Hormones and Cancer Flashcards

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1
Q

Define hormones and describe the different classes

A

Hormones are naturally occuring chemicals produced by the body to act as chemical messengers, travelling through the blood to act on target organs and tissues. They’re divided into 3 classes: peptide (insulin), amine (adrenaline), steroid (testosterone).

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2
Q

Describe the synthesis of steroid hormones

A

All steroid hormones are synthesised from cholesterol. Cholesterol is taken into the steroid producing cells, where it is synthesised into the different steroid hormone classes: androgens, oestrogens, progestins, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids. The steroid synthesis pathways are all likely linked.

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3
Q

Explain the signalling pathway for steroid hormones

A

Steroid hormones, due to their lipophilicity, can cross the lipid bilayer and interact with intracellular receptors. These nuclear receptors (not neccessarily in the nucleus) are TFs, and there’s 48 of them in humans.

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4
Q

Which cancers are regulated by hormones?

A

Prostate and breast cancers are hormone dependent or endocrine cancers

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5
Q

How can different hormones affect a woman’s risk of getting breast cancer?

A

Combined menopausal hormonal therapy (oestrogen and progestin) can slightly increase a woman’s risk of breast cancer, but oestrogen only therapy can increase risk of endometrial cancer and is only used in women that have had a hysterectomy

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6
Q

How can oestrogen affect pregnant women?

A

Diethylstilbestrol is a synthetic oestrogen that was given to some pregnant women in 40s-70s to prevent miscarriages, premature labour, and related pregnancy problems. It was discontinued when it was out found that women taking DES had increased risk of breast cancer and daughters had increased vaginal and cervical cancer risk. The effects on grandchildren are still being studied.

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7
Q

In which other ways are hormones associated with increased cancer risk?

A

Increased BC risk associated with early onset puberty, late menopause, late or no first pregnancy - these factors all result in increased exposure to the oestrogen cycle. Other hormones, like insulin, have been associated with increased risk of pancreatic, liver, kidney, stomach, respiratory cancers. Insulin-like GFs are associated with bowel, prostate, and breast cancers.

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8
Q

Describe the properties of oestrogens and androgens

A

Oestrogens eg. Oestradiol are produced by the ovaries and are required for the development of female sex characteristics. Androgens eg. Testosterone are produced by the testes and are required for the development of male sex characteristics. Both sexes require both but in different quantities

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9
Q

Describe the synthetic pathways of oestrogens and androgens

A

The production of both hormones is controlled by LH, which is produced by the anterior pituitary. LH production is regulated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Adrenal gland produces DHEA and androstenedione. In females, androstenedione is turned into oestrone, 17B oestradiol (E2), and oestriol. E2 is the key circulating hormone in reproductive years, oestriol in pregnancy, oestrone in menopause. The conversion involves aromatisation and oxidation. Oestradiol can be synthesised directly from testosterone.

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10
Q

How do ERs and ARs carry out their TF function

A

They bind as homodimers to specific DNA sequences known as response elements - the structure of which is 2 6nt sequences separated by 3 unconserved nucleotides.

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11
Q

Describe the structure of the ER and AR receptors

A

There are 3 main functional domains, the Ligand Binding domain (containing activation factor II), N terminal transcription regulating domain (contains AFI), and the DNA binding domain. When the ligand binds, the nuclear translocation signal is exposed which promotes translocation of the complex to the nucleus.

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12
Q

Describe the nuclear signalling pathway of steroid receptors

A

Once E/ARs bind to E/AREs, their activity is regulated by coregulators. On interaction with the RE, coregulators are recruited that either activate or inhibit activity. The first coactivator (P100) recruits more (CREB BP) which has intrinsic histone acetyltransferase activity. This result in histone acetylation near the RE, resulting in opening up of the chromatin, so RNA Pol II can initiate transcription. The coactivators phosphorylate RNA Pol II so it’s elongation competent

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13
Q

Describe the similarities between the breast and the prostate

A

They are both exocrine glands, in that they secrete substances outside the body, via ducts. 90% of breast and prostate cancers are in the luminal epithelial cell layer. The breast and prostate contain many exocrine glands, joined in a branching structure.

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14
Q

Describe the difference in action of each type of oestrogen receptor, ERa and ERb

A

The expression pattern of each receptors differs in both males and females, and this expression is what results in different roles in both males and females. Also, when present in the same cells, ERa activity can oppose ERb activity.

