Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HMC Study > HMC 2015 exam > Flashcards

HMC 2015 exam Flashcards

1
Q

Commanders will ensure what report on any suspected or confirmed malaria case is sent out as soon as possible to all required addresses whenever a malaria threat exists?

A

Disease Alert Report (DAR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Individuals who were treated for malaria in the past must wait how long from the date treatment was finished until they are eligible to donate blood?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Individuals who visited a malaria-risk area and remained asymptomatic, but were not required to take chemoprophylaxis because of negligible risk of exposure, must wait how long until they are eligible to donate blood?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Any person who is deficient in what has a risk of hemolysis associated with taking primaquine for chemoprophylaxis or treatment?

A

G6 PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Report suspected or confirmed malaria cases in a DAR via what precedence message?

A

Priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Measures consist of effective mosquito control programs of what type?

A

Anopheles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Traditionally, malaria chemoprophylaxis has been effectively accomplished with use of chloroquine and primaquine, however, in the past several years, resistance to what has been demonstrated among malaria parasites in certain areas of the world into which Navy and Marine Corps personnel deploy or live?

A

Chloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Because malaria, in particular what type of malaria, can progress into a rapidly fatal course, the most important aspect of malaria treatment is suspecting this disease in the differential diagnosis of the patient and beginning immediate treatment?

A

Plasmodium Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long is the waiting time to achieve desired FAC

A

30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the rules for super chlorination

A

100 PPM for four hours at which time the FAC can not drop below 50 PPM. If it does drop below 50 PPM super chlorination must be repeated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how often do you test water in the field

A

daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how often is bacteriological testing done

A

weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how often should temperature reading in refrigerators In the field be taken

A

at least 3 times during meal periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how often should refrigerator spaces be emptied and cleaned

A

weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how long are fruits and vegetable

A

100ppm for 15 mins or 50ppm for 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Out of the Five field dishwashing Metal GI cans (approx 32 gallons) which of those contain brushes

A

GI Vat CANS 2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #1?

A

collecting garbage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #2?

A

prewash and will contain a hot detergent solution and a brush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parenteral chloroquine hydrochloride, quinidine gluconate, and quinine dihydrochloride can be used in the treatment of severe cases of malaria where the patient is exhibiting signs of central nervous system involvement, has a very high and life-threatening parasitemia, or cannot take what type of drugs?

A

Oral drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a comprehensive hardcover textbook of clinical tropical medicine?

A

Hunter’s Tropical Medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who conducts tropical medicine research and can provide information on the epidemiology of malaria, antimalarial drug resistance, and mosquito vectors within their countries or geographic areas of research?

A

Naval Medical Research Units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #3?

A

washing and will contain a hot detergent solution and a brush.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #4?

A

rinsing and will contain clean hot water held at a rolling boil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #5?

A

final sanitizing rinse and will contain clean hot water held at a rolling boil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how long are MRE’s good for

A

48 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how high can MRE’s be stacked

A

not more than 3 pallets high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the definition of rubbish

A

boxes, paper, plastics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Minimum distance waste must be from water

A

100 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Minimum distance waste must be from the mess hall

A

100 yards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Minimum distance waste must be from berthing

A

50 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how many people will a saddle trench serve

A

25 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how many deep pit latrines are needed per 50 people

A

1 deep pit latrine that seats 4 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when do you burn out the wastes in a burn barrel latrine

A

when it is 1/3 to 2/3 full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how many tubes are used for a urine

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how many people will one pipe accommodate in a urine soakage pit

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how many men will a urine trough serve

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how many people will a soakage pit serve

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

for a garbage disposal pit how large and how many people does it serve

A

4 sq feet and 4 feet deep and serves 100 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how long does acclimization take

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the optimum temperature for drinking water

A

50 to 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

when does immersion foot occur?

A

Trench foot occurs when feet are cold and damp while wearing constricting footwear. Unlike frostbite, trench foot does not require freezing temperatures and can occur in temperatures below 50 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Within the DoD, who is eligible for TRICARE?

A

Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service, and the Commissioned Corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When can family members of the National Guard or Reserve Member become eligible for TRICARE?

A

When called to active duty for more than 30 consecutive days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If you are an active duty service member, what are your program options?

A

Prime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If you are an active duty service member who lives and works more than 50 miles or an hour’s drive from an MTF, what are your program options?

A

Prime Remote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If you are an active duty family member, what are your program options?

A

Prime
Standard
Extra
US Family Health Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If you are an active duty family member with an active duty service member who lives and works more than 50 miles or an hour’s drive drive from MTF, what are your program options?

A

Prime Remote for Active Duty family members
Standard
Extra
US Family Health Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If you are a retiree and have eligible family members who are not eligible for Medicare, what are your program options?

A

Prime
Standard
Extra
US Family Health Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If you are a Medicare-eligible beneficiary under age 65, what your program options?

A

Prime
For Life
US Family Health Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If you are a Medicare- eligible beneficiary age 65 or over, what are your program options?

A

For Life

US Family Health Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If you are a Congressional Medal of Honor recipient or recipient’s family member , or a certain former spouse of an active or retired service member, what are your program options?

A 
Prime
Standard
Extra
For Life
US Family Health Plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Tricare Prime Split Enrollment?

A

Allows families living in separate Tricare regions to enroll in Tricare Prime together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the Tricare Prime Access Standards?

A
  1. The wait time for an urgent care appointment will not exceed 24 hours
  2. The wait time for a routine appointment will not exceed one week
  3. The wait time for a specialty care appointment or wellness visit will not exceed four weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where is Tricare Extra not available?

A

Overseas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Tricare for Life?

A

Offers Medicare-wraparound coverage to Tricare beneficiaries regardless of age, provided that are entitled to Medicare Part A and also have Medicare Part B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In what ways can enrollment in Tricare be achieved?

A

Mail or a Tricare Service Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Who is required to pay an annual enrollment fee?

A

Retired service members and their families
Eligible former spouses
Medal of Honor recipients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Who administers Tricare For Life?

A

Wisconsin Physicians Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which two program options do not have an enrollment process?

A

Standard and Extra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does the catastrophic cap do?

A

It limits the out-of-pocket expenses on annual deductibles, cost shares, and other costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

At an MTF, how much medication supply can be filled if the medication is on the MTF formulary?

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How may refills through the Mail Order Pharmacy be order?

A

Mail, phone, or online

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How long does it take for medications to be delivered after receiving the prescription via the mail order pharmacy?

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the Tricare Extended Care Health Option

A

It provides financial assistance to active duty family members who qualify based on specific mental or physical disabilities, and offers an integrated set of services, and supplies not available through the basic Tricare program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the Transitional Assistance Management Program?

A

It provides 180 days of transitional health benefits after leaving active duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is Tricare Reserve Select?

A

Is a premium based health plan that National Guard and Reserve members who qualify may purchase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the Tricare regions?

A

North, South, West

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is a cost-share?

