunity or resistance

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3
Q

This is a connective tissue cell which produces collagen and plays an important role in wound healing

A

fibroblast

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4
Q

Our ability to recognize and defend ourselves as well as to ward off disease caused by infectious agents or their products is called

A

Immunity or Resistance

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5
Q

Vulnerability or lack of immunity of the host to harm by infectious agents is referred to as

A

Susceptibility

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6
Q

What do we use to defend ourselves with when we are attacked by pathogens

A

Immune defense mechanisms

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7
Q

Two types of defenses involved in our immune defense mechanism

A
  • non-specific defense

- specific defense

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8
Q

it is also known as natural, innate, native, and constitutive defense

A

non-specific defense

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9
Q

It provides a generalized protection against any foreign substance

A

non-specific defense

-it protects the body from any foreign substance however, it does not discriminate among them.

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10
Q

It provides a generalized protection against any foreign substance

A

non-specific defense

-it protects the body from any foreign substance however, it does not discriminate among them.

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11
Q

Specific defense is present at birth. T or F

A

False.
Non-specific defense
- It is present at birth hence the terms natural, innate, and native.

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12
Q

The non-specific defense is inherited as part of the structure and function of an individual. It only becomes active when exposed to foreign
substances.

A

False.
The non-specific defense is inherited as part of the structure and function of an individual. It is active and present even before exposure to foreign
substances. It is responds immediate and acts very fast.

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13
Q

Is non-specific defense enhanced by repeated exposure to the same foreign substance? Y or N

A

No.

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14
Q

What are the four mechanisms in the first line of defense?

A
  • anatomic barriers
  • physiologic barriers
  • mechanical barriers
  • host’s protective mechanism
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15
Q

It is the body’s protection at the site of entry of the foreign substance

A

First line of defense

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16
Q

It is a mechanism of the first line of defense which is characterized by physical barriers that prevent the entry and invasion of foreign substances. It consists of the intact skin and mucous membranes which line the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, genito-urinary tract, and the conjunctiva.

A

anatomic barriers

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17
Q

These keep the vast majority of microorganisms out of the body by preventing microbial attachment

A

intact skin and mucous membranes (anatomic barriers)

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18
Q

Intact skin and mucous membranes keeps the vast majority of

microorganisms out of the body by preventing microbial attachment through several features like:

A
  • epiglottis
  • sphincters
  • length of the male urethra
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19
Q

it is a flap of tissue that during swallowing, covers the opening leading to the lower respiratory tract

A

epiglottis

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20
Q

This prevents reflux of materials in the GIT (intestines) and GUT (unrinary bladder)

A

sphincters

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21
Q

a part of male genitalia which puts more distance between the bladder and the external source microbes

A

length of the male urethra

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22
Q

They function to prevent growth of microorganisms which are capable of passing the physical barrier

A

physiologic barriers (physiological secretions)

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23
Q

Physiologic barriers in the skin

A
  • sebum
  • sweat
  • low pH
  • low water
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24
Q

contains fatty acids which are antimicrobials

A

sebum (physiologic barriers)

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25
Q

consists of antimicrobial concentration of salts and lysozyme which dissolves peptidoglycan layer of bacteria.

A

sweat (physiologic barriers)

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26
Q

is a poor environment for microbial population

A

low pH (physiologic barriers)

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27
Q

content creates poor environment for proliferation

A

low water (physiologic barrier in skin)

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28
Q

What is the physiologic barrier found in respiratory tract

A

goblet cells that secrete mucus containing lysozyme

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29
Q

Physiologic barrier in gastrointestinal tract

A

gastric juice

  • contains a mixture of hydrochloric acid, proteolytic enzymes, and mucus
  • very acidic (pH 2-3), sufficient to destroy most organisms and their toxins
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30
Q

Physiologic barrier in genito-urinary tract

A
  • Low pH of urine and vaginal secretions oppose growth of microbes
  • secretion of this tract contain LYSOZYME
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31
Q

The first line of defense which consists of mechanisms that continuously remove microbes from attachment site.

A

mechanical barriers

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32
Q

The first line of defense which consists of mechanisms that continuously remove microbes from attachment site.

A

mechanical barriers

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33
Q

mechanical barrier where epithelial sloughing occurs

A

skin

-epithelial sloughing removes surface microbes

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34
Q

mechanical barriers found in the respiratory tract

A
  • nasal hair
  • ciliated mucosa
  • neurological sensitivity of the nasal mucosa
  • neurological sensitivity of the trachea
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35
Q

this is a mechanical barrier in the respiratory tract which traps particle in mucus

A

nasal hair

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36
Q

a mechanical barrier in the RT which traps particles in air mucous which is propelled out of the respiratory tract

A

ciliated mucosa

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37
Q

discharges particles from the upper respiratory tract through sneezing

A

neurological sensitivity of nasal mucosa

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38
Q

discharges particles from the lower RT through coughing

A

neurological sensitivity of trachea

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39
Q

what is the mechanical barrier in the GIT

A

peristalsis

-the rhythmic contraction of the intestine results to expulsion of unattached microbes out of the GIT

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40
Q

mechanical barriers in the genito-urinary tract

A
  • flow of urine = flushes away microbes

- epithelial sloughing = sheds attached microbes

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41
Q

a first line of defense which involves microbial antagonism

A

host’s protective mechanism

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42
Q

it is the prevention of colonization of microbial pathogens by the normal flora of a given anatomic site

A

microbial antagonism

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43
Q

includes non-specific cellular and chemical responses to microbial invasion

A

second line of defense

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44
Q

refers to the ingestion of solid particles such as microorganisms or cellular debris by eukaryotic cells

A

Phagocytosis

-involves phagocytes which engulf and digest foreign substances

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45
Q

phagocytes include what type of cells

A

white blood cells

macrophages

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46
Q

also known as leukocytes

A

white blood cells (WBCs)

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47
Q

referred to as “professional phagocytes”

A

neutrophils and monocytes

-phagocytosis consists their primary function

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48
Q

this type of WBC sometimes perform phagocytosis

A

eosinophils

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49
Q

<0.5% of WBC

A

basophil

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50
Q

1-3% of WBC

A

eosinophil

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51
Q

3-7% of WBC

A

monocyte

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52
Q

55-90% of WBC

A

neutrophil

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53
Q

20-35% of WBC

A

lymphocyte

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54
Q

a process wherein leukocytes accumulate and adhere to the epithelial cells of blood vessel walls at the site of injury

A

margination

  • this happens during early stage of inflammation
  • leukocytes move from the blood stream by passage through the endothelium and enter tissues
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55
Q

this is the outward passage of blood cells through intact vessel walls

A

diapedesis

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56
Q

arrangement of the moving out of WBCs

A

1st: neutrophils
2nd: monocytes
3rd: lymphocytes

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57
Q

tissue cell counterpart of monocytes

A

macrophages

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58
Q

macrophages consitute the molecular phagocyte system (MPS). T or F

A

False. Mononuclear Phagocyte System

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59
Q

Macrophages are neither wandering nor fixed. T or F

A

False. Macrophages are either wandering or fixed.

They are distributed throughout the body

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60
Q

macrophages in CNS

A

Microglia cells

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61
Q

macrophages in lungs

A

dust cells (alveolar macrophages)

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62
Q

macrophages in the liver

A

kupffer cells

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63
Q

macrophages in the kidneys

A

mesangial cells

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64
Q

macrophages in bones

A

osteoclasts

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65
Q

Phagocytosis is a process that does not follow a certain chronological order. T or F

A

False. The process of phagocytosis proceeds in a step-wise manner

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66
Q

the process of phagocytosis

A
  1. chemotaxis
  2. adherence
  3. ingestion
  4. digestion
  5. elimination
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67
Q

the second line of defense involves

A
  • phagocytosis
  • inflammation
  • chemical responses
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68
Q

the directional movement of cells in response to chemical stimulus.

A

chemotaxis

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69
Q

phagocytes use ___________ to move toward the chemical stimulus

A

pseudopods

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70
Q

chemotaxis is initiated by

A

chemotactic agents

  • attract phagocytes
  • include microbial products, components of damaged cells, chemicals released by leukocytes
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71
Q

the attachment of the phagocyte’s cell membrane to the surface of the material to be ingested.

A

adherence

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72
Q

2 types of adherence

A

unenhanced attachment

enhanced attachment

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73
Q

involves generalized recognition and attachment of phagocytes by way of its surface glycoproteins. Also known as opsonin-independent or non-opsonic

A

unenhanced attachment

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74
Q

unenhanced attachment involves

A

attachment of phagocytes by way of its surface glycoproteins to certain components of microorganisms such as peptidoglycan, teichoic acids,
lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and mannose which are not present in human cells.