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15
Q

Outline the key events in breast cancer progression

A

Ductal hyperproliferation, evolution into carcinoma in situ, invasive carcinoma, and metastatic disease

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16
Q

Outline risk factors for breast cancer

A
Age - 80% of cases over 50
Family history - Mum or sis diagnosed = 2x risk
Genetics - 5-10% cases probs hereditary
Radiation exposure
Overweight
Menstruation before 12
Hormone Replacement Therapy
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17
Q

Describe the pathology of breast cancer

A

Normal breast ducts (secrete milk) and are composed of basement membrane, with a layer of luminal epithelia and basal epithelia. Transforming events (genetic or epigenetic) in one cell lead to uncontrollable proliferation which leads to ductal or lobular hyperplasia.

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18
Q

Explain the different classifications of breast cancer

A

70-80% of cancers are ERa+, a hallmark of hormone dependent cancer growth. ERb expression is often decreased in tumour cells.
Subclassification of invasive ductal carcinoma involves expression levels of ER, progesterone receptor (ER target gene, ER activity marker), and HER2. Further classification involves expression of a related GF receptor (HER1), and various cytokeratins.
ER- cancers are HER2+ (enriched) or triple negative (basal-like and low claudin subtypes). Classification gives an idea of prognosis and sometimes best treatment course

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19
Q

Explain the different subclassifications of ER+ breast cancer

A

All ER+ cancers are luminal, subdivided into HER2+ (enriched, Luminal B) and HER2- (luminal A).

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20
Q

Describe and explain the role that genes play in breast cancer development

A

Tumour suppressor genes involved in familial breast cancer:
BRCA1/2 - DNA repair and cell death, mutations account for 10% of cases
ATM - DNA repair. Underlies ataxia-telangiectasia (autosomal recessive), a disease where sufferers have x100 cancer risk
BARD1 - Associates with BRCA1, regulating apoptosis

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21
Q

How can breast cancer be detected?

A

Mammography, MRI, biopsy. The treatment success is monitored by these methods also.

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22
Q

Describe the treatments for breast cancer

A

Ovariectomy (to reduce ovarian function - oestrogen production). Synthetic steroidal and non steroidal oestrogens, oestrogen antagonists (anti-oestrogens), non ER-modulating drugs (Aromatase inhibitors)

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23
Q

Describe how SERM/SERDs work

A

Selective ER modulators/downregulators. Tamoxifen/Fulvestrant.
SERMs act as antagonists in mammary tissue, stimulating cholesterol metabolism, bone density, and cell prolif in endometrium. Induces conformational change in ER.
SERD inhibits ER dimerisation and accelerates ER degredation and reduced expression

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24
Q

Describe long term anti-hormonal treatments given to pre-menopausal women with breast cancer

A

Usually treated with Tamoxifen, sometimes GnRH superagonists to inhibit hypothalamic-pituitary production of oestrogen. This is because in prem-menopausal women, the major source of oestrogen production is the ovaries

25
Q

Describe long term anti-hormonal treatments given to post-menopausal women with breast cancer

A

Most oestrogen production is from adrenal gland produced hormonal precursors eg. androgens which are converted to oestrogen peripherally in eg. adipose tissue. Aromatise inhibitors used to stop conversion of androgens to oestrogens in ER of converting cells.

26
Q

Describre the different types of Aromatase inhibitors

A

Type I steroidal inhibitors eg exemestane act as irreversible suicide inhibitos of aromatase
Type II non steroidal inhibitors eg anastrozole and letrozole act as reversible inhibitors, binding to the haem group

27
Q

Describe the concept of hormone independence

A

Resistance to Tamoxifen was previously believed to develop because ER+ tumour cells are outgrown by ERI cells.

28
Q

Describe the two theories of how tumours become hormone independent

A

Intrinsic resistance - Cells have pre-existing resistance to chemotherapy which are selected for by the chemotherapy
Extrinsic resistance - The tumour initially responds to Tamoxifen but later becomes resistant through clonal selection of tamoxifen resistant cells

29
Q

Explain how co-activators and co-repressors can cause resistance

A

Changes in expression of ER coregulators alter ER activity. Overexpression of ER coactivator AIB1 is associated with clinical and experimental Tamoxifen resistance. Down regulation of corepressor NCoR occurs in Tamoxifen refractory cancers. This phenomenon is also seen in prostate cancer.