A

he maximum out of pocket expenses for which Tricare beneficiaries will pay for inpatient and outpatient care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q 
HR colors
0 - O
1 - G
2 - Y
3 - G
4 - T
5 - B
6 - W
7 - B
8 - P
9 - R
A

Oh God you got that big whale barbara pregnant retard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the NAVMED 1300/1

A

Overseas Screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the NAVMED 6150/7

A

Health Record Receipt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the NAVMED 6600/3

A

Dental Health Questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the NAVMED 6630/2

A

Precious Metals Issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the NAVMED 6630/3

A

Precious Metals Inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the NAVMED 6710/6

A

Poly prescription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the EZ 603

A

Dental Exam Form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the EZ 603A

A

Dental Exam Continuation Form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the SF 522

A

REQUEST FOR ANESTHESIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the SF 515

A

TISSUE EXAMINATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the DD 1289

A

Prescription Pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is contained in MANMED P117 CHAPTER 23

A

REPORTS & FORMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is contained in MANMED P117 CHAPTER 21

A

PHARMACY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is contained in MANMED P117 CHAPTER 6

A

DENTAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Nerve agents include the following:

A

Tabun (GA ), Sarin (GB), Soman (GD), GF, and VX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Nerve agents are potent what?

And smell like what

A

Organophosphates which stimulate muscarinic and nicotinic stimulation.
Fruity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Symptoms of Nerve Agent Exposure:

A

Muscanaric and nicotinic overstimulation:

ABD pain, diarrhea, vomiting, excessive salivation, sweating, bronchospasms, copious bronchial secretions, muscle fasciculations, weakness and respiratory distress. Seizures, tachycardia or bradycardia may be present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

One of the most important treatments in nerve gas exposure is…

A

to remove the patient from the source of the

exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which vesicant has a garlic odor?

A

Mustard gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Cyanides include the following:

A

Hydrogen Cyanide AC and

Cyanogen chloride CK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Pulmonary Agents

A

Phosgene CG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

List the Riot Control Agents

A

CN -Mace,

CS and

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

which blood agent Smells like bitter almonds

A

AC Cyanogen Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the Blister aka vesicant agents?

A

vesicant, Mustard Gas-HD, Nitrogen Mustard-HN, Lewisite-L, Phosgene- CX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

A latent period without symptoms is the hallmark of exposure to what type of agent.

A

Mustard Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Name a pulmonary irritant that can produce pulmonary edema when inhaled.

A

Phosgene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The cyanide antidote kit includes what?

A

amyl nitrite, sodium

thiosulfate and sodium nitrite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Blood agent is a…? And what is the treatment?

A

Systemic Poison AC, CK. Treatments include amyl nitrate ampules under gas mask, and sodium thiosulfate IV 100-200mg/kg of body weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is AC and what does it smell like?

A

Cyanogen and it smells like Almonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is CK and what does it smell like?

A

Hydrocyanic Acid and it is an irritating odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What does CG smell like?

A

Phosgene- smells like New mown grass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is DP and what does it smell like?

A

diphosgene smells like new mown grass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

NAVMED P-5041

A

Treatment of chemical agents casualties and convental military chemical injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Where should the location of the dump be?

A

75 yards (meters) downwind from the MTF and living quarters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Who advises the commander on the health of the command and the adequacy of internal FSSG HSS

A

Group surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which commanders are responsible for coordinating and integrating HSS within their area of operations

A

Marine Corps Forces (MARFOR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A MAW has how many Marine aircraft groups (MAGs)

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Each Surgical Company contains 60 beds and how many operating rooms?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A MAW has how many Marine aircraft groups (MAGs)?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The United States is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions of what
year and has directed its military forces to abide by its articles?

A

1949

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Temporary casualty holding facilities and services are used to hold
sick, wounded, and injured personnel for a limited time, usually not
to exceed what time frame?

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What provide rapid peacetime response teams of pre-identified medical department personnel trained to augment elements of the
operating forces?

A

MMARTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

The T-AH is designed to receive patients primarily by what means?

A

Helicopter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What FSSG is a supply operation directly responsible to the FSSG supply battalion commanding officer

A

Med Log Co, Supply Battalion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Fleet surgical teams (FSTs) are HSS augmentation teams assigned to the fleet CINCs. Combined, the Pacific and Atlantic fleets have how many teams that are considered the fleet CINC’s assets in both
peacetime and wartime?

A

Nine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

A unit’s what includes items necessary for basic support of the Organization?

A

Table of Equipment (T/E)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

ATF ships suitable for use as CRTSs are what classes

A

LHD, LHA, and LPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The total T/E and AMALs/ADALs are designed to support a MEF in an estimated worst case scenario for a period of combat of how long?

A

60-days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What have the largest medical capability of any amphibious ship in the ATF?

A

CRTSs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

HSS logistics is normally a Service responsibility. However, in
joint operations, what system may be designated to provide central
logistical support to all participating Services in the combatant
CINC’s area of responsibility?

A

Supplementary Integrated Medical Logistics Manager (SIMLM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The primary role of a beach evacuation station is to evacuate
assault force casualties to designated what?

A

CRTSs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

During the movement phase of amphibious operations, who has overall
responsibility for HSS services to embarked personnel?

A

Commander, Amphibious Task Force (CATF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Medical material and supplies are protected under the law of land
warfare and the what?

A

Geneva Conventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the BUMEDINST 6440.5C Health Services Augmentation Programs (HSAP) Purpose?

A

To issue policy and procedure guidelines for active duty Navy Medical Department personnel assigned to augment operational platforms and/or units during contingency or wartime situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

who Directs, coordinates, and monitors the execution of the HSAP.

A

Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

BUMED

A

Ensures coordination of official Navy message takers from higher authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Provides recommendation or nominations for commanding officers, executive officers, and command master chiefs for Navy medical platforms.

A

BUMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

BUMED

A

Provides input to N093 regarding augmentation platform personnel fill rates and training for the Joint Quarterly Readiness Report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

BUMED

A

Establishes guidelines for developing Deployment Support Centers (DSC) at sourcing commands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

NAVMED

A

Monitor capability of sourcing commands to meet augmentation requirements, gender ratio, and training status via Expeditionary Medicine Platform Augmentation Readiness and Training System (EMPARTS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Assist sourcing commands within their areas of responsibility (AOR) with filling platform assignments to the maximum extent possible and support BUMED in managing shortfalls and residual personnel.

A

NAVMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Employ global sourcing as a mitigating strategy within their perspective AOR to source shorfalls

A

NAVMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

NAVMED

A

Conduct quarterly readiness reviews using EMPARTS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Provide HSAP assists visits, technical guidance, and administrative support to activities within their AOR when requested.

A

NAVMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

NAVMED

A

Provide assistance, as needed, to soucing commands in establishing HSAP augments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Annually review the HSAP policy and procedures manuals.

A

NAVMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Commanding Officers of Sourcing Commands (COSC)

A

Appoint in writing, a command readiness officer (CRO) or plans, operations, and medical intelligence (POMI) officer to address operational readiness issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Command Readiness Officer (CRO )or POMI plans, operations, and medical intelligence officer.

A

Maintain knowledge of platform requirements as reflected in CUIC (component Unit Identification Code) billets and AMDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

CRO

A

Update EMPARTS to maintain readiness status of HSAP personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

CRO

A

Use the HSAP to ensure deployable personnel complete administrative requirements within 30 working days of reporting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

CRO

A

Conduct entry and exit interviews for staff personnel executing PCS orders and coordinate with contingency offices and military personnel (MILPERS) departments to ensure database files are correctly annotated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Assign all qualified residual personnel to vacant platform billets.

A

CRO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

CRO

A

Appoint in writing an operational support officer (OSO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Operational support officer (OSO)

A

Familiar with policies and procedures governing the HSAP, DSC, and local readiness programs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

OSO

A

Able to assume readiness officer or POMI officer functional responsibilities, including HSAP responsibilities for sourcing commands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Past deployment history

A

personnel will not deploy for a minimum of 6 months following the end of their last deployment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Deployment history

A

personnel will not deploy earlier than 6 months from their report date. personnel may participate in pre-deployment or inter-deployment training beginning 60 days after reporting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Navy Medical Personnel

A

complete administrative readiness requirements within 30 days of check-in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Navy Medical Personnel

A

Update and report results of delinquent administrative requirements to the POMI/OSO within 15 days of notification of change in A- or T- status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

CRO additional responsibilities

A

Establishes a DSC and develop a local policy and procedures manual implementation of DSC and execution of HSAP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Coordinates with manpower officer/staff to ensure appropriate CUIC billets

A

CRO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Manning priority is based on contingency support requirements in this order:

A

1.Marine Forces (MARFOR)
2.Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ship (CRTS)
3.Forward Deployment Preventive Medicine Unit (FDPMU)
4.Expeditionary Medical Facility
5.Construction Battalion Unit (CPU)
6/Hospital Ships (T-AH)
7.Outside Continental United States (OCONUS) MTF
8. Blood Processi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Marine Forces (MARFOR)

A

HSAP billets assigned to USMC units will be filled with qualified personnel up to staffing goal (minimum of 80 percent peacetime and 95 percent wartime)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ships

A

Medical platform of 84 personnel each that provide up to Level 2 HSS (health services support)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

In support of Naval Mobile Construction Battalions (NMCB) that provide up to Level 1 HSS. All Hospital Corpsman will be assigned NEC 8404 for assignment to NMCB.

A

Construction Battalion Units (CBU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

EMF

A

Provide Level 3 HSS

CO’s designated by BUMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

OCONUS MTF (USNAVHOSPs Yokosuka, okinawa, and Guam)

A

Provide up to Level 4 HSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Hospital Ships (T-AH)

A

Provide Level 3 HSS. Ships owned by Military Sealift Command (MSC) and operated by civilian mariners. T-AH MTF CO and XO are nominated by BUMED.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Forward Deployment Preventive Medicine Unit (FDPMU)

A

Provide task organized preventive medicine services beyond the organic capability of the supported force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Designated by the CO, Navy Environmental Health Center.

A

FDPMU OIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Blood Program Unit (BPU)

A

In support of Armed Services Whole Blood Processing Laboratory (ASWBPL) and Blood Donor Centers (BDCs) whose staff increases during contingencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Personnel Readiness

Personnel will report to gaining command with the following:

A
  • ID Tags
  • Armed Forces ID Cards (CAC)
  • DD 2766, Deployment Medical Records
  • Copy of NAVPERS 1070/604, Enlisted Qualifications History
  • NAVPERS 1070/602W, Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data Worksheet
  • SGLI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Combatant Commander (COCOM)

A

Responsible for travel and TAD expenses for the duration of the deployment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How many SORTS Categories are there?

A

5 C1-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

C1

A

Full wartime mission ready

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

C2

A

Capable of undertaking the bulk of its wartime mission, minor deficiencies reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

C3

A

Capable of undertaking a major portion of its wartime mission, major deficiencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

C4

A

Unit is unable to perform its wartime mission unless it it provided additional resources or training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

C5

A

Unit is not able to perform its wartime mission and it is not mission capable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

T-AH

A

Mercy Class Hospital Ships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Embarked Military Force

A

EMF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Routine Deployable

A

Two FDPMU maintain ready FDPMU status on a 6 month rotating basis. Ready to deploy within days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Surge Ready

A

Two FDPMU deployed within 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Two FDPMU deployed within 60 days of notification.

A

Emergency Surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

CRO (command readiness officer)

A

Officer identified by the command, generally from operations office, who is responsible for monitoring and advising the commander on operational readiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

EMPARTS (Expeditionary medicine platform augmentation, readiness, and training system)

A

Web-based automated information system used to track the readiness status of BSO 18 personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Operational Support Officer (OSO)

A

Formerly known as the Reserve Liaison Officer (RLO); coordinates Reserve utilization within sourcing command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

infectious waste also called

A

regulated medical waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

containers

A

lined with plastic bags, labeled or color coded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

anatomical pathology waste

A

double wall corrugated boxes or equivalent rigid container with double plastic bags

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

limited storage of non-pathological waste

A

7 days without refrigeration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

transportation infx waste

A

refer to federal, state and local laws, regulations and sofa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

treatment infx waste

A

destruction, incineration, inactivation by heat, chemicals or radiation without disintegration cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

sterilization infx waste

A

121 C (250 F) for at least 90 minutes, 15 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

approval infx waste

A

bureau of medicine and surgery (med-04) approval required before purchase/lease of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

pathological waste disposal

A

incineration/cremation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

microbiology waste disposal

A

sanitary landfill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

sharps waste disposal

A

steam sterilization/incineration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

bulk blood waste

A

sanitary sewer/landfill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

disinfecting spills

A

epa approved disinfectant or bleach diluted with 1:10 clear water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

federal regs

A

maintain shipping paperwork/manifests for 2 years after rmw was accepted by waste carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

pathological waste storage

A

refrigerated and kept frozen if more than 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

frozen storage of pathological waste

A

no more than 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

segregation

A

separating infectious waste from noninfectious wast at its point of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

sterilization testing

A

bacillus stearothermophilus spore strips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

sterilize infectious waste before

A

compacting or grinding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Adenovirus

A

1 dose, po.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

HBV(Hep B recombinant)

A

0,1,6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

JE Vaccine

A

0,7,30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Plague

A

3 doses, 1ml at 0, .2ml at 1-3 months after, .2ml 3-6 months after second dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Rabies

A

5 doses, 0,3,7,14,28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Typhoid (VICPS)

A

1 dose every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Varicella

A

2 doses 0 and 4-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Avoid pregnancy ____ months after varicella and ____ months after all other vaccines

A

1 month and three month

204
Q

Pneumococcal vaccine should be routinely given to personnel over age ____

A

65

205
Q

Anthrax

A

0,2 week,4 week, 6 month, 12 months, 18 months.