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75
Q

also called opsonin-dependent or opsonic

A

enhanced attachment

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76
Q

enhanced attachment employ the process of

A

opsonization
- the microorganisms are coated with serum proteins collectively called
opsonins (antibodies such as IgG and IgM, and complement component C3b)
hence, there is an increase in the efficiency by which phagocytes ingest microorganisms

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77
Q

The phagocyte extends pseudopodia to surround the material and completely encloses the material within a membrane bound vesicle called phagosome

A

ingestion

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78
Q

In the process of digestion, during phagocytosis, a digestive vacuole called _____________ is formed by fusion of the

A

phagosome and lysosomes containing hydrolytic enzymes

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79
Q

After the formation of phagolysosome, lysosomes release their
contents, a process known as

A

degranulation

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80
Q

for most bacteria, digestion is completed in

A

10-30 minutes

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81
Q

The residual body — indigestible materials in the phagolysosome are released from the phagocyte by exocytosis, occurs under

A

elimination

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82
Q

a process wherein the phagolysosome fuses with the cell membrane and expels its contents.

A

exocytosis

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83
Q

functions of phagocytosis

A

-Killing invading microbes.
-Disposal of damaged and dying cells from spleen.
-Removal of tissue debris from repairing wounds.
-Removal of debris as embryonic tissues replace one
another.
-Removal of cancer cells.
-Suppression of the growth of spontaneously arising
tumors.

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84
Q

inflammation is from the latin word

A

inflammatio - to set on fire

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85
Q

an important nonspecific defense reaction to tissue injury, such as that caused by a pathogen, trauma or wound

A

inflammation

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86
Q

the immediate response of the body to injury or cell death.

A

acute inflammation

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87
Q

the immediate response of the body to injury or cell death.

A

acute inflammation

88
Q

gross features of acute inflammation

A 
cardinal signs
rubor - redness
calor - warmth
dolor - pain
tumor - swelling
functio laesa - altered function
89
Q

the inflammatory process also proceed in orderly fashion. T or F

A

True

90
Q

inflammatory process

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • vasodilation
  • cellular response
  • tissue repair
91
Q

This occurs for short period of time following injury and it is characterized by the release of chemical mediators present in the blood such as histamine and kinins

A

vasoconstriction

92
Q

histamine is released by

A

activated mast cells, basophils, and platelets

93
Q

histamine and kinins are released into the area of injury. These chemical mediators induce

A

vasodilation

94
Q

increase in in diameter of blood vessels

A

vasodilation

95
Q

vasodilation results in

A
  • increased blood flow

- increased capillary permeability

96
Q

increased blood flow allows influx of ___________ to the site of injury

A
  • phagocytes
  • oxygen
  • nutrients
97
Q

increased blood flow brings __________ and causes transfer of ___________ to the surface or site of injury.

A

redness (rubor), internal heat (calor)

98
Q

result of vasodilation which is characterized by the separation of endothelial cells that line the capillaries.

A

increased capillary permeability

99
Q

separation of endothelial cells allow the creation of gaps in between the cells which in turn causes leakage of blood fluid and molecules into the tissues, resulting in

A

swelling (tumor) and pain (dolor)

100
Q

this includes the occurrence of phagocyte migration and phagocytosis during inflammation

A

cellular response

101
Q

The phagocytes stick to the walls of the blood vessel in a process called

A

margination

102
Q

the passing through of phagocytes through the gaps between endothelial cells after margination is called

A

diapedesis

103
Q

cellular response occurs within______________ of tissue damage

A

1 hour

104
Q

The phagocytes destroy invading microorganisms by

A

phagocytosis

105
Q

phagocytes die after engulfing large number of microorganisms and damaged tissues, forming _________

A

pus

106
Q

this is a collection of dead cells including neutrophils and macrophages and various body fluids

A

pus

107
Q

pus may be pushed to the surface of the body and accumulate in an internal cavity thereby referred to as

A

abscess

108
Q

tissue repair involves ___________

A

fibrobalst proliferation

109
Q

this involves the secretion of hundreds of small, active molecules to regulate, stimulate, and otherwise control the various aspects of the host’s defense.

A

chemical response

110
Q

involve in bacterial cell lysis

A

lysozyme

111
Q

involved in bacterial cell lysis; inflammation.

A

complement

112
Q

inhibit microbial growth by binding iron.

A

Lactoferrin & transferrin

113
Q

Clearance of bacteria.

A

Fibronectin

114
Q

Act with peroxide to cause lethal oxidation of cells.

