Homicide Law and Defences Flashcards

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1
Q

How is homicide defined under s158?

A

Homicide is the killing of a human being by another, directly or indirectly, by any means whatsoever.

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2
Q

Can an organisation (as opposed to a human being) be convicted of murder or manslaughter? Explain your answer with Case Law.

A

Manslaughter; an organisation can be convicted as a party to the offence (section 66(1)). Murder, an organisation cannot be convicted as either a principal offender or a party to the offence. This is because the offence carries a mandatory life sentence.
Murray Wright Ltd [1970] NZLR 476.
Because the killing must be done by a human being, an organisation (such as a hospital or food company) cannot be convicted as a principal offender.

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3
Q

Section 159 defines when a child becomes a human being, and is therefore capable of being murdered under section 158. What does this state?

A

(1) A child becomes a human being within the meaning of this Act when it has completely proceeded in a living state from the body of its mother, whether it has breathed or not, whether it has an independent circulation or not, and whether the navel string is severed or not.
(2) The killing of such child is homicide if it dies in consequence of injuries received before, during, or after birth

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4
Q

Define Culpable homicide s160?

A

(1) Homicide may be either culpable or not culpable.
(2) Homicide is culpable when it consists in the killing of any person—
(a) By an unlawful act; or
(b) By an omission without lawful excuse to perform or observe any legal duty; or
(c) By both combined; or
(d) By causing that person by threats or fear of violence, or by deception, to do an act which causes his death; or
(e) By wilfully frightening a child under the age of 16 years or a sick person

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5
Q

What does s160(2)(b) mean in relation to omission to perform legal duty?

A

This covers cases where nothing is done when there is a legal duty to act, and certain cases of positive conduct accompanied by a failure to discharge a legal duty, in particular a duty of care. If death results from any such omission the defendant may be convicted of manslaughter, provided there was sufficient fault, or murder if the defendant had the requisite mens rea

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6
Q

Define ‘legal duty’?

A

The expression “legal duty” refers to those duties imposed by statute or common law including uncodified common law duties:
Duties imposed by statute are mainly common law duties that have been embodied in statute.
Omission of legal duties can amount to homicide. For the requisite causal connection, it seems that it must appear that death would not have occurred as and when it did had the defendant performed the duty in question, and it must have been “a substantial and operative cause of death”:

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7
Q

List 3 duties imposed by statute?

A
  • provide the necessaries and protect from injury (s151)
  • provide necessaries and protect from injury to your charges when you are a parent or guardian (s152)
  • provide necessaries as an employer (s153)
  • use reasonable knowledge and skill when performing dangerous acts such as surgery (S155)
  • take precautions when in charge of dangerous things, such as machinery (S156)
  • avoid omissions that will endanger life (S157)
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8
Q

What was held in R v TOMARS in relation to threats, fear of violence and deception?

A

R v Tomars
Formulates the issues in the following way:
1. Was the deceased threatened by, in fear of or deceived by the defendant?
2. If they were, did such threats, fear or deception cause the deceased to do the act that caused their death?
3. Was the act a natural consequence of the actions of the defendant, in the sense that reasonable and responsible people in the defendant’s position at the time could reasonably have foreseen the consequences?
4. Did these foreseeable actions of the victim contribute in a [significant] way to his death?

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9
Q

Threats, fear, or deception can result in culpable homicide. What are three examples of this?

A

When a person:

  • jumps or falls out of a window because they think they are going to be assaulted
  • jumps into a river to escape an attack and drowns
  • who has been assaulted and believes their life is in danger, jumps from a train and is killed
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10
Q

How is ‘wilfully frightening’ defined by Adams on Criminal Law?

A

“Wilfully frightening” is regarded as “intending to frighten, or at least be reckless as to this”. Adams on Criminal Law

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11
Q

What does s163 state in relation to killing by influence on the mind, and give an example?

A

Legislation 163 Killing by influence on the mind
No one is criminally responsible for the killing of another by any influence on the mind alone, except by wilfully frightening a child under the age of 16 years or a sick person, nor for the killing of another by any disorder or disease arising from such influence, except by wilfully frightening any such child as aforesaid or a sick person.