206
Q

Commanders, COs, and OICs ensure

A

all personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations

207
Q

Who is responsible to maintain international, federal, state, and local records of all required immunizations?

A

Commanders, COs, and OICs

208
Q

Who must be immediately available when immunizations are being given?

A

any person who is basic cpr certified

209
Q

If someone presents with a hypersensitivity to an immunization, what is done?

A

They are deferred, adn then referred to an allergy specialist.

210
Q

What does ACIP stand for?

A

U.S. Public Health Service Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices.

211
Q

Recruits receive what shots?

A
  • adenovirus types 4 and 7
  • influenza
  • mmr
  • meningococcal
  • oral polio virus
  • tentanus-diptheria
212
Q

When deploying or traveling to high risk areas personnel may receive?

A
  • JE vaccine
  • meningococcal
  • typhoid
213
Q

What precautions must a female take if she is given a live virus vaccine?

A

avoid becoming pregnant for 3 months

214
Q

What is VAERS?

A

Vaccine Adverse Reporting System

215
Q

What makes a reaction adverse?

A

Hospitalization is required or more than 24 hrs of duty is lost.

216
Q

Who grant immunization waivers for Navy and Marine Corps personnel?

A

Chief, BUMED

217
Q

Adenovirus types 4 and 7

A

administered orally and simultaneously on a one time basis to recruits

218
Q

When is the flu season?

A

October to March, in the Northern Hemisphere

219
Q

what prevention counseling is given

A

mosquito avoidance, personal protective measures and chemoprophylaxis

220
Q

During what period of duty must personnel have documentation of a TST?

A

Excess of 30 days when first entering duty.

221
Q

For periodic screenings, to whom screenings do NOT apply to?
A)Active Duty and Civil Service
B)Ready Reservists
C)Health Care Workers
D)Medical/Dental facility workers(not MEDICAL staff)

A

B) Ready Reservists

222
Q

Who can recommend annual screenings in certain high risk overseas duty

A

Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Unit

223
Q

For Triennial Screening, which personnel only need a screening every 3 years.

A

Active Duty and Reserve shore based personnel in the U.S. that are in low risk areas.

224
Q

During which appropriate times should periodic testing be done?

A

1) Physical Exams
2) Receipt of PCS orders
3) Review of medical records
4) Reporting for A.D. training

225
Q

Within how long should a TST be done before separation?

A

Within 1 year period before separation.

226
Q

When entering/separating from Naval Service, when should a chest x-ray be done for TB screening?

A

When diagnosis or evaluation of suspected TB.

227
Q 
When are chest x-rays indicated?
A)Newly identified TB reactor
B)Active disease is suspected
C)Previous TB reactor with known contact with disease
D)All of the above
A

D)All of the above

228
Q

What is the preferred method or test for a PPD injection?

A

Mantoux test

229
Q

What type of syringe and size of needle should be used for administration?

A

1 ml TB syringe with .1ml intervals and fitted with a 25-gauge 5/8in needle.

230
Q

For PPD administration, what is NOT to be used as a form of administration?

A

hypodermic jet injector.

231
Q

What is the preferred dose and strength used for a PPD administration?

A

1ml of intermediate strength (5 TU)

232
Q

After PPD administration into the forearm and no wheal appears on skin can indicate_____

A

PPD was injected subcutaneously. Another PPD test should be administered on the second

233
Q

How should the induration be measured?

A

In millimeters at the widest transverse diameter of forearm

234
Q

What should NOT be entered if measurements are less than 5mm?

A

“non significant” or “zero” or similar phrases. “zero mm” is what needs to be entered if no induration.

235
Q

If a measurement is between zero and 14mm after 72hrs, what should be documented?

A

“not read” on SF 601

236
Q

If measurement is greater than 15mm after 72hrs, but before or on the 10th day, what actions must be done?

A

Manage person as a TB reactor since results are significant.

237
Q

What should be done if the rate of newly identified reactors are greater than 2.5% among any group tested?

A

Consider searching for an active case of TB in the command.

238
Q

What does BCG vaccination stand for?

A

Bacillus Calmette-Guerin

239
Q

The prevention of STDs is based on five major concepts what are they?

A

1) Education 2) detection 3) effective dx and tx 4) partner notification 5) Immunization of persons at risk for vaccine preventable STDs

240
Q

AD PT will be screened for HIV how

A

per SECNAVINST 5300.30 AD pt will be screened at a minimum of every two years and 12 months within transfer to overseas location.

241
Q

Women sexually active age 25 and younger shall have regular well woman exams how often?

A

Annually per CDC STD prevention and protocols.

242
Q

How many Naval HIV tx facilities are there?

A

Three- NMC Bethesda, Portsmouth, and San Diego

243
Q

What is ESSENCE?

A

Early Notification of Community based epidemics- is a tool for local use to ascertain growth and spread of particular syndromes.

244
Q

Importance of Med surveillance

A

Surveillance information is critical in both preparing for and responding to public health emergencies.

245
Q

Syndromic Surveillance

A

is critical in identifying emerging or re-emerging infectious diseases that pose a substantial risk of a significant number of human fatalities or severe disabilities.

246
Q

What is the minimum staffing for ESSENCE monitoring?

A

ESSENCE monitoring requires a min of two MTF staff members to check ESSENCE at least once each routine workday.

247
Q

Navy Marine Corps Public Health Center (NMCPHC) conducts analysis of ESSENCE how often?

A

Shall conduct quarterly analysis of ESSENCE data to maintain situational awareness of long term trends and identify areas for improvement.

248
Q

NMCPHC shall provide reports to Navy Medicine Regional Commanders when?

A

NMCPHC shall provide reports monthly describing MTF monitoring compliance.

249
Q

MER analysis is performed when?

A

Annually and published quarterly to examine navy and marine corps trends.

250
Q

Definition of “outbreak”

A

An outbreak is defined as the occurrence, in a community or region, of cases of an illness or other health related events in excess of normal expectancy.

251
Q

HIPAA act of ____

A

Health insurance Portability Accountability Act of 1996

252
Q

MERs sent via message must be IDd by what report symbol?

A

NAVMED 6220-3 in the subject line

253
Q

Routine Reports must be submitted within how many days?

A

30

254
Q

Urgent Reports must be submitted within how many days?

A

24 hours (1 day) to the responsible NEPMU

255
Q

How long must routine QA program related documents be maintained in a secure location?

A

Five (5) years before disposal

256
Q

How long must QA program related documents related to a potentially compensable event and JAG investigation be maintained in a secure location?

A

Minimum of two (2) years or as long as needed thereafter.

257
Q

What are the eight (8) program objectives in summary?