30
Q

How can cancer cells still proliferate even in the presence of ER inhibitors?

A

HER2 and MAPK can provide alternative proliferative pathways. They can modulate ER and increase activity which leads to therapeutic resistance. The pathways can be activated via receptor/cognate ligand overexpression. Also they can occur via downstream signalling molecule deregulation eg. activating mutation in PI3K or loss of PTEN expression

31
Q

What role does the AR play in development of resistance to therapies?

A

ER activity can in some cases be substituted by other nuclear receptors such as AR. In the absence of ER, AR may initiate cell division.

32
Q

How can mutations in ERs lead to therapeutic resistance

A

During treatments, cancer cells gain more mutations. Mutations in ER can lead to increased/constitutive activation even in the absence of oestradiol

33
Q

What are the functions of androgens?

A

Plays a key role in prostate development, controlling growth in the embryonic/neonatal stage (initiated by androgen surge, requiring androgens and GFs), growth at puberty, secretory function in adult life (maintained by high androgen levels), second growth spurt (aberrant, breakdown in regulation).

34
Q

Explain how androgens determine male sexual differentiation in embryonic development

A

In the male embryo, Mullerian ducts (female reproductive system precursor) regress Wolfian ducts (male) are stabilised by androgens. It is regulated by testosterone, which is produced at 9 weeks by Leydig cells of testes. In this process, the prostate and prostatic utricle (Mullerian duct remnant) are formed. In some target organs, testosterone -> DHT, which is more potent. DHT drives prostate development and masculinisation of external genitalia

35
Q

Describe the prostate gland and the 3 major morbidities associated with it

A

A walnut sized gland at the base of the bladder, encircling the urethra. Benign prostate hyperplasia, prostatitis (inflammation), and prostate cancer.

36
Q

What are the cellular markers associated with different cells in the prostate?

A

Luminal epithelial cells express cytokeratins 8 and 18, and secretory proteins eg PSA. and high levels of AR. Basal epithelium/myoepithelium express cytokeratins 5, 4, and p63, with very little expression. Basal cell layer contains rare neuroendocrine cells which secrete neuropeptides and other hormones. Stromal compartment consists of smooth muscle cells, mature fibroblasts (secreting ECM), blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerves, and immune cells.

37
Q

What is the function of the prostate?

A

Secretes an alkaline fluid that aids in sperm survival. It’s made up of zinc, citrate, coagulative enzymes, prostate specific antigen (PSA), other proteases and polyamines

38
Q

What are the risk factors of prostate cancer?

A

Age - over 50 40% of men have cancer foci, at 80 70% have biopsy detectable cancer, but only 1/8 clinically significant.
Ethnicity - More common in NW europe, N america, aus
Family history - BRCA1/2 mutations
Hormone levels in utero may affect risk

39
Q

What are the symptoms of prostate cancer?

A
Frequent trips/urgent need to urinate
Poor urinary stream/hesitancy
Lower back pain
Blood in urine
May also be asymptomatic
40
Q

Describe the pathology of prostate cancer

A

90% of prostate adenocarcinomas are in luminal epithelia, and the basement cell layer is absent in most tumours. The normal prostate epithelium undergoes a multistep malignant process, initiation: prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia, followed by localised prostate cancer, then invasive adenocarcinoma, culminating in castration - resistance and metastasis (usually lymph nodes and bone). The stroma is altered so that it is supportive of tumour growth.

41
Q

Describe the Gleason grading system used to grade prostate tumours

A

It’s based off comparative tissue architecture
1 - Similar to normal, well defined ducts and epithelial layers
5 - Largely lost ducts and sheets of epithelia predominate. Tumours can have different grades so the two areas that constitute most of the tumour are graded, ie. Grade 4+2

42
Q

How are genes involved in increasing the risk of prostate cancer?

A

Having a 1st degree relative with prostate cancer can double the risk. However, no single gene accounts for a large majority of cases, it’s many genes each accounting for a small % of cases.

43
Q

How can a PSA test be used to detect prostate cancer?

A

PSA is a serine protease and a component of prostatic fluid. It usually remain in the duct due to tight junctions, however, disruptions to the barrier (cell invasion, mechanical disruption) can result in PSA leaking into stroma (blood vessels) and becoming detectable in blood.