For example this would apply if someone was driven into an extreme anxiety state by work or domestic pressures, but had no previous mental or physical ailment and committed suicide, the person causing the anxiety would not be culpable for the death.

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12
Q

To establish the death of a person what must you prove?

A
  • death occurred
  • deceased is identified as the person who has been killed
  • the killing is culpable.
    Death can be proved by direct and/or circumstantial evidence
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13
Q

What was the ruling in R v HORRY?

A

Death should be provable by such circumstances as render it morally certain and leave no ground for reasonable doubt – that the circumstantial evidence should be so cogent and compelling as to convince a jury that upon no rational hypothesis other than murder can the facts be accounted for.

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14
Q

Note that some acts are “justified” even when they result in death. Section 2 provides that when an act is justified the perpetrator is exempt from both criminal and civil liability.What are examples of this?

A

. Examples of such acts include:
- homicide committed in self-defence (s48)
- homicide committed to prevent suicide or commission of an offence which would be likely to cause immediate and serious injury to the person or property of any one (s41).
Note that use of force here is limited to that which is reasonably necessary in the circumstances.
Other non-culpable homicides are protected from only criminal responsibility.

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15
Q

What does s162(1) and (2) state around when death must have occured?

A

(1) No one is criminally responsible for the killing of another unless the death takes place within a year and a day after the cause of death.
(2) The period of a year and a day shall be reckoned inclusive of the day on which the last unlawful act contributing to the cause of death took place.

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16
Q

List 3 instances where culpable homicide is murder under s167(a)-(d)?

A

(a) If the offender means to cause the death of the person killed:
(b) If the offender means to cause to the person killed any bodily injury that is known to the offender to be likely to cause death, and is reckless whether death ensues or not:
(c) If the offender means to cause death, or, being so reckless as aforesaid, means to cause such bodily injury as aforesaid to one person, and by accident or mistake kills another person, though he does not mean to hurt the person killed:
(d) If the offender for any unlawful object does an act that he knows to be likely to cause death, and thereby kills any person, though he may have desired that his object should be effected without hurting any one.

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17
Q

Define s168 in relation to the further definition of murder?

A

(1) Culpable homicide is also murder in each of the following cases, whether the offender means or does not mean death to ensue, or knows or does not know that death is likely to ensue:
(a) If he means to cause grievous bodily injury for the purpose of facilitating the commission of any of the offences mentioned in subsection (2) of this section, or facilitating the flight or avoiding the detection of the offender upon the commission or attempted commission thereof, or for the purpose of resisting lawful apprehension in respect of any offence whatsoever, and death ensues from such injury:
(b) If he administers any stupefying or overpowering thing for any of the purposes aforesaid, and death ensues from the effects thereof:
(c) If he by any means wilfully stops the breath of any person for any of the purposes aforesaid, and death ensues from such stopping of breath.

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18
Q

What was the ruling in R v HARNEY?

A

“[Recklessness involves] foresight of dangerous consequences that could well happen, together with an intention to continue the course of conduct regardless of the risk.”

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19
Q

What is outlined in s66(2)?

A

66(2) Where 2 or more persons form a common intention to prosecute any unlawful purpose, and to assist each other therein, each of them is a party to every offence committed by any one of them in the prosecution of the common purpose if the commission of that offence was known to be a probable consequence of the prosecution of the common purpose.

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20
Q

What does “grievous bodily injury” mean and give an example?

A

“Grievous bodily injury” means harm that is very serious, such as injury to a vital organ. To come within subsection (1)(c), the stopping of the victim’s breath must be done “wilfully”.

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21
Q

Define attempts under s72(1)?

A

72(1) Every one who, having an intent to commit an offence, does or omits an act for the purpose of accomplishing his object, is guilty of an attempt to commit the offence intended, whether in the circumstances it was possible to commit the offence or not.

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22
Q

What was held in R v MURPHY in relation to what intent must be established?

A

R v Murphy
When proving an attempt to commit an offence it must be shown that the accused’s intention was to commit the substantive offence. For example, in a case of attempted murder it is necessary for the Crown to establish an actual intent to kill.

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23
Q

What was held in R v HARPUR?

A

R v Harpur
[The Court may] have regard to the conduct viewed cumulatively up to the point when the conduct in question stops … the defendant’s conduct [may] be considered in its entirety. Considering how much remains to be done … is always relevant, though not determinative.