A

1) Systematically monitor services 2) Identify, assess, and decrease risk. 3) Justify resources needed to exceed acceptable standards of PT care. 4) Communicate important QA info to effect clinical decision making at all levels. 5) Integrate, track, and trend QA information. 6) Support credentials review and privileging activities. 7) ID edu and training needs. 8) Gain and sustain compliance with Joint Commission accreditation standards.

258
Q

Program minimums include:

A

1) Program objectives 2) Organization and responsibilities. 3) Scope of QA program and customer input. 4) required QA functions including what is to be done by whom and when. 5) Information flow and review needs. 6) Annual review of program. 7) Methodology by which data is generated.

259
Q

what is a Nosocomial Infection?

A

An inpatient acquired infection not present or incubating at the time of admission. It is considered Nosocomial if the infection becomes apparent 72 or more hours after admission.

260
Q

What is a potentially compensable event? (PCE)

A

An event or outcome during the process of med or dental care in which the pt suffers lack of improvement, injury, illness of severity greater than ordinarily experienced by pt with similar proc or illness.

261
Q

When was the QA program originally issued?

A

1984 for MTF and 1987 for DTF. The CNO and the Commandant are committed to providing the highest quality medical and dental care to DON beneficiaries.

262
Q

What is Joint Publication 4-02

A

HEALTH SERVICE SUPPORT-
HSS has three joint functions: sustainment, movement and maneuver, and protection. HSS promotes, improves, conserves or restores health within a military system.

263
Q

What is MCWP 4-11.1

A

HEALTH SERVICE SUPPORT OPERATIONS-
HSSO is a process that deliver on demand to the warfighter a healthy, fit, and medically ready force. The mission is to minimize the effects that wounds, injuries, and disease have on units’ effectiveness, readiness, and morale with the use of Prev Med.

264
Q

What is NAVMED P-5041

A

TX OF CHEMICAL WARFARE AGENT CASUALTIES AND CONVENTIONAL MILITARY CHEMICAL INJURIES

265
Q

What is NAVMED P-5042

A

TX OF BIOLOGICAL WARFARE AGENT CASUALTIES

266
Q

What is MANMED CHAPTER 6

A

DENTAL CORPS-

Navy Dental Corps was est by provisions of an act August 22, 1912.

267
Q

What is MANMED CHAPTER 21

A

PHARMACY OPERATION AND DRUG CONTROL

268
Q

What is MANMED CHAPTER 23

A

FORMS, REPORTS, AND RECORDS

269
Q

What is NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

A

DECEDENT AFFAIRS MANUAL

270
Q

What percent of combat fatalities occur forward of medical care?

A

90% * Half of these casualties bleed to death,1/5 from extremity trauma (10%-15% of all deaths).

271
Q

What is the most effective and preferred method of hemorrhage control?

A

Direct pressure at site of injury

272
Q

If direct pressure fails to stop the hemorrhage, it signifies?

A

Deep, massive, or arterial injury, and will require surgery or advanced hemostatic agents. Apply direct pressure to the wound for how long before looking to see if it is effective. At least 5 minutes * Impaled foreign bodies should not be removed because profuse bleeding may occur.

273
Q

What are the negative factors of bandages?

A

A Bandage Does Not Equal Direct Pressure! A bandage may wick blood from the wound without stopping the bleeding. A bandage hides ongoing bleeding.

274
Q

what method of hemostasis is more likely to cause additional injury than to control bleeding?

A

Blind clamping

275
Q

how long may it take to provide hemostasis when compressing at a pressure point?

A

20 minutes.

276
Q

What is the pressure point and artery for the lower arm?

A

Axilla

Axillary

277
Q

What is the pressure point and artery for the thigh?

A

Below the groin crease

Femoral

278
Q

What is the pressure point and artery for the leg?

A

Behind the knee

Popliteal

279
Q

Application of a tourniquet for longer than _____ will increase limb loss.

A

2 hours

280
Q

What may be used to clamp a vessel if the damage is easily identified?

A

Hemostat

281
Q

What are the possible pitfalls of MAST? (Military Anti-Shock Trousers)

A
  1. Protracted MAST use leads to compartment syndrome and ischemic limbs
  2. Respiratory compromise due to diaphragmatic elevation
  3. Increased torso bleeding
  4. requires close monitoring in aircraft’s due to pressure changes
282
Q

What may reduce pelvic bleeding besides stabilization of pelvic fracture with MAST garment?

A

Wrapping the pelvis tightly with a wide strap (such as a folded sheet)

283
Q

Open torso injuries. If direct pressure does not stop the hemorrhage, consider doing what method?

A

inserting a balloon tamponade with a (Foley) catheter into the wound, and then with balloon inflated pulling back to compress the bleeding site.

284
Q

What must be asses before and after applying a dressing or bandage?

A

Neurological status and circulation of extremity

285
Q

What four things should you remember concerning Coagulopathy?

A
  1. Keep patient warm (above34°C).
  2. Use warm fluids.
  3. Use crystalloid fluids sparingly.
  4. Transfuse with fresh whole blood
286
Q

what two agents are recommended by the US Tactical Combat Casualty Care Committee?

A
  1. HemCon

2. QuikClot

287
Q

Pressure must be applied for how long at the bleeding site, after application of a hemostatic dressing?

A

3-5 minutes

288
Q

What is Q fever?

A

Bacteria named Coxielle burnetii. Highly resistent to heat.

289
Q

What is the reservoir for Q fever?

A

Sheep, dogs, cattle, cats

290
Q

How is Q fever transmitted?

A

Usually via aerosols

291
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of atypical pneumonia?

A

fever, fatigue,chills, sweats,myalgia

292
Q

approximately 33 percent of Q fever will develop what?

A

Acute hepatitis

293
Q

What is a pre-exposure prophylaxis for Q fever?

A

A formalin inactivated whole cell vaccine, which provides exposure for 5 years.

294
Q

What is a post-exposure medication for Q-fever?

A

Tetracycline 500 mg PO every 6 hours for 5 days. or doxy 100 mg every 12 hours for 5 day. effective if begun 8-12 days

295
Q

What are treatment meds for Q fever?

A

Administer 100 mg doxycycline orally every 12 hours for at least 2 days after patient is afebrile or 500 mg tetracycline every 6 hours for at least 2 days.

296
Q

What are the reservoir for Tularemia?

A

Rabbits, hares, rodents

297
Q

Francisella Tularensis is limited to what hemisphere?

A

Northern Hemisphere

298
Q

How are Tularemia transmitted?

A

By arthropod vectors such as: ticks and deer flies or direct contact with infected animals.

299
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Tularemia?

A

Acute pneumonia, fever, chest tightening, coughing .

300
Q

What are some post-exposure prophylaxis for Tularemia?

A

Doxycycline 100 mg po every 12 h

Tetracycline 500 mg orally every 6 hours for 2 weeks, or cipro 500 mg every 12 hours for 2 weeks

301
Q

When administering streptomycin for Tularemia what is the dose?