A

peroxidase

115
Q

Resistance to virus infections

A

Interferons

116
Q

Causes fever; promotes activation of the immune system

A

Interleukins

117
Q

this defense mechanism occurs when host barriers and non-specific defenses fail to control an infectious agent

A

third line of defense

118
Q

this involves the immune system and the immune responses

A

third line of defense (specific defense)

119
Q

the third line of defense is induced by

A

host’s exposure to a foreign substance (antigen)

120
Q

antigens are also known as

A

immunogens

121
Q

most antigens are

A

proteins or polysaccharides

122
Q

specific regions on the antigens’ surface are called

A

antigenic determinants or epitopes

123
Q

third line of defense responds directly only at the inciting antigen. Hence it has

A

specificity

124
Q

The specific defenses (third line of defense) intensify by repeated exposure to antigens, hence, it has

A

memory

125
Q

the capability of the host’s third line of defense to recall or remember a prior immune response to a given antigen which results in a heightened immune response

A

anamnesis or immunologic memory

126
Q

2 major components of the immune system

A
  • immune cells

- lymphoid organs

127
Q

they consist of the lymphocytes and the monocyte-macrophage

A

immune cells or immunocytes

128
Q

these cells make up 25 - 35% of white blood cells in the

blood.

A

lymphocytes

129
Q

Only <1% of total lymphocyte population circulate in blood, the rest and spends most of its life in tissues. T or F

A

True

130
Q

lymphocytes circulate alternating between blood stream and lymphatic channel. T or F

A

True

131
Q

The lymphocytes circulating in blood are classified into three

A
  • B cells (5-15%)
  • T cells (70-80%)
  • Natural Killer (NK) cells (15%)
132
Q

agranulocytes which circulate in the blood

A

monocyte

133
Q

tissue counterparts of monocytes.

A

macrophages

134
Q

monocytes and macrophages function primarily in phagocytosis. However, only monocytes function in antigen presentation and cytokine production. T or F

A

False. Both of which function primarily in phagocytosis as well as antigen presentation and cytokine production.

135
Q

sites of lymphocyte production or encounter between lymphocytes and antigens

A

lymphoid organs or tissues

136
Q

lymphoid organs have two types

A
  • primary lymphoid organs

- secondary lymphoid organs

137
Q

known as central lymphoid organs consist of the bone marrow and thymus.

A

primary lymphoid organs

138
Q

It is the source of all blood cells

A

bone marrow

139
Q

bone marrow becomes the normal site of hematopoiesis starting from the 5th intrauterine month until birth. T or F

A

True

140
Q

from birth up to 2-3 years of age, all bone marrow (red marrow) are

A

hematopoietically active

141
Q

In adults, the red marrow is confined to the flat
bones (skull, clavicle, sternum) and proximal ends
of the long bones (humerus, femur). T or F

A

True

142
Q

yellow marrow (fatty) begins to appear at

A

5-7 years old

143
Q

the site of B cell development and maturation

A

bone marrow

144
Q

a flat, bilobed organ in front of the chest,

behind the top of the sternum, above the heart.

A

thymus

145
Q

the proportion of thymus generally increases with growth until old age. T or F

A

False. until 8-10 years of age, thereafter begins to atrophy

146
Q

site of T cell development and maturation

A

Thymus

147
Q

referred to as the peripheral

lymphoid organs,

A

secondary lymphoid organs

148
Q

secondary lymphoid organs are most often the sites of interaction
between the immune cells and foreign antigen. it is also where lymphocytes are most abundant. T or F

A

True

149
Q

secondary lymphoid organs consist of

A

lymph nodes
spleen
MALT

150
Q

secondary lymphoid organs consist of

A

lymph nodes
spleen
MALT

151
Q

a diffuse or organized lymphoid tissues found in the

mucosal lining of RT, GIT, tonsils and skin.

A

MALT (mucus-associated lymphoid tissue)

152
Q

MALT is changed to GALT or BALT depending on its location. T or F

A

True

153
Q

made of all the lymphoid tissue found on the walls of the intestines (lymph
nodes, Peyer patches (ileum), isolated lymph follicles).

A

GALT (Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)

154
Q

made of all lymphoid tissue (tonsils, lymph nodes, lymph follicles) found in
the respiratory mucosae from the nasal cavities to the lungs.

A

BALT (Bronchial-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)

155
Q

2 arms of the host’s immune response

A
  • humoral immunity

- cellular immunity

156
Q

this immunity is associated with production of antibodies (Abs)

A

humoral immunity

-due to this it is also called Antibody - Mediated Immune Response (AMI)

157
Q

humoral immunity consists of activation of T cells and the antibodies they produce. T or F

A

False. B cells

158
Q

B cell activation occurs through the process known as

A

clonal selection

159
Q

Once a B cell becomes activated, it proliferates forming a clone of
cells specific to the same antigen. This called

A

clonal expansion

160
Q

are responsible for anamnestic
response. They are long lived, and circulate more
actively.