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24
Q

In the Test for Proximity, Simester and Brookbanks (Principles of Criminal Law, 3rd, 224) suggests what questions should be asked in determining the point at which an act of mere preparation may become an attempt?

A
  • Has the offender done anything more than getting himself into a position from which he could embark on an actual attempt? or
  • Has the offender actually commenced execution; that is to say, has he taken a step in the actual offence itself?
    If the answer to either question is “yes” then we can say there has been an attempt as a matter of law. If not, the conduct can be classed as preparation and is not an offence.
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25
Q

The test for proximity is a question of law that who decides?

A

Proximity is a question of law; it is a question that is decided by the judge based on the assumption that the facts of the case are proved.

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26
Q

What is the punishment for attempted murder under s173?

A

Every one who attempts to commit murder is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 14 years.

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27
Q

What are 3 differences between s174 - Counselling or attempting to procure murder and s175 - Conspiracy to Murder?

A
  • Section 174 applies where murder is not in fact committed
  • Section 175 may apply regardless of whether murder is committed or not
  • Section 175 can include the death of another outside New Zealand (if it would amount to murder in NZ)
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28
Q

What was held in R v MANE?

A

R v Mane
For a person to be an accessory the offence must be complete at the time of the criminal involvement. ..One cannot be convicted of being an accessory after the fact of murder when the actus reus of the alleged criminal conduct was wholly completed before the offence of homicide was completed.

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29
Q

Define voluntary manslaughter?

A

Mitigating circumstances, such as a suicide pact, reduce what would otherwise be murder to manslaughter, even though the defendant may have intended to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

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30
Q

Define involuntary manslaughter?

A

Covers those types of unlawful killing in which death is caused by criminal negligence. In such cases there has been no intention to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

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31
Q

When you come across a killing that is the result of a sudden fight, it is crucial for you to consider what issues if you are to decide the way in which the killing should be viewed?

A

If the homicide can be justified as having arisen out of self-defence (s48) the proper verdict is an acquittal
- If the fact there was a fight negates that the defendant had the required mens rea to bring a charge of murder within section 167, the proper verdict is manslaughter.

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32
Q

Before a conviction can be obtained for manslaughter where one of the sections referred to in s150A(1) the prosecution must prove what?

A

A“very high degree” of negligence or “gross negligence”.

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33
Q

Infanticide is the third major charge in relation to culpable homicide. Provisions for this offence are set out in s178(1) which states what?

A

(1) Where a woman causes the death of any child of hers under the age of 10 years in a manner that amounts to culpable homicide, and where at the time of the offence the balance of her mind was disturbed, by reason of her not having fully recovered from the effect of giving birth to that or any other child, or by reason of the effect of lactation, or by reason of any disorder consequent upon childbirth or lactation, to such an extent that she should not be held fully responsible, she is guilty of infanticide, and not of murder or manslaughter, and is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years.

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34
Q

Under s178, infanticide occurs when a woman causes the death of a child of hers, under what age?

A

10 years of age

35
Q

Whose job is it to decide on the mother’s state of mind in charges of Infanticide?

A

In charges of infanticide, it is for the jury to decide on the mother’s state of mind.

36
Q

Outline the provisions of s152 - duties of a parent or guardian?

A

(1) Every one who is a parent, or is a person in place of a parent, who has actual care or charge of a child under the age of 18 years is under a legal duty—
(a) to provide that child with necessaries; and
(b) to take reasonable steps to protect that child from injury

37
Q

Under s153 the employer must provide food and necessaries to whom?

A

For any servant or apprentice under the age of 16 years to whom they have contracted to provide necessary food, clothing or lodging to.

38
Q

Under s156 - a person who is in charge of dangerous things, what does the term ‘anything whatever’ encompass?

A

The term anything whatever is extremely wide. It includes things such as motor vehicles, trains, animals, ships, weapons, machinery and explosives.
The term has even been held to include the machinery inside a mussel factory.
Things such as scaffolding that collapses due to faulty erection and inspection, unfenced holes or other industrial type incident may fall within this section depending on the circumstances.

39
Q

Outline the provisions of s164 in regards to acceleration of death?

A

Every one who by any act or omission causes the death of another person kills that person, although the effect of the bodily injury caused to that person was merely to hasten his death while labouring under some disorder or disease arising from some other cause.

40
Q

(a) What was held in R v BLAUE in relation to preventable death?
(b) What does liability depend on and give an example?

A

(a) R v Blaue
Those who use violence must take their victims as they find them.
(b) Liability depends on the mens rea not on the victim’s subsequent actions. For example a victim who is a Jehovah’s witness who has been stabbed but refuses to accept a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs and goes on to die.

41
Q

What is a person liable for under s180(1) involving suicide pacts?

A

Everyone who in pursuance of a suicide pact kills any other person is guilty of manslaughter and not of murder, and is liable accordingly

42
Q

What does s180(2) state in regards to suicide pact?

A

Where 2 or more persons enter into a suicide pact, and in pursuance of it one or more of them kills himself, any survivor is guilty of being a party to a death under a suicide pact contrary to this subsection and is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years; but he shall not be convicted of an offence against section 179 of this Act.

43
Q

Where two parties enter into a suicide pact to shoot each other; what is the liability of the survivor?

A

Guilty of manslaughter

44
Q

Under s18(1) EA06 define the general admissibility of a hearsay statement?

A

A hearsay statement is admissible in any proceeding if—

(a) the circumstances relating to the statement provide reasonable assurance that the statement is reliable; and
(b) either—
(i) the maker of the statement is unavailable as a witness; or
(ii) the Judge considers that undue expense or delay would be caused if the maker of the statement were required to be a witness.

45
Q

A statement taken from a person who is dangerously ill can be presented as evidence to court if what?

A

They are dead at the time of the hearing and reasonable assurance of the statement’s reliability can be shown.

46
Q

Define the following terms:

(a) Justified

(b) Protected from criminal responsibility

A

(a) Justified - In relation to any person, “justified” means that the person is not guilty of an offence and is not liable civilly.
(b) Protected from criminal responsibility - “Protected from criminal responsibility” means the person is not guilty of an offence but civil liability may still arise.

47
Q

Define defences for children under s21(1)?

A

(1) No person shall be convicted of an offence by reason of any act done or omitted by him when under the age of 10 years.

48
Q

Define defences for children under s22(1)?

A

(1) No person shall be convicted of an offence by reason of any act done or omitted by him when of the age of 10 but under the age of 14 years, unless he knew either that the act or omission was wrong or that it was contrary to law.

49
Q

A 13-year-old charged with murder, having been the subject of a committal hearing in the Youth Court, will be remanded to appear next in which court to have the matter heard?

A

Charges of murder and manslaughter will be heard in the High Court following the committal process in the Youth Court.

50
Q

What was held in R V CLANCY in relation to the best evidence concerning proof of age?

A

R v Clancy
“The best evidence as to the date and place of a child’s birth will normally be provided by a person attending at the birth or the child’s mother … Production of the birth certificate, if available, may have added to the evidence but was not essential.”

51
Q

What is the general rule around referring child offenders?

A

As a general rule, all child offenders will be referred to the Care and Protection coordinator until they reach the age of 14 years.

52
Q

What is defined under s23(2)(a) and (b) in relation to insanity?

A

(2) No person shall be convicted of an offence by reason of an act done or omitted by him when labouring under natural imbecility or disease of the mind to such an extent as to render him incapable—
(a) Of understanding the nature and quality of the act or omission; or
(b) Of knowing that the act or omission was morally wrong, having regard to the commonly accepted standards of right and wrong.

53
Q

What is the burden of proof for insanity? R v COTTLE

A

R v Cottle - As to degree of proof, it is sufficient if the plea is established to the satisfaction of the jury on a preponderance of probabilities without necessarily excluding all reasonable doubt

54
Q

What are the M’Naghten’s Rules?

A

The M’Naghten’s rules (or test) is frequently used to establish whether or not a defendant is insane. It is based on the person’s ability to think rationally, so that if a person is insane they were acting under such a defect of reason from a disease of the mind that they did not know:

  • the nature and quality of their actions, or
  • that what they were doing was wrong.
55
Q

What does R V CODERE state in relation to the “nature and quality” of the act?