44
Q

What is the function of PSA?

A

To keep seminal vessels clear by lysing seminal coagulate, can also cleave other substrates so may have a role in prostate cancer, may also be anti angiogenic. It’s production is regulated by androgens, and there are several AREs in it’s promotor/regulator regions in the gene.

45
Q

In which ways can prostate cancer be detected?

A

Digital rectal examination. PSA test. Ultrasound to detect a tumour outside the prostate capsule

46
Q

In which ways can prostate cancer be treated?

A

It was observed that castration can lead to tumour regression, and so now the standard of care for prostate cancer patients is androgen deprivation therapy

47
Q

Explain how castration leads to tumour regression

A

Castration (testicular ablation) leads to tumour regression because the body is no longer producing testosterone to fuel tumour growth

48
Q

Explain how pituitary downregulators can be used to treat prostate cancer

A

Eg Goserelin acetate, buserelin, leuprolide acetate. They are usually synthetic GnRH analogues (superagonists) which cause an initial increase in LH and test (typical response to increased GnRH) but then inhibit the pituitary-gonadal axis. This is because the receptors get degraded and cannot be remade, desensitising the receptors in the hypothalamus to endogenous GnRH. Even so, DHT production usually only reduced by half due to the conversion of adrenal androgens to DHT

49
Q

Explain how anti-androgens can be used to treat prostate cancer

A

Steroidal (CPA) and non steroidal (enzalutamide). They compete with endogenous androgens for the AR, and induce a conformational change which leads to reduced nuclear translocation, DNA binding, and coactivator recruitment. Anti-androgens thereby function as partial agonists/full antagonists. Some promote corepressor recruitment. They can also inhibit dimerisation.

50
Q

Explain how androgen synthesis inhibitors can be used to treat prostate cancer

A

They inhibit the enzymatic steps which lead to steroid production. Abiraterone inhibits CYP17 and is the most common, initially used in adjuvant therapy with pituitary downregulators. Has a knock on effect on synthesis/levels of other steroids, so glucocorticosteroids need to be taken to control BP

51
Q

Describe the occurance of hormone independence in prostate tumours

A

Initially prostate tumours are androgen dependent, and progress and treatment success is monitored via serum PSA. However, resistance can occur, resulting in castration resistant prostate cancer or metastatic castration resistant prostate cancer. Median relapse time is biochemically (from raised PSA) 1 year, symptomatically 3 years. Not any effective therapies for this stage of disease. AR aberration is key to resistance, even though it is multifactorial

52
Q

Explain how loss of ligand specificity in the AR can lead to resistant prostate tumours

A

In primary tumours AR mutations are rare but occur in 20% of castration resistant tumours. The mutations occur in the ligand binding domain, increasing sensitivity of the AR, leading to activation of AR by other ligands

53
Q

Explain how active splice variants of the AR can result in resistant prostate tumours

A

Active splice variants occur in prostate cancer cell lines and also tumours. They all have no ligand binding domain, but have a DNA binding domain and AF1. This means they are constitutively active and regulate AR dependent genes, including those involved in tumour/cell growth

54
Q

Explain how AR overexpression can result in resistant prostate tumours

A

30-50% of resistant tumours have increased AR levels due to gene amplifications or overexpression. This allows the AR to be sensitive to lower levels of androgens or weaker androgens, amplifying the response

55
Q

Explain how alterations in cofactor levels can result in resistant prostate tumours

A

Increased coactivator levels can lead to a sensitivity to hormones. Also, decreased corepressor levels can lead to prevention of anti androgenic action.

56
Q

Explain some cons of diagnosis via digital rectal exam and ultrasound

A

Can only detect visible/feelable tumours, if the tumour is small and within the gland, it will be invisible and hence not detectable.

57
Q

Discuss some cons of the PSA test

A

PSA can be raised for other reasons, and the test misses 15% of cancers. Needs to be followed by a biopsy which has associated morbidities eg. risk of infection. Can’t tell the difference between fast and slow growing cancers

58
Q

Describe the mechanism behind how anti-androgens can recruit corepressor proteins

A

When androgens bind to AR receptors, a conformational change in the AR leads to the exposure of a coactivator binding site, however when an anti androgen binds, it blocks that site, and can result in a corepressor binding site