A

memory B cells

161
Q

secrete antibodies against the antigen that activated them. They only live a few days ( about 1 week)

A

plasma cells

161
Q

secrete antibodies against the antigen that activated them. They only live a few days ( about 1 week)

A

plasma cells

162
Q

are proteins that are made in response
to an antigen and can recognize and bind to that
antigen.

A

antibodies

163
Q

antibodies are also known as

A

immunoglobulins

164
Q

The simplest molecular structure of an

immunoglobulin

A

monomer

165
Q

monomer consist of

A

four (4) polypeptide chains;

2 identical Light (L) chains and 2 identical Heavy (H) chains.

166
Q

Treatment with protease separates the antibody

molecule in into two regions:

A
  • fab regions

- Fc regions

167
Q

also known as antigen-binding fragment

A

fab regions
-The Fab consists of the “arms” of the Y-shaped antibody
molecule.

168
Q

also known as crystallizable fragment as it crystallizes at 4 degrees C

A

Fc region

169
Q

he Fc region makes up the “stem” of the Yshaped anybody molecule. T or F

A

True

170
Q

It is also responsible for
complement fixation, i.e., the binding of the
complement to antigen-antibody complex;
and the placental transfer of IgG

A

Fc region

171
Q

5 classes of immunoglobulins

A
  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgA
  • IgD
  • IgE
172
Q 
Structure: Monomer
Molecular weight: 150,000
Function: 
-Bacterial agglutination 
- Complement fixation 
- Opsonization 
-Toxin and viral Neutralization 
-Secondary immune response 
-Passive immunity for the newborns
A

IgG

173
Q 
Structure: pentamer
molecular weight: 970,000
function:
-Bacterial agglutination 
- Complement fixation 
- Opsonization 
-Toxin and viral neutralization 
- Primary immune Response
A

IgM

174
Q 
structure: dimer (with secretory component)
molecular weight: 405,000
function:
-Localized 
protection on 
mucosal surfaces.
A

IgA

175
Q 
Structure: Monomer
Molecular weight: 175,000
function:
-Serum function 
not known: 
presence on B 
cells functions in 
initiation of 
immune response.
A

IgD

176
Q 
Structure: monomer
molecular weight: 190,000
function:
-Allergic reactions; 
possibly lysis of 
parasitic worms.
A

IgE

177
Q

This part of the antibody
molecule determines what will happen to the
antigen once they are bound together

A

the tail of the “Y”, the Fc region of the molecule

Fc region sa tail, Fab region sa parang pa v

178
Q

functions of antibodies in host defense

A
  • agglutination and precipitation
  • opsonization
  • toxin neutralization
  • steric hindrance
  • activation of the complement
  • antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
179
Q

the reaction between
particulate antigens (cells such as bacteria)
and specific antibodies resulting into
clumping.

A

agglutination

180
Q

the reaction between
soluble antigens and specific antibodies
forming aggregates.

A

precipitation

181
Q

Clumping and/or aggregation enhances
phagocytosis. it also makes antigens
more readily phagocytosed than if they
were separate infectious units. T or F

A

True

182
Q

clumping of bacteria causes immobilization/ T or F

A

True

183
Q

clumping of bacteria causes immobilization/ T or F

A

True

184
Q

play an
important role in the prevention or
recovery from infection caused by
encapsulated bacteria.

A

opsonins

185
Q 
Antibodies react 
with soluble bacterial toxin and block 
the active site of the toxin. This 
consequently blocks the interaction of 
the toxin specific target cell or substrate.
A

toxin neutralizer

186
Q

Antibodies combine
with the surfaces of microorganisms and
block or prevent their attachment to
susceptible cells or mucosal surfaces.

A

steric hindrance

187
Q

a defensive system
consisting proteins produced by the
h e p a t o c y t e s , l y m p h o c y t e s a n d
monocytes.

A

complement

188
Q

It is named as such because it “complements” the
cells of the immune system and some
antibodies in destroying microbes.

A

complement system

189
Q

i n s e r t s i n t o t h e m e m b r a n e o f
microorganisms or cells leading to loss of
osmotic integrity and lysis of the
targeted cell.