A

R v Codere
The nature and quality of the act means the physical character of the act. The phrase does not involve any consideration of the accused’s moral perception nor his knowledge of the moral quality of the act. Thus a person who is so deluded that he cuts a woman’s throat believing that he is cutting a loaf of bread would not know the nature and quality of his act

56
Q

How is Automatism defined under R v COTTLE?

A

R v Cottle:
Doing something without knowledge of it and without memory afterwards of having done it -a temporary eclipse of consciousness that nevertheless leaves the person so affected able to exercise bodily movements.

57
Q

What was held in R v LIPMAN?

A

R v Lipman:
Where automatism is brought about by a voluntary intake of alcohol or drugs the Court may be reluctant to accept that the actions were involuntary or that the offender lacked intention.

58
Q

What are types of automatism?

A

Automatism may be quite different and distinct from insanity, although it may be due to a disease of the mind. Hence it is necessary to distinguish between:
Step: Sane automatism
Action: The result of somnambulism (sleepwalking), a blow to the head or the effects of drugs
Step: Insane automatism
Action: The result of a mental disease.
Both forms of automatism involve action without conscious volition.

59
Q

The general rule has been that intoxication may be a defence to the commission of an offence in what circumstances?

A
  • where the intoxication causes a disease of the mind so as to bring s23 (Insanity) of the Crimes Act 1961 into effect
    • if intent is required as an essential element of the offence and the drunkenness is such that the defence can plead a lack of intent to commit the offence
    • where the intoxication causes a state of automatism (complete acquittal).
60
Q

Section 25 outlines Ignorance of the law. What does this state, and who does it apply to?

A

25 Ignorance of law:
The fact that an offender is ignorant of the law is not an excuse for any offence committed by him. This ruling applies whether the offender is from this country or from overseas.

61
Q

Define the defence of Compulsion?

A

(1) Subject to the provisions of this section, a person who commits an offence under compulsion by threats of immediate death or grievous bodily harm from a person who is present when the offence is committed is protected from criminal responsibility if he believes that the threats will be carried out and if he is not a party to any association or conspiracy whereby he is subject to compulsion.

62
Q

Define Entrapment?

A

Entrapment occurs when an agent of an enforcement body deliberately causes a person to commit an offence, so that person can be prosecuted. It is not a substantive defence in the sense of providing a ground upon which the defendant is entitled to an acquittal. Of itself, entrapment does not necessarily give rise to an abuse of process….In New Zealand the courts have rejected entrapment as a defence per se, preferring instead to rely on the discretion of the trial judge to exclude evidence.

63
Q

What was held in R v LIU?

A

R v Liu:
However, if the entrapment is unfair, it may result in the court excluding the evidence, using its inherent jurisdiction to prevent an abuse of process ‘by the avoidance of unfairness’ …

64
Q

What is the subjective/objective test in relation to self defence?

A

Once the defendant has decided that use of force was required (a subjective view of the circumstances as the defendant believed them), Section 48 then introduces a test of reasonableness which involves an objective view as to the degree and manner of the force used.

65
Q

In self-defence, the degree of force permitted is tested initially under what subjective criteria?

A
  • What are the circumstances that the defendant genuinely believes exist (whether or not it is a mistaken belief)?
    • Do you accept that the defendant genuinely believes those facts?
    • Is the force used reasonable in the circumstances believed to exist?
66
Q

What is the definition of an “alibi”?

A

“An alibi is the plea in a criminal charge of having been elsewhere at the material time: the fact of being elsewhere” (Chambers 20th Century Dictionary).

67
Q

If a defendant intends to adduce evidence in support of an alibi, the defendant must give written notice to the prosecutor of the particulars of the alibi within what time frame?

A

An alibi defence requires written notice within 10 working days after an defendant has been given notice under section 20.

68
Q

Under s22 of the Criminal Disclosure Act 2008, the defendant must provide the prosecutor with the particulars of any alibi witness they intend to use in court. Written notice of an alibi is to be given by the defendant within 10 working days after the defendant is given notice under section 20. Section 20 requires the Court or Registrar to give the defendant written notice of the requirements of section 22 and 23 when?