A

7.5 to 10mg per kg IM every 12 hours for 10-14 days

302
Q

When administering Gentamycin for Tularemia, what is the dose?

A

3 to 5 mg per kg IV daily for 10-14 days

303
Q

When administering Ciprofloxacin for Tularemia what is the proper dose?

A

400 mg IV every 12 hours then switch to oral cipro 500 mg every 12 hours after the patient

304
Q

How are Anthrax transmitted?

A

contact with infected animals, ingesting contaminated meat or Inhaling spores during the processing of wool for textiles.

305
Q

Cutaneous anthrax accounts for more that what percent of all anthrax cases?

A

90%

306
Q

What are some signs of Cutaneous

A

Painless necrotic ulcer with black eschar and local edema

307
Q

What are some post exposure chemoprophylaxis for anthrax?

A

All personnel exposed to aerosolized Anthrax should be administered ciprofloxacin 500mg tabs orally every 12 hours for 60 days

308
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of Anthrax?

A

Fever, Malaise, cough,. also improvement for 3 days then acute respiratory symptoms

309
Q

What are some treatments for anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every 12 hours.

Doxycycline 200 mg IV loading dose followed by 100mg IV every 12 hours

310
Q

What are the 4 members of Brucellosis?

A

Melitensis, abortus,suis,canis

311
Q

What are the Reservoirs for Brucellosis?

A

sheep,goats,cattle swine, dogs and cayotes

312
Q

How are Brucellosis transmitted?

A

inhalations, ingestion or inoculations

313
Q

What is the most common symptoms of Brucellosis?

A

Bone and Joint disease

314
Q

Cardiovascular problems presents only 2% of Brucellosis but accounts for the most?

A

Death

315
Q

How are Brucellosis treated?

A

Doxy 200 mg and Rifampin 600 mg daily for 6 weeks or Doxy 200 mg daily for 6 weeks and streptomycin 1 gm Intramuscularly daily for 2 weeks.

316
Q

True or False Brucellosis is not communicable from person to person

A

True

317
Q

What are the reservoir for Melioidosis?

A

soil and water throughout the world between 20 degrees north and south latitudes

318
Q

True or False Acute pulmonary disease is the most common form of melioidosis.

A

True

319
Q

Case fatality rate for acute septicemic disease exceeds ?

A

90 %

320
Q

What is another name for Plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

321
Q

What is the primary reservoir for plague?

A

Rodents

322
Q

How are Plague transmitted?

A

Via infected fleas from rodents to humans, dog or cat to humans.

323
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of plague?

A

Acute onset of fever and prostration with acute painful lymphadenitis draining the site of the fleabite

324
Q

Bacillus anthracis appears as what under the microscope during dx?

A

Encapsulated, aerobic, Gram positive, spore forming, rod shaped bacterium.

325
Q

what are the four systems that Bacillus Anthracis can effect?

A

Skin/cutaneous which is most common, Respiratory rare, GI - rare in the rear, and Oropharyngeal which is least common

326
Q

Cutaneous Anthrax sx

A

Usually start within 1 day, localized itching followed by 1) papular lesions that turn vesicular 2) subsequent black eschar within 7-10 days.

327
Q

Cutaneous Anthrax Tx

A

Cipro 500 mg po q12hr

328
Q

Rickettsial (spotted & Typhus Fevers) appears as what under the microscope during dx?

A

gram negative bacteria, pink-red cocci

329
Q

Transmission of Rickettsial is done by?

A

ectoparasites such as fleas, lice, mites, and ticks by scratching infected feces into the skin or by inhaling their terd dust. Don’t inhale ectoparasite terd dust.

330
Q

When is Rickettsial transmission likely?

A

More likely during spring and summer.

331
Q

What is the incubation period for

A

Rickettsial has a 5-14 day incubation period.

332
Q

Geographically where is Rickettsial most common?

A

Mediterranean, Southern Euro, Africa, India, Israel, Thailand, and Australia. HOWEVER ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER OR RICKETTISA PARKERI IS FROM THE AMERICAS.

333
Q

Clinical presentation of Rickettsial?

A

Common symptoms develop 1-2 weeks into infection and include fever, headache, malaise, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Rocky mountain fever may be fatal in 20-60% of untreated cases.

334
Q

Clinical diagnosis of Rickettsial

A

PCR- Polymerase chain reaction- DNA basically, skin biopsy of rash or eschar, or EDTA - unclotted blood- to identify specific cells.

335
Q

Treatment of Rickettshial?

A

Standard CDC regimen consists of 200mg of Doxycycline daily for 3-14 days. For children 2.2 mg/kg body weight per dose admin twice daily orally or IV for children under 100lb. Antibiotics of the tetracycline class have a high degree of efficacy and low toxicity in the tx of Ricketts

PATIENTS SHOULD BE TREATED FOR AT LEAST THREE DAYS AFTER THE FEVER SUBSIDES!!

336
Q

Hepatitis A

A

Ingestion of fecal matter from persons with Hep A. Incubation period is 15-50 days. Rarely fatal. IgM Anti HAV test for acute infection to properly diagnose.

337
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Contact with infectious blood, semen, and other fluids through birth, sexual contact, needles/syringes/or other drug equipment, needle sticks, tattoos. Incubation period is 45-160 days. Specific Test include: HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc for acute only.

338
Q

Hepatitis C

A

Contact with blood of an infected person through sharing of contaminated needles, syringes, or other IV drug equipment use. Incubation period is 14-180 days. Specific test are not currently available for acute infection

339
Q

Symptoms for Hepatitis (ALL) include:

A

Fever, Fatigue, Loss of appetite, Nausea, Vomiting, Abdominal pain, Gray colored stool, Joint pain, jaundice.

340
Q

Hepatitis A Vaccine schedule?

A

2 doses given 6mos apart

341
Q

Hepatitis B vaccine schedule?

A

3 doses given 6 mos apart

342
Q

Yellow fever belongs to what Genus?

A

Flavivirus.

343
Q

How is Yellow Fever transmitted?

A

YF is transmitted primarily through the bite of infected Aedes or Haemagogus mosquitoes.

344
Q

Yellow fever has _____ transmission

A

3- Jungle - Sylvatic, Intermediate - Savannah, and urban.

345
Q

Jungle or Sylvatic transmission of YF:

A

between nonhuman primates and mosquito in the forest. then from infected mosquito to humans.

346
Q

Intermediate or Savannah transmission of YF:

A

transmission of virus from mosquitoes to humans living or working in border areas. again from monkey to mosquito to humans.

347
Q

Urban Transmission of YF:

A

involves human to urban mosquitoes, primarily Aedes Aegypti.

348
Q

Symptoms of Yellow Fever:

A

Incubation period is usually 3-6 days in which patients have no illness or only mild illness. Initial symptoms include, fever, chills, severe headache, back pain, general body aches, nausea, and vomiting, fatigue, and weakness with initial improvement of symptoms. After brief remission or improvement of hours to days, 15% of cases progress or develop high fever, jaundice, bleeding, and eventually shock and failure of organs.

349
Q

Treatment of Yellow Fever:

A

No specific treatments have been found to benefit patients with yellow fever. AVOID ASPIRIN AND NSAIDS!!!

350
Q

Lab Evaluation: for YF

A

M-IgM and G-IgG, RNA, RT-PCR Reverse Transmission Polymerase Chain Reaction.

351
Q

Mosquito for
YF
malaria

A 
YF= Adese egypti
Malaria = anopheles
352
Q

TB mask

A

N-95

353
Q

fraternization instruction

A

OPNAVINST 5370.2

354
Q

Seperation Instruction

A

MILPERSMAN 1900-1999 PERS 832

355
Q

AUTOCLAVE

A

3 MINUTES AT 270 DEGREES

356
Q

WHERE IS “COPY TO” LINE IN MEMO

A

UNDERNEATH SIGNATURE LINE ALIGNED TO LEFT HAND SIDE

357
Q

Signa

A

to write, a word used to introduce the signature in a prescription; - mark write label

358
Q

Tricare extra

A

fee-for-service plan available to all beneficiaries (except active duty service members) in the U.S
can use non network porvider

359
Q

AC =

A

hydrogen cyanide abbreviation

360
Q

lewisite

A

vesicant blister agent

361
Q

Blood agents

A 
Cyanogen chloride (CK)
Hydrogen cyanide (AC)
Arsine (SA)
362
Q

MER reportable events within 30 days

A

Gonorrhea Chlamydia syphilis(latent)

363
Q

Anthrax frequency and dosage

A

.5 ml 0,1,6,12,18 and 12 month boosters

364
Q

navmed 6470/1

A

EXPOSURE TO IONIZING RADIATION

365
Q

Jelly fish sting can cause cardiac collapse

A

3 minutes

366
Q

MER go thru

A

SMDR maybe SMO

367
Q

12 mm TB reaction after 72 hours =

A

“Not read”

368
Q

ORM risk matrix

A

An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability

369
Q

What is the minimum pay grade for a commanding officer to appoint IN WRITING as a DAPA?

A

E-6

370
Q

SAPR instruction

A

SECNAVINST 1752.4

371
Q

3 zones sexual harrassment

A

R Y G

372
Q

secondary expenses

A

Secondary expenses are those expenses incurred for services and supplies for the funeral and interment service. The following expenses may be applied to the interment allowance. The family is responsible for any expenses that exceed that allowance. Burial in a private cemetery – reimbursable up to $4,850, plus transportation for the remains. Burial in a national cemetery – reimbursable up to $3,450, plus transportation for the remains..

373
Q

primary Expenses

A
  • The military service annually contract with CONUS mortuaries/funeral homes to provide, at a fixed rate and at no cost to the family, the embalming, dressing and casketing of remains of active duty members.
374
Q

max money for remain not found

A

(A maximum of $3,000 reimbursable for costs of a memorial service for a member whose remains are not recovered).

375
Q

retired escort

A

retains retire pay, all else same as AD

376
Q

perry quote

A

“We have met the enemy and they are ours. Two ships, two brigs, one schooner and one sloop. Yours with great respect and esteem”

377
Q

types of ships

A

Ships of the line, frigates, sloops of war

378
Q

Incident of Sex harrassment reported within how long?

A

72 hours

379
Q

three p’s

A

Praise, Performance, and Problems

380
Q

SIG signa

A

SIG is a standard part of a written prescription that specifies directions for use of the medicine.

381
Q

superscription

A

The superscription section (above the ℞ sign, hence the name) contains the date of the prescription and patient’s name and address;

382
Q

inscription

A

The inscription specifies the ingredients and quantities of the medication;

383
Q

subscription

A

The subscription section contains dispensing directions to the pharmacist, possibly including compounding instructions or quantities.

384
Q

SIG

A

The SIG section contains directions to the patient on how and when to take the medicine prescribed (see SIG, below).

385
Q

schedule 2 refills authorized?

A

high potential for abuse

386
Q

Form for lost or stolen controlled meds

A

DEA 106

387
Q

unannounced CSIB inspection when

A

quarterly or every 3 months

388
Q

kerlex

A

6510

389
Q

A CACO is the official representative of which of the following?

  1. CNO
  2. CO
  3. SECNAV
  4. Chaplain
A

SECNAV

390
Q

Primaquin in G6PD causes

A

hemalysis

391
Q

P-117 CH 15

A

physical exam

392
Q

p-117 CH 23

A

reports

393
Q

p-117 ch 21

A

pharmacy

394
Q

pallegra

A

folic acid

395
Q

gross autopsy details can be obtained by

A

NOK written request

396
Q

PHS 731

A

yellow immunization form

397
Q

OTC program authorized by

A

CO?

398
Q

tetracycline treats

A

acne

399
Q

Otitis media treatment

A

sulfisoxazole

400
Q

Spinal blocks

A

thoracic

401
Q

what type of block is a ring

A

nerve

402
Q

Hepatitis with 28 day incubation period

A

Hep A

403
Q

periodontitis

A

tooth elongation

404
Q

decreased ADH aka vasopressin results in

A

Diabetes insipidous

405
Q

lymphadenapthy fpund in what plague

A

bubonic

406
Q

missing ships movement ucmj

A

ART 87

407
Q

quid pro quo

A

this for that

408
Q

% hypochlorite solution

A

5.25%

409
Q

wartime submarine

A

project seapower work hostile enviroment

410
Q

how long to submit report on eval?

A

2 years

411
Q

QA records

A

2 years

412
Q

MRE’s good for

A

48 months

413
Q

SECNAV - M5210.1,

A

SECNAV - M5210.1, Department of the Navy (DON), Navy Records Management Program, Records Management Manual

414
Q

SF 502

A

clinic narrative

415
Q

SF 515

A

tissue exam

416
Q

SF516

A

OP report

417
Q

SF 509

A

progress notes

418
Q

What are the three fundamental
pillars on which United States
military strategy rests?

A

Deterrence, forward defense,

and alliance solidarity

419
Q

7th fleet

A

pacific

420
Q

decon kit

A

m256A1

421
Q

SOFA

A

status of forces agreement

422
Q

R-status, C-status

A

remember

423
Q

silver nitrate

A

batteries insecticides

424
Q

telling subordinate to delegate task instills

A

confidence

425
Q

near miss

A

A near-miss is defined as an event or
situation that could have resulted in harm to a patient,
if it had reached the patient..

426
Q

metal cans hit deck enough to wake patient out of excitement stage?