A

Cytolysis. C5b6789 complex (membrane attack complex, MAC)

190
Q

C3b opsonizes
microorganisms and binds to the C3b
r e c e p t o r s o n p h a g o c y t e s s o
phagocytosis becomes more efficient.

A

opsonization

190
Q

C3b opsonizes
microorganisms and binds to the C3b
r e c e p t o r s o n p h a g o c y t e s s o
phagocytosis becomes more efficient.

A

opsonization

191
Q 
a process in which
immune cells, usually phagocytes, are 
attracted towards a factor. The C5a
component of the complement is a 
potent chemotactic agent.
A

chemotaxis

192
Q 
a process in which
immune cells, usually phagocytes, are 
attracted towards a factor. The C5a
component of the complement is a 
potent chemotactic agent.
A

chemotaxis

193
Q 
C3a
C 4 a a n d C 5 a a r e c o m p l e m e n t 
anaphylatoxins that stimulate mast cells 
and basophils to release histamine. 
These promote vasodilation and 
increased vascular permeability. An 
increased blood flow to the site of 
infection allows more complement, 
antibodies, and immune cells to enter 
the site of infection.
A

degranulation of mast cells

194
Q

mediated by T cells which express specific T

cell receptors for antigens

A

cellular immunity

195
Q

T cells are classified by glycoproteins on their surface called

A

clusters of differentiation
-membrane molecules that are especially
important for adhesion to receptors.

196
Q

CDs of greatest importance

A

CD4 and CD8
-co-receptor molecules on
the surface T cells.

197
Q

T cells are subdivided into 2 major functional classes

A

helper T cells

cytotoxic T cells

198
Q

refers to the ability of a microbe to cause a disease in the host

A

pathogenicity

199
Q

disease-causing microbes

A

pathogens

200
Q

microorganisms that do not associate with their
host except in the case of disease. They cause disease even in normal (healthy)
individual.

A

True or obligate pathogens

201
Q

are microbes that can cause disease only
when one or more of the defense mechanisms designed to restrict them from
the usually sterile internal tissues are breached by accident, by intent (eg,
surgery), or by an underlying metabolic or an infectious disorder (eg, AIDS).

A

Opportunistic or potential pathogens

202
Q

refers to the degree of pathogenicity.

A

virulence

203
Q

e the sum of characteristics that allow microorganisms to produce
disease in a host. These may be structural, biochemical, or genetic traits that are
determinants of virulence.

A

virulence factor

204
Q

The ability of pathogenic bacteria to penetrate the host tissue
and spread encompasses mechanisms for colonization or overcoming host
defenses.

A

Invasiveness

205
Q

bacterial surface structures or macromolecules that bind a

bacterium to a specific surface.

A

adhesins

206
Q

bacterial extracellular substances (usually proteins, or
enzymes) which act locally — at a short range, in the immediate vicinity of
bacterial growth, that damage host cells and/or have the immediate
effect of facilitating growth and spread of the pathogen.

A

invasins

207
Q

bacterial features which allow them to resist main line of
host defense against them such as the phagocytic and immune
responses of the host

A

aggressins

208
Q

certain bacteria produce substances that

suppresses neutrophil chemotaxis.

A

inhibition of chemotaxis

209
Q

Some bacteria have a
mechanism to cover their surface with a component which is seen
as “self” by host phagocytes, hence cannot be recognized.

A

Avoiding contact with phagocytes.

209
Q

Some bacteria have a
mechanism to cover their surface with a component which is seen
as “self” by host phagocytes, hence cannot be recognized.

A

Avoiding contact with phagocytes.

210
Q

certain bacteria possess
molecules that bind with Fc region of the antibody. The Fc region is
no longer available to bind with the Fc receptor on the
phagocytes, thereby inhibiting of opsonization.

A

Inhibition of phagocytic engulfment

211
Q

Bacteria survive inside
phagosomes because they inhibit the fusion of the phagosome
with the lysosome thus prevents the discharge of lysosomal
contents into the phagosome environment.

A

Inhibition of phagolysosome formation

212
Q

With some intracellular
microbes, phagosome-lysosome fusion occurs, but bacteria are
resistant to inhibition and killing by the lysosomal constituents.

A

Resistance to killing by lysosomal factors

213
Q

occurs after contact with an immune stimulus
(antigen) that activates the B and T cells causing the body to
produce immune factors such as antibodies and immunereactive T cell

A

active immunity

214
Q

occurs when the host receives immune
factors (e.g., antibodies) in immune serum that were
produced in the body of another individual or animal
donor

A

passive immunity

MLS 223/L PRELIMS (1 decks)

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