A
  • if the defendant pleads not guilty, or

- if the defendant is a child or young person, when they make their first appearance in the Youth Court.

69
Q

If the defendant intends to call an expert witness during proceedings, they must disclose what to the prosecutor?

A
  • any brief of evidence to be given or any report provided by that witness, or
    • if that brief or any such report is not available, a summary of the evidence to be given and the conclusions of any report to be provided.
    • This information must be disclosed at least 10 working days before the date fixed for the defendants trial, or within any further time that the court may allow (s23(1)).
70
Q

What was held in R v COX regarding consent?

A

R v Cox:
Consent must be “full, voluntary, free and informed … freely and voluntarily given by a person in a position to form a rational judgment.”

71
Q

How do the NZ Courts deal with a defence of automatism arising out of taking alcohol or drugs?

A

In New Zealand, the courts are likely to steer a middle course, allowing a defence of automatism arising out of taking alcohol and drugs, to offences of basic intent only. They are likely to disallow the defence where the state of mind is obviously self-induced, the person is blameworthy, and the consequences could have been expected.

72
Q

What does R v Kamipeli state?

A

R v Kamipeli:
It does not have to be shown that the defendant was incapable of forming the mens rea, merely that, because of their drunken state, they did not have the proper state of mind to be guilty.

73
Q

List the ingredients of s48 Self Defence and defence of another?

A

48 Self-defence and defence of another
Every one is justified in using, in the defence of himself or another, such force as, in the circumstances as he believes them to be, it is reasonable to use.

74
Q

Discuss the caselaw around pre-emptive strike used during the course of self defence?

A

R v Ranger
“If this defendant did really think that the lives of herself and her son were in peril because of the deceased, enraged after the struggle, might attempt to shoot them with a rifle near at hand, then it would be going too far, we think, to say that the jury could not entertain a reasonable doubt as to whether a pre-emptive strike with a knife would be reasonable force in all the circumstances.”

75
Q

Provide 3 “Guidelines” in respect of consent?

A
  1. Everyone has a right to consent to a surgical operation.
    1. Everyone has a right to consent to the infliction of force not involving bodily harm.
    2. No one has a right to consent to their death or injury likely to cause death
76
Q

How is automatism defined?

A

Automatism can best be described as a state of total blackout, during which a person is not conscious of their actions and not in control of them

77
Q

How is the term “unlawful act” defined in section 2 of the Crimes Act 1961?

A

Unlawful Act – means a breach of any Act, regulation, rule, or bylaw.

78
Q

Why is attempted murder so hard to prove?

A

The requirement for “intent” in section 72(1) suggests that only an intention to commit the offence will be sufficient and that there cannot be an attempt where an offence is defined solely in terms of recklessness or negligence. Therefore, this requirement on the Crown means that attempted murder is one of the most difficult offences in the Crimes Act to prove beyond a reasonable doubt.

79
Q

What are the ingredients to s176 Accessory after the fact to murder?

A

176 Accessory after the fact to murder

Every one is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years who is an accessory after the fact to murder.

80
Q

How does s180(3) define a suicide pact?

A

180(3) For the purposes of this section the term suicide pact means a common agreement between 2 or more persons having for its object the death of all of them, whether or not each is to take his own life; but nothing done by a person who enters into a suicide pact shall be treated as done by him in pursuance of the pact unless it is done while he has the settled intention of dying in pursuance of the pact.

81
Q

Discuss the case of R v FOREST and FOREST and what does the case law state?

A

In R v Forrest & Forrest two men were charged with having sexual intercourse with a 14-year-old girl who had run away from Child Welfare custody. At trial the girl produced her birth certificate and gave evidence herself that she was the person named in the certificate. The men successfully appealed their convictions on the grounds that the Crown had not adequately proved the girl’s age.
R v Forrest and Forrest
“The best evidence possible in the circumstances should be adduced by the prosecution in proof of [the victim’s] age.”

82
Q

What does s154 state around abandoning a child?

A

154 Abandoning child under 6
Every one is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years who unlawfully abandons or exposes any child under the age of 6 years.

83
Q

What does s181 state around concealing the body of a dead child?

A

Every one is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years who disposes of the dead body of any child in any manner with intent to conceal the fact of its birth, whether the child died before, or during, or after birth.