Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

A. MLA Map Infections > Hospital Acquired Infections > Flashcards

Hospital Acquired Infections Flashcards

1
Q

In the image, which 2 are the correct responses?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In the image, which of th responses are correct?

A

All options are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is the 1st line treatment for cellulitis?

1 - Gentamicin
2 - Flucloxacillin
3 - Vancomycin
4 - Erythromycin

A

2 - Flucloxacillin

500mg-1g 4/day for 5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is the 1st line treatment for cellulitis, if the patient has a penicillin allergy?

1 - Gentamicin
2 - Clindamycin
3 - Vancomycin
4 - Clarithromycin

A

4 - Clarithromycin

500mg BD for 5-7 days per oral

IV only in class III and IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is the 1st line treatment for cellulitis, if the patient has a penicillin allergy and is pregnant, which of the following is most suitable?

  • Clarithromycin
  • Erythromycin
A
  • Erythromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which 2 of the following are most likely to cause cellulitis and castheter infecitons?

1 - staphylococcus aureaus
2 - e. coli
3 - streptococcus pneumonia
4 - streptococci

A

1 - staphylococcus aureaus
4 - streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which gram negative bacteria are most common in IV fluids and sodium flushes?

1 - staphylococcus aureaus
2 - e. coli
3 - streptococcus pneumonia
4 - pseudomonas

A

4 - pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which gram negative bacteria are most common in lipid rich parental nutrition?

1 - staphylococcus aureaus
2 - candida
3 - streptococcus pneumonia
4 - pseudomonas

A

2 - candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following defines when a patient is colonised by Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

1 - MRSA detect on skin and patient has symptoms
2 - MRSA detected on skin and patient has no symptoms
3 - MRSA not detected on skin and patient has no symptoms
4 - MRSA not detected on skin and patient has symptoms

A

2 - MRSA detected on skin and patient has no symptoms

Important to identify if infected or colonised as this affects treatment, i.e. previous resistance to antibacterial

If patient is colonised they should be decolonised asap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following defines when a patient is infected by Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

1 - MRSA detect on skin and patient has symptoms
2 - MRSA detected on skin and patient has no symptoms
3 - MRSA not detected on skin and patient has no symptoms
4 - MRSA not detected on skin and patient has symptoms

A

1 - MRSA detect on skin and patient has symptoms

Important to identify if infected or colonised as this affects treatment, i.e. previous resistance to antibacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which 2 of the following are used as part of decolonisation of patients?

1 - IV Flucloxacillin and gentamicin
2 - nasal mupirocin
3 - chlorhexidine (antiseptic and disinfectant) body wash
4 - isolation

A

2 - nasal mupirocin
3 - chlorhexidine (antiseptic and disinfectant) body wash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is likley to increase the risk of C-diff?

1 - atorvastatin
2 - amilodapine
3 - cephalexin
4 - gentamicin

A

3 - cephalexin

Any cephalasporin upset gut microbiome and c-diff dominates

Antimicrobials are the most common cause of c-diff infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typicall risk factor for developing c-diff?

1 - antibacterials
2 - recent bowel surgery
3 - PPIs
4 - foreign travel
5 - malnutrition
6 - total parental feeding

A

4 - foreign travel

Patients must be isolated if c.diff is confirmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is the 1st line treatment for c. diff?

1 - Gentamicin
2 - Clindamycin
3 - Vancomycin
4 - Clarithromycin

A

3 - Vancomycin

125mg 4/day for 10 days

Fidaxomicin is 2nd line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vancomycin is 1st line for c. diff. Is this given orally or IV?

A
  • orally

Poor GIT uptake so remains in GIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection of the heart valves or the endocardium. Which of the following patients have the highest risk of IE?

1 - >65
2 - heart valve replacement
3 - recent surgery
4 - STEMI

A

2 - heart valve replacement

Valves are more likely to be infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of infective endocarditis?

1 - staphylococci aureus
2 - streptococci
3 - alpha haemolyic streptococci
4 - candida

A

1 - staphylococci aureus

18
Q

Is the question in the image true or false?

19
Q

Is the question in the image true or false?

20
Q

Is the question in the image true or false?

21
Q

Which organism causes meningococcal disease?

1 - staphylococci aureus
2 - streptococci
3 - alpha haemolyic streptococci
4 - neisseria meningitidis

A

4 - neisseria meningitidis

Meningococcal disease is a medical emergency

22
Q

All of the following can be given via IV or IM, EXCEPT which one to treat meningococcal disease?

1 - benzylpenicillin
2 - ceftriaxone
3 - vancomycin
4 - cefotaxime

A

3 - vancomycin

23
Q

Due to the easy transmission of meningococcal disease, which 2 of the following can close contacts be treated with?

1 - co-amoxiclav
2 - rifampacin
3 - ciprofloxacin
4 - vancomycin

A

2 - rifampacin
3 - ciprofloxacin

24
Q

CURB-65 can be used to assess community acquired pneumonia. A score of what would prompt the use of IV anti-bacterial due to severe pneumonia?

1 - 0-1
2 - 2
3 - >3
4 - >4

A

3 - >3

Mild infections can be managed with oral antibiotics

25
Q

Review the image and select the correct image

26
Q

What is the most common way to deliver anti-bacterials if an infection has spread to the kidneys causing pyelonephritis?

1 - oral
2 - sublingual
3 - IV
4 - IM

27
Q

Review the image and select the correct image

28
Q

Review the image and select the correct image

29
Q

Review the image and select the correct image

30
Q

Which antibiotic class has the highest risk of drug interactions?

1 - Cephalosporins
2 - Tetracyclines
3 - Macrolides
4 - Aminoglycosides

A

3 - Macrolides

Clarithromycin and Erythromycin

Erythromycin is a P450 drug inhibitor

31
Q

Macrolides combined with which of the following can cause muscle toxicity?

1 - statins
2 - iron supplements
3 - furosemide
4 - methotrexate

A

1 - statins

32
Q

Which 2 drug classes can commonly cause QT interval changes and increase the risk of arrhythmias?

1 - Tetracyclines
2 - Macrolides
3 - Aminoglycosides
4 - Quinolones

A

2 - Macrolides
4 - Quinolones

Quinolones are also linked to tendon problems

33
Q

Which of the following is a notifiable disease?

A
  • Legionnaires’ disease
34
Q

Which of the following conditions, most likely requires IV treatment of medication?

A
  • pyelonephritis
35
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about MRSA?

36
Q

Select the correct response

37
Q

Select the correct response

38
Q

Select the correct response

39
Q

Select the correct response

40
Q

Select the correct response

A. MLA Map Infections (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions