homicide Flashcards

1
Q

S160(d) what are the elements that would make killing culpable
a) threats, fear of violence or deception
b) threats, violence or deception
c) fear of violence, compulsion or deception

A

a) threats, fear of violence or by deception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Under section 160(2)(a) the act must be unlawful. Describe what an unlawful act is in relation to this section and include relevant case law

A

Unlawful Act - a breach of any Act, regulation, rule or bylaw. The common law requires that the act must be one that is likely to do harm or is inherently ‘dangerous’ as well as being unlawful.

Case law: R v Myatt
before a breach of any Act, regulation or bylaw would be an unlawful act under 160 for the purposes of culpable homicide, ti must be an act likely to do harm to the deceased or to some class of person of whom he was one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain R v Tomars

A

Was culpable homicide caused by actions prompted by threats, fear of violence or deception.
Was the deceased threatened by fear or deceived? if so were the fear or deception the cause of the deceased to do the act that caused their death. Was the death the natural consequence of the Defs actions, one that could reasonable have been foreseen and did these foreseeable actions of the victim contribute in a way to their death?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can an organisation be charged with murder or manslaughter? explain your answer and refer to relevant case law

A

An organisation can be convicted as a Party to the offence of Manslaughter but can not be convicted on Murder, because it carries a mandatory life sentence.

Case law : Murray Wright Ltd
Because the killing must be done by a human being, an organisation cannot be convicted as the principle offender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What of the following would be an eg of culpable homicide caused by the actions of the victim.
a) jumps or falls out of window and dies because they think they were
going to be assaulted
b) jumps into a river to escape an attack and drowns
c) runs to a car and drives 100m down the road and has a head on
collision with a truck
d) has been assaulted and believes there life is in danger, jumps from a
train and is killed

A

a, b and d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

in relation to S163, killing by influence on the mind, what are the exceptions referred to in this section.

A

wilfully frightening a child under the age of 16 or a sick person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

To establish death you must prove 3 things.
That the death occurred, The deceased is identified as the person killed what is the 3rd

A

The killing is culpable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

some acts are justified even if they result in death. Give 2 examples of such acts

A

Homicide committed in self defence
Homicide committed to prevent suicide or commission of an offence which would likely to cause immediate and serious injury to the person or property of anyone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

John is playing a closely scored game a rugby. he decides to make a hard tackle on and opposition player which results in the player breaking his neck and dying.
Would John be charged with any offence, is so what and explain.

A

Normally you would not be charged with the killing of another player if they died from the injuries while playing rugby however you would be quilt of manslaughter if your actions were considered likely to cause serious injury, as you should have been aware of them at the time and not done it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Murder

A

If the offender means to cause the death of the person killed.

If the offender means to cause to the the person killed, any bodily injury that is known to the offender that it is likely to cause death and is reckless and to whether death ensues or not.

If the means to cause the death, or being reckless as aforesaid, means to cause such bodily injury as aforesaid to one person, and by accident/mistake kills another person, though he does not mean to hurt the killed person.

If the offender for any unlawful object does an act that he knows to be likely to cause death, and there-by kills any person, though he may have desired that is object should be effected without hurting anyone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If you are charging an offender with murder under 167 you must show the defendant?

A

Intended to cause death, or
knew that the death was likely to ensue, or
was reckless that the death would ensue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

R v Cameron, explain (recklessness)

A

Recklessness is established if,
a)the Def recognised there was a real possibility that

i) his/her action could bring about the proscribed results and or
ii) the proscribed circumstances existed and

b) having regard to that risk those actions were unreasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To show the defendant state of mind meets the provision of 167(b) you must establish that the Def

A

*Intended to cause death deceased
*knew that death was likey to ensue, or
*was reckless as to whether death ensue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain R v Piri
(Recklessness)

A

Recklessness involves a conscious and deliberate risk taking. The degree of risk of death foreseen by the accused under =either 167(b) or (d) must be more that negligible or remote.
The accused must recognise a “real and substantial risk” that death would be caused.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in relation to 167(d) the object must be unlawful. Explain using relevant case law what is required to prove to satisfy this element.

A

R v Desmond
Not only must the object be unlawful, but also the accused must know that his act is likely to cause the death. It must be shown that his knowledge accompanied the act causing the death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the definition of Attempts under S72(1)

A

Everyone who, having an intent to commit and offence, does or omits an at for the purpose of accomplishing his object, is guilty of an attempt to commit the offence intended, whether the circumstances it was possible to commit the offence or not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Proximity is a question of law decided by who?
a) the Judge
b) the Jury

A

a) the Judge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define voluntary manslaughter

A

Mitigating circumstances, such as a suicide pact, reduce what would otherwise be murder to manslaughter even though the Def may have intended to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 people get into a sudden fight and one person dies from the injuries received. What statement is correct in relation to the offences the survivor is liable for?

a) if the homicide can be justified as having arisen out of self defence the proper verdict is manslaughter

b) if that fact that there was a fight negates that the defendant had the required mens rea to bring a charge of murder withing section 167, the proper verdict is manslaughter.

c) If there the fact that there was a fight negates that the Def had the required mens rea to bring a charge of murder within section 167, the proper verdict is acquittal.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When death occurs during a lawful game or contest, such as a hockey match, how is the death treated?

A

Its is treated as a non culpable homicide unless the Def’s actions were likely to cause serious injury, in which case the Def is guilty of manslaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define Infanticide

A

where a woman causes the death of any child of hers under the age of 10 in a manner that amounts to culpable homicide and where at the time of the offence the balance of her mind was disturbed, by reason of not having fully recovered from the effect of giving birth to that or of any child or by reason of the effect of lactation or by reason of any disorder consequent upon childbirth or lactation, to such and extent that she should not be held fully responsible, she is guilty of infanticide and not of murder or manslaughter and is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define involuntary manslaughter.

A

Covers tohose types of unlawful killings where death is caused by criminal negligence, in such cases that has been no intention to kill or cause GHB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when considering what charge to press in a case where someone has been killed in a sudden fight, what issues do you need to cover

A

you need to consider whether there was
- self defence
- the requisite mens rea for a murder/manslaughter charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the definition of a parent in relation to section 152
a) a parent or guardian who has legal custody of the child
b) a parent or a person in place of a parent who has actual care or charge of a child
c) A parent or guardian who has actual care or charge of the child

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define S181, concealing dead body of a child.

A

Everyone is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years who disposes of the dead body of any child in any manner with intent to conceal the fact of its birth, whether the child died before, during or after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

John and Eddie decide to kill themselves together by self administering a cocktail of drugs. Eddie dies but John survives. Explain if John is liable if any?

A

John is guilty to being a party to a death under a suicide pact, and is liable to a term of imprisonment not exceeding 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For a statement to be considered admissible under S18(1) of the EA06, you must consider what circumstances under S16(1)

A

circumstances to consider are
* the nature of the statement
* the contents of the statement
* the circumstances relating to the making of the statement
* circumstances relating to the veracity of the person making that statement
* circumstances relating to the accuracy of the observation of the person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Defences for children are set out in s21 and s22. What are these and explain what is required for a person between 10-13 to be held criminally liable.

A

s21- children under 10 can not be convicted of any offence

s22 children when at the age of 10 but under 14 can not be charged with an offence unless they knew either that the act/omission was wrong or that it was contrary to law.

There has to be a test of knowledge in addition to mens rea and actu reus requirements. if knowledge can not be shown the can not be criminally liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

where a child aged 10-13 has committed murder/manslaughter they are usually dealt with in the Youth Justice provisions. What court does the child first appear and where does it transfer?

a) Youth court - high court
b) family court - high court
c) District court - high court

A

A

30
Q

Which of these statements are correct
A. Disease of the mind includes a temporary mental disorder, such as sleepwalking, a blow to the head or the effects of drugs

B. a disease of the mind does NOT include a temporary mental disorder caused by some other factor external to the defendant, such as a blow to the head, the absorption or drugs or alcohol, or an anaesthetic or hypnotism

A

B

31
Q

what is a strict liability offence

A

Any offence that does not require an intent, they only way the def can escape liability for an offence is to prove total absence of fault.

32
Q

What is the view on entrapment as a defence in NZ

A

NZ courts have rejected entrapment as a defence, preferring instead to rely on the discretion of the trial judge to exclude evidence that would operated unfairly against the defendant.

33
Q

Can Intoxication be available as a defence to any crime

A

Yes, Intoxication can be use as a defence in NZ to any crime that requires intent.
If someone formed an intent to commit a crime they took alcohol/drugs as part of the method for committing the crime, will DISQUALIFY a defence of drunkenness or automatism

34
Q

describe the subjective/objective test in relation to use of force under S48.

A

Once the defendant has decided that the use of force was required (subjective- the circumstances as the Def believed in) S 48 then introduces a test of reasonableness which involves an objective view as to the degree and manner of force used.

35
Q

define alibi

A

the pleas in a criminal charge of having been elsewhere at the material time:the fact of being elsewhere.

36
Q

What is the length of time that a defendant must give notice of particulars of an alibi?
A. 21 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days

A

B. The notice must be given within 10 working days after the Defendant is given notice under S20 (written notice of requirements)

37
Q

Police v Lavelle (entrapment)

A

it is permissible for undercover officers to merely provide the opportunity for someone who is ready and willing to offended, as long as the officers did not initiate the persons interest or willingness to do so.

38
Q

R v Blaue

A

those who use violence must take there victims as they find them

39
Q

define Automatism

A

a state of total blackout, during which a person is not conscious of there actions and not in control of them.

40
Q

R v Cottle (automatism)

A

Doing something without knowledge of it and without memory afterwards of having done it - a temporary eclipses of consciousness that leaves the person affected able to exercise bodily movements

41
Q

R v Murphy (attempt)

A

When proving an attempt to commit an offence it must be shown that the accused’s intention was to commit the substantive offence. For example, in case of attempted murder it is necessary for the Crown to establish an actual intent to kill.

42
Q

R v Desmond

A

Not only must the object be unlawful, but also the accused must know that his act is likely to cause death. It must be shown that his knowledge accompanied the act causing death.

43
Q

R v Mane

A

for a person to be an accessory, the offence must be completed at the time of the criminal involvement. One can not be convicted of being an accessory after the fact of murder before the offence of homicide was completed.

44
Q

M’Naughten Rules

A

It is based on a persons ability to think rationally, so that if a person is insane they were acting under such a defect of reason from a disease of the mind that the did not know
- the nature and quality of there actions, or
- that what they were doing was wrong.

45
Q

R v Joyce

A

The court of Appeal decided that the compulsion must be made by a person who is present when the offence is committed.

46
Q

Section 168 (1)(a) of the Crimes Act refers to the term “ grevious Bodily Injury” what does this mean and give an example.

A

GBI means harm that is very serious, such as an injury to a vital organ

47
Q

give an example of when murder might be reduced to manslaughter

A

mitigating circumstances, such as a suicide pact, reduce what would otherwise be murder to manslaughter, even though the accused my have intended to kill or cause GBH

48
Q

Explain what is meant by section 160(2)(b) - omission to perform a legal duty.

A

this covers a cases where nothing is done when there is a legal duty to act, and in certain cases of positive conduct accompanied by a failure to discharge a legal duty, in a particular a duty of care.

49
Q

How do NZ courts deal with a defence of Automatism arising out of taking alcohol and /drugs

A

In NZ courts are likely to steer a middle course, allowing a defence of automatism arising out of taking drugs/alcohol to offences of basic intent only. They are likely to disallow the defence where state of mind is obviously self induced, the person is blameworthy and the consequences could have been expected.

50
Q

define the term ‘Suicide pact’ 180(3) CA61

A

means a common agreement between 2 or more persons having for its object the death of all of them, weather or not each is to take his own life, but nothing done by a person who enters into a suicide pact shall be treated as done by him in pursuant of the pact unless it is done while he has the settled intention of dying in pursuance to the pact.

51
Q

list the ingredients of section 48 - self defence or defence of another.

A

everyone is justified in using, in the defence of himself or another, such force as in the circumstances he believes them to be, it is reasonable to use.

52
Q

explain entrapment

A

entrapment occurs when an agent of an enforcement body deliberately causes a person to commit an offence, so that person can be prosecuted.

53
Q

outline S163 CA61 - influence of the mind

A

no one is criminally responsible for the killing of another by an influence of the mind alone, except by wilfully frightening a child under 16 or a sick person, nor for the killing of another by any disorder or disease arising from such influence except by wilfully frightening…

54
Q

R v Cox

A

consent must be full, voluntary free and informed, freely and voluntarily given by a person in a position to form a rational judgement

55
Q

as a general guideline, most offences within the CA will require intent (mens rea) of some kind. Outline a defence that would therefore be generally available

A

The defence of intoxication will be available to the defence to establish that the defendant did not have the required intent to carry out the offence.

56
Q

what is the test for proximity, what are the questions that should be asked in determining at which point an act or mere preparation may become an attempt?

A

Has the offender done anything more than getting himself into a position from which he could embark on an actual attempt

Has the offender actually commenced execution, has taken a step in the actual offence itself

57
Q

for infanticide who unltimately decised what the womans mental state was

A

the jury

58
Q

list 4 statutory legal duties in respect of the crimes act

A
  1. provide the necessaries and protect from injury
  2. provide necessaries and protect from injury to your charges when a parent ot guardian
  3. provide neccessaries as an employer
  4. take precaution when in charge of dangerous things such as machinery
  5. use reasonable knowledge and skill when performing dangerous acts, such as surgery
59
Q

proximity is a question of law decided on by who?

A

the judge, based of the assumption the facts of the case are proved

60
Q

what is sane and insane automitism

A

sane - temporary effects of the mind suchj as epiliepse, sleepwalking or from the effects of drugs

Insane- the result of a mental disease.

61
Q

what is the key difference between murder and manslaughter

A

the difference depends on the mental element that must be proved to suport the charge.

62
Q

what is the procedure when alibi witnesses are interviewed

A
  1. advise the defence counsel of the proposed interview and give reasonable oppertunity to be present
  2. if the defendant id not represented, endeavour to ensure the witness is interviewed in the presence of some independant person, not police.
  3. make a copy of the witnesses signed statement and make avaiabale to the defence cousel through the prosecuter. Any info that refelects the credibitly of the alibi witness can be withheld.
63
Q

what informationof an alibi witness must be given

A

name and address

64
Q

expert evidence, the defendant intended to call an expert witness how many days before the date fixed for the defendants trial must it be disclosed?
a. 14
b. 10
c. 7

A

B. 10

65
Q

R v Codere (nature and quality of the act)

A

provides a sussinct definition of what consitutes the nature an quality of the act.

66
Q

Define an omission to perform a legal duty

A

culpabale homicide included death caused by an omission, without lawful excuse to perform or observe a leagal duty.
this covers cases where nothing is done where there is a leagal duty to act. sometimes both an omission and an unlafwul act are applicable to the same act.

67
Q

can you consent to death for offence 158-178?

A

no you can not consent to death for any of these offence,

however if you enter into a suicide pact there is an element of consent as everyone is in agreement to the death of them all.

68
Q

when is pre emptive strike admissabe as a defence

A

it is possible for self defence to be raised as a defence , even if the defendant has used a preemptive strike.
if she genuinely belived she was going to be killed, the jury could agree that a preemptive strike was reasonable to use in the circumstances

69
Q

ignorance of law

A

the fact an offender is
ignorant of law is not an excuse for any offence commited by them

70
Q

what are 3 guidelines to consent regarding assault

A
  1. everyone has the right to consent to surgical operation
  2. everyone has the right to consent to the infliction of force not involving bodily harm
  3. no one has the right to consent to death or injury likely to cause death
71
Q

R v Horry
where there is no body found

A

Death should be provable by such circumstances rendering it morally certain and leave no ground for reasonable doubt.

there is no other rational hypothesis other than muder