A

stage 2 no

427
Q

stages of anasteshia

A

induction
excitement
surgical
danger

428
Q

document binnacle list on

A

SF 600

429
Q

temp record

A

no original copies

430
Q

primary pharmacy text

A

remington

431
Q

Caudal

A

umbilicus to the toes

432
Q

saddle block

A

spinal

433
Q

Epidural

A

epidural

434
Q

p5010 ch 1

A

Food sanitation

435
Q

p5010 ch 8

A

entomology

436
Q

p5010 ch 9

A

ground forces

437
Q

p5010 ditty

A

Frank likes very small apples while watching everyone go

438
Q

SSIC ditty

A

Military tests require luck and masterchief Frakers outstanding study guide for career enhancing goals

439
Q

CG - and what does it smell like

A

phosegene new mown hay

440
Q

HR ditty

A

Oh god you got that fat white bitch pregnant retard

441
Q

AC = what does it smell like

A

almonds

442
Q

HBV FREQ

A

0,1,6 MONTHS

443
Q

JEV FREQ

A

0,7,30 DAYS

444
Q

PNUMOCCOCAL ROUNTINELY GIVEN OVER AGE WHAT

A

65

445
Q

Chest xray in TB reactor indicated

A

all the above

446
Q

WHAT IS BACILLARY DYSENTERY

A

SHIGELLOSIS-BACTERIAL DISEASE TO DISTAL SMALL INTESTINE AND COLON WITH LOOSE STOOLS OF SMALL VOLUME, FEVER, NAUSEA, VOMITING, TENESMUS

447
Q

LENGTH OF SHIGELLOSIS INFECTION

A

NORMALLY SELF LIMITING AT 4-7 DAYS.

448
Q

Occurence of shigellosis

A

600K DEATHS PER YEAR (2/3 CHILDREN UNDER 10). OCCURE IN CROWDING WITH POOR HYGIENE

449
Q

mode of transmission of shigellosis

A

Fecal oral transmission

450
Q

RESERVOIR FOR SHIGELLOSIS

A

humans

451
Q

SYMPTOMS OF SMALLPOX

A

SUDDEN RASH, FEVER, MALAISE, H/A, PROSTRATION ,BACK PAIN, ABDOMINAL PAIN, VOMITING

452
Q

SMALLPOX INCUBATION

A

COMMONLY 10-14 DAYS WITH 2-4 DAYS AFTER FOR RASH ONSET

453
Q

MODE OF TRANSMISSION FOR SMALLPOX

A

RESPIRATORY, CONJUNCTIVA, PLACENTA

454
Q

INFECTIOUS AGENT OF SMALLPOX

A

VARIOLA VIRUS

454
Q

UCMJ ARTICLE that prevent self incrimination

A

Article 31

455
Q

Most destructive stored food pest

A

Rice weevil

456
Q

When does person under age 18 not need signature on SF 522?

A

When married to AD or is AD themself

457
Q

Amyl nitrate used in what CBR agents

A

Hydrogen cyanide & cyanogen chloride

458
Q

Example vomit agent

A

Adamsite

459
Q

Flash blindness from nuclear blast at night can last how long?

A

60 minutes

460
Q

Form # CPO EVAL

A

1610/27

461
Q

3 PFA failures in 4 yrs gets what action on eval?

A

Not recommend retention

462
Q

Birthday of CPO

A

1APR 1893

463
Q

When embarking disembarking small boat vessel, Senior Officer______________

A

Last onboard embarking First ashore when disembarking

464
Q

Phenobarbital indicated for________

A

Insomnia & siezures

465
Q

How many officers on CSIB inventory board

A

3 members, 1 has to be officer

466
Q

When can Rx be phoned into navy pharmacy?

A

In emergency or extreme situation

467
Q

When ordering supplies what pub do you use

A

P-485

468
Q

Used in tx of fungal infx of hair skin nails

A

Griseofulvin

469
Q

Who approves destruction of expired drugs

A

C.O.

470
Q

NOT a factor in selecting site for urinal

A

Design

471
Q

What type Dz is rabies?

A

Zoonotic

472
Q

What area on oral mucosa?

A

Leukoplakia

473
Q

In reference to STA-21, how long does member have to get bachelors degree?

A

36 months

474
Q

Dz associated with Wilson Edison test

A

Malaria(test for presence of chloroquine in urine, thus confirming compliance with chemoprophylaxis)

475
Q

Tx for beri-beri

A

Thiamine

476
Q

What vaccination do recruits NOT recieve

A

Typhoid

477
Q

For for lost or theft of controlled substance

A

DEA form106

478
Q

Who is normally selected as triage officer

A

Dental officer

479
Q

How long after leaving malaria endemic environment can one donate blood

A

3 yrs

480
Q

Which publication contains information about special duty physicals

A

MANMED

481
Q

What Dz is a concern for all healthcare workers

A

HBV

482
Q

If that patient presents 10 days after TB test with 16 mm of induration how was this documented?

A

Not read

Then another PPD placed in other arm

483
Q

What disease is a concern for all healthcare workers

A

HBV

484
Q

FMF HM’s are separated into what 2 groups

A

Logistics and support

485
Q

Med BN has how many Companies?

A

3

486
Q

Lead lined wall surrounding an x-ray room offer protection under what principal

A

Shielding

487
Q

Who is the primary address see when submitting and MER

A

Responsible NEPMU

488
Q

If malaria prophylaxis is taking and you do not travel to a malaria endemic area how soon may you donate blood

A

1 yr

489
Q

What happens to Optar when it’s the fourth quarter and you still have funds left over

A

Funds are balanced and they disappear

490
Q

How often are AMAL’s inventoried?

A

Annually

491
Q

What platoon is not part of MED BN

A

Preventative Med Plt

492
Q

What would not be considered infectious waste

A

2x2 used for venipuncture

493
Q

Who can make changes to control substance bulk stock

A

Commanding officer

494
Q

QA reports are submitted when

A

15 January every year

495
Q

If the water table is high in the soil is Rocky what type of the train would you put into place

A

Burn barrel

496
Q

MANMED P-5010 chapters

A 
Frank - Food safety
Likes -Living spaces
Very    - Ventilation
Small - Swimming pools
Apples - ashore water
After.     -afloat water
Watching - wastewater
Everyone. -entomology
Go.           -Ground forces
497
Q

How many scheduled drugs are there?

A

5

498
Q

What schedule are drugs with no acceptable medical use and a very high abuse potential

A

Schedule 1

499
Q

What schedule are drugs have acceptable medical use which are considered to have very high abuse potential

A

Schedule 2

500
Q

What schedule are drugs having acceptable medical use which I considered to have a lessening degrees of abuse potential

A

Schedule 3, 4, & 5

501
Q

Schedule two drugs shall be filled within how many days of the date originally written

A

7

502
Q

True or false schedule two drugs shall not be refilled

A

True

503
Q

Poly prescription form

A

NAVMED 6710/6

504
Q

DOD RX FORM

A

DD 1289

HMC Study (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions