HM Exam 1 Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Traditional approach to hospital medicine

A

Primary care doctor follows care while in hospital - inefficient leading to delay of care

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2
Q

Patient centered hospital model

A

Integrated, shared decision making, open communication, full disclosure, individualized treatments, evidence based medicine

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3
Q

2 components of patient centered care

A

Patient experiencePatient engagement

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4
Q

HCAHPS components (7)

A

Common metric for measuring patient experience
Discharge information
Responsiveness of staff
Cleanliness and Quietness
Communication with nurses
Communication about medicine
Communication with Doctors
Pain management

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5
Q

Patient engagement - 4 aspects

A

Enables patient to get the most out of healthcare - Includes literacy, Family dynamics, Learning style, Readiness to learn and change

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6
Q

Consultant

A

Gives recommendations for pt but does not become primary provider

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7
Q

4 principles of ethical consultation

A

Only when indicatedProvide case summary1 person retains responsibilityPunctuality

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8
Q

How fast does a stat consult need to happen

A

Within 1 Hour

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9
Q

Two models of co-management

A

Hospitalist as primary attending with subspecialist as consultantSubspecialist as attending with hospitalist as consultant

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10
Q

ED Boarding

A

Patient waiting for an ED bed after being seen

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11
Q

Direct admit

A

Admit directly from PCPCan save ED visit but don’t do it if they may decompensate rapidly

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12
Q

Selection recommendations for direct admission

A

Fairly certain admitting diagnosisStableArrives at hospital before 4pm

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13
Q

Risks of interhospital transfer

A

Delay of care initiationDecompensation during transitArrive to long levelDuplicate testingMedical errors

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14
Q

Transfer from a SNF

A

More complex and less likely to have a caregiver with themMay be missing basic testingMUST have a CODE form!!

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15
Q

Who is responsible once a patient begins a transfer

A

The place they are going to

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16
Q

Inpatient or outpatient hospital stay

A

2 midnight ruleIf they are there 2+ midnights, they are INPATIENT

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17
Q

4 types of units in a hospital

A

ICUIntermediate careTelemetryMed/Surg

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18
Q

Intermediate care units

A

Monitoring like ICU but w/o critical care drugs

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19
Q

Med/Surg units

A

Fewer patients, checked on every 8 hours for vitals

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20
Q

Shift Change

A

Transfer of content from one professional to another - no documentation

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21
Q

Service change

A

A permanent transfer of information to a new team - End of week before you get offRequires documentation

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22
Q

Service transfer

A

Transfer of care to an entirely new group of clinicians - ie. a new specialty/ward

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23
Q

Core components of handoff

A

Verbal communication -phoneWritten - supplements verbalTransfer responsibility - Acknowledgement of transfer

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24
Q

IPASS

A

Handoff method
Intorduction
Patient
Assessment
Situation
Safetey concerns

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25
Q

SBAR

A

Situation
Background
Assessment
Recommendations

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26
Q

4 key elements of discharge

A

Appropriate destinationFollow up scheduledMed reconcilliationEngagement of patient and caregivers

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27
Q

SNF Care

A

Physician every 30 days2-4 hours nursingRehab 1 hr per day

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28
Q

Inpatient rehab care

A

5-6 hours nursingPhysician 3x per week3hrs rehab per day

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29
Q

LTACH care

A

5-6 hours nursingNear daily physician presenceRehab varies

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30
Q

Extended care facility care

A

Less than 2 nursing hours per dayPhysician every 30 daysRehab available

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31
Q

Reasonable average follow up after hospital stay

A

7-14 days - may need to be sooner!!

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32
Q

Five elements of a discharge summary

A

Primary and secondary diagnosis
Test results
Pending results
Additional workup recommendations and treatment plan
Condition at discharge

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33
Q

Components of evaluation and management level

A

HistoryPhysical examMedical Decision Making (Labs, etc.)

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34
Q

Eight elements of an HPI

A

Location, Quality, Severity, Duration, Time, COntext, Associated factors, Associated SYmptoms

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35
Q

PFSH

A

Past, Family, and Social History2 or 3 needed for comprehensive

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36
Q

Comprehensive PE

A

More than 8 organ systems represented

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37
Q

3 Types of data we can use for MDM

A

Medical data - EKG, Echo, etc.RadiologyLabs or Specimens

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38
Q

Documentation of time spent on care

A

Document total time spent and how much of that was spent coordinating the careMust document what you DID with that time

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39
Q

Problem focused Hx

A

Brief HPI with 3 or less elements, No ROS, No PFSH

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40
Q

Expanded problem focused HPI

A

Brief HPI with 3 or less elements, 1 ROS, No PFSH

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41
Q

Detailed Hx

A

Expanded HPI with 4+elements, Extedned ROS with 2-9 systems, 1 PFSH

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42
Q

Comprehensive Hx

A

Extended HPI with 4+ elements, Complete ROS with 10+ elements, 2 or 3 PFSH

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43
Q

PFSH for Comprehensive Hx

A

All three for new patients, 2 or 3 for subsequent encounters

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44
Q

Problem focused PE

A

1 organ system with 1 comment

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45
Q

Expanded problem focused PE

A

2-7 Organ systems with 1 comment

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46
Q

Detailed PE

A

2-7 organ systems with more than one comment

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47
Q

Comprehensive PE

A

8+ systems with 1 comment

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48
Q

3 elements of medical decision making

A

Number of diagnoses, Amount and complexity of data, the risk to the patient

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49
Q

Points for self limited/minor problems in MDM

A

1 point each with 2 max

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50
Q

Points for established problems stable or improving in MDM

A

1

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51
Q

Points for worsening established problem in MDM

A

2

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52
Q

Points for new problem with additional workup in MDM

A

3, max 1 problem

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53
Q

Points for new problem with additional workup planned

A

4

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54
Q

Qualifications for a diagnosis to be included in MDM

A

Must do workup related to that problem during the encounter

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55
Q

5 data reviews that get 1 pont in MDM

A

Reveiw and/or order of: Clinical tests, pathology/lab tests, radiology tests, medicine tests, obtain old records or get info from someone else

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56
Q

2 data review ponts that get 2 points in MDM

A

Review and summarize old records obtain additional hx or consult with another provider, Indipendant visualization of image, tracing or specimen

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57
Q

Minimal risk presenting problems

A

One self limited minor problem - cold, bite, tinea corporis

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58
Q

Minimal risk dx procedures

A

Lab tests requireing venipuncture, CXR, EKG/EEG, Urinalysis, US, KOH prep

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59
Q

Minimal risk management options

A

Rest, gargles, elastic bandages, superficial dressings

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60
Q

Low risk presenting problems

A

Two or more self limited/minor problems; One stable chronic illness; Acute uncomplicated illness

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61
Q

Moderate risk presenting problems

A

1+ chronic illnesses with mild exacerbation; 2+ stable chronic illnesses, Acute illness with systemic symptoms, Acute complicated injury

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62
Q

Low risk dx procedures

A

PFT, Non cardiac imaging, arterial puncture lab tests, skin biopsy

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63
Q

Low risk management options

A

OTC drugs, Minor surgery, PT, OT, Simple IV fluids

64
Q

Moderate risk dx procedures

A

Cardiac or fetal stress test, Endoscopy, Deep inscisional biopsy, Cardio imaging w/ imaging but w/o identified risk factors, any -centesis

65
Q

Moderate risk tx

A

Minor surgery with risk factors, elective major surgery, Prescription drug management, Nuclear medicine, Closed fracture tx without manipulation

66
Q

High risk presenting problems

A

1+ chronic illnesses with severe exacerbation, progression or side effects of tx; Injuries that pose a threat to life or bodily function; Abrupt change in neurologic status

67
Q

High risk dx procedures

A

Cardio studies with contrast AND risk factors, Cardiac EP tests, endoscopy with risk factors, Discography

68
Q

High risk management options

A

Elective major surgery with risk factors, Emergency surgery, Parenteral controlled substances, Drug therapy requiring toxicity monitoring, Decision not to resuscitate or deescalate care d/t poor prognosis

69
Q

Criteria to select an MDM level

A

2 categories must meet or exceed the requirements for that level

70
Q

Problem focused MDM level

A

1 dx/tx or less, 1 data point or less, Minimal risk level

71
Q

Low complexity MDM

A

2dx/tx points, 2 data points, Low risk level

72
Q

Moderate complexity MDM

A

3dx/tx points, 3 data points, Moderate risk level

73
Q

High complexity MDM level

A

4dx/tx points, 4 data points, High risk level

74
Q

What determines visit level of service

A

The LOWEST component of the 3 required things: Hx, PE, MDM

75
Q

Determining MDM lavel from 3 data points

A

Exclude the lowest category and then shoose the lower of the remaining ones

76
Q

Initial hospital care codes

A

99221
99222
99223

77
Q

99221

A

Hx: Detailed or comprehensive
Pe: Detailed or comprehensive
MDM: Straightforward or low
30 minutes

78
Q

99222

A

Hx: Comprehensive
PE: Comprehehnsive
MDM: Moderate
50 minutes

79
Q

99223

A

Hx: Comprehensive
PE: Comprehensive
MDM: High

80
Q

Subsequent hospital care codes

A

99231
99232
99233

For follow up notes

81
Q

99231

A

Hx: Problem focused
PE: Problem focused
MDM: Straightforward or Low
15 minutes

82
Q

99232

A

Hx: Expanded
PE: Expanded
MDM: Moderate
25 minutes

83
Q

99233

A

Hx: Detailed
PE: Detailed
MDM: High
35 minutes

84
Q

When can you replace 3 components with time spent counseling the patient

A

When the counseling takes 50+% of the time spent

85
Q

To types of time that must be reported

A

Time spent counseling
Time spent coordinating care

86
Q

Role of ethics committee

A

Purely advisory - does not review labs, etc.

87
Q

2 most common ethics consulting indications

A

Advance directive and Brain death

88
Q

Elements of informed consent decision making capacity

A

Ability to communicate choice
Understand nature and consequences of the choice
Manipulate rationally the information necessary to make a choice
Reason consistenly with previously expressed values and goals

89
Q

Capacity

A

Determined by psych

90
Q

Authority of an advanced directive

A

Must always be followed except in rare exceptions
Include living will, code status, and surrogates/MPOA

91
Q

Order of surrogacy in healthcare

A

Spouse
Adult children
Own parents
Adult siblings
Adult grandchildren
Close friend
DHHR appointee

92
Q

When two surrogates of equal standing disagree

A

Go with the one who is more involved in the patient’s care

93
Q

ICU care for DNR patients

A

Still can be admitted or go to the OR (not recommended to go to surgery - change status if patient willing)

94
Q

Medical devices and end of life

A

Patient or surrogate has the right to turn off or remove device as a part of life-sustaining therapy withdrawal

95
Q

Physiological futility

A

When it is absolutely or reasonable impossible to acheive a certain physiologic effect

96
Q

Qualitative futility

A

When physiology may improve but there is no patient centered benefit

97
Q

Quantatative futility

A

When an intervention has not worked in similar patients within an accepted confidence interval

98
Q

4 things associated with malnutrition

A

Increased infection
Longer stay
Increased cost
Mortality

99
Q

Diagnostic criteria for malnutrition

A

Must meet 2 to qualify
Insufficient caloric intake via dietary recall
Weight loss
Loss of muscle mass
Loss of SQ fat
Local or general fluid accumulation
Diminished functional status - hand grip to measure

100
Q

Injuries the cause the highest change in metabolic rate (4)

A

Sepsis, Trauma, Respiratory failure, Burns

101
Q

Protein rule of thumb

A

Need 1.2-1.5 g/kg/day
2g/kg/day for burns
2.5 for obese or severely ill patients

102
Q

Preferred feeding route

A

Oral
May boost with shakes

103
Q

Nutrition in ensure shake

A

240 cals and 10g of protein

104
Q

Indication of enteral or parenteral nutrition

A

Initiate 7-10 days after no eating

105
Q

J-tube

A

In the jejunum, may have absorption problems

106
Q

Situations in which not to use a PEG tube

A

Peritonitis
Major GI bleed
Ileus
Bowel obstruction
Fistual
Copious diarrhea
Reflux - consider J-tube

107
Q

Common complication of tube feeding

A

DIarrhea, may need free water supplementation

108
Q

Induction of tube feeding

A

Give at a low rate and watch for intolerance symptoms - nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

109
Q

Refeeding syndrome

A

K+, Mag and phosphorus drop

110
Q

Route of TPN administtation

A

Through a CENTRAL line

111
Q

Reasons for IV fluids

A

NPO
Volume deficit
Ongoing losses
Hydration
Contrast dye use - so they will pee it out

112
Q

Estimation of Total body water

A

wt x .6 for males OR .5 for females

113
Q

Total body water usual dist.

A

2/3 ICF
1/3 ECF

114
Q

ECF distribution

A

1/4 intravascular
3/4 interstitial - hardest to get out

115
Q

Minimal water intake of water for most adults

A

Total - 1600 mL
Ingested - 500mL
Water in food = 800mL
From oxidation = 300mL

116
Q

Temperature and water need increase

A

Increase by 100-150 mL per day for each degree of body temp above 37

117
Q

Sources of water output in adults

A

Urine - 500mL
Skin - 500 mL
Respiratory tract - 400 mL
Stool - 200 mL

118
Q

Usual daily fluid requirement

A

35mL/kg/day

119
Q

Usual daily fluid req based on weight

A

100mL/kg/day at 0-10
1000mL + 50mL/kg/day at 10-20kg
1500 mL + 20mL for each kg above 20 for 20-70kg
2,500mL for over 70kg

120
Q

Normal sodium requirement

A

1-3meq/kg/day

121
Q

Sodium in .45NS

122
Q

Normal K+ requirement

A

1meq/kg/day

20meq/L is most common additive

123
Q

Preferred method of K+ supplementation

124
Q

Max rate for K+ infusion

A

10meq/hour max - burns

125
Q

Potassium required for hypokalemia

A

200-400 mmol for drop of 1 mmol/L
400-800 mmol for frop of 2 mmol/L

126
Q

Equation for K+ deficit

A

(K Lower limit - K measured) x body weight x 0.4

1mmol=1meq

127
Q

Serum K+ raise per 10mEq perfused

A

Raises level by 0.13mEq/L

128
Q

Initial oral K+ dose

A

40-100 mEq per day - check levels after 1st dose

129
Q

Normal glucose requirements

A

100-200 g/day
At least 100g/day decreases protein loss by 1/2

130
Q

Colloids

A

Contain large molecules that stay in the bloodstream only - Albumin

131
Q

Crystalloids

A

Most common - NS, Dextrose, etc.

132
Q

Use of 3% saline

A

Only for severe hyponatremia

133
Q

Use for lactated ringers

A

Surgeons love it
GI tract issues and third spacing

Can be hard on the liver and kidneys
Not for pH over 7.5
Increase in lactic acid

134
Q

Isotonic fluid types - 4

A

NS
Lactated ringers
D5W
Ringer’s acetate

135
Q

Hypertonic solutions - 4

A

D10, D20, D50, 3% saline

136
Q

RIngers lactate solution comp

A

Na - 130 meq
K - 4 meq
Ca - 3 meq
Cl - 109 meq
HCO3 - 28 meq

137
Q

D5W use

A

50g/L sugar content
170 calories
Provides free water
Not enough for nutrition replacement no elevtrolytes

138
Q

Fluids for hypovolemia

A

Volume expansion is the goal
NS or LR is best

139
Q

Fluids for dehydration

A

Goal is free water in hyperosmolar states
1/2NS or D5W (becomes hypotonic) are preferred

140
Q

Fluids for post-op patients

A

NS is safer than hypotonic fluids (can cause hyponatremia) but will give free water in setting of SIADH

141
Q

Volume expansion with fluid given

A

Free water is distributed evenly throughout compartments
Sodium stays in ECF - NS has no free water

142
Q

4,2,1 rule for pediatrics

A

4cc/kg/hr for first 10kg
2cc/kg/hr for second 10kg
1cc/kg/hr for remaining weight
Adjust for fluid loss

143
Q

IVF rate for adults

A

weight in Kg plus 40

144
Q

How long to transfuse a bag at 10cc/hr

A

Takes 10 hours - bag is 1000 cc

145
Q

Percent of patients developing a joint contracture

A

39% of those spending 2+ weeks in the ICU

146
Q

OT v. PT

A

OT - Waist up
PT - Waist down

147
Q

5 indications for a bedside swallow study by ST

A

Observed or reported dysphagia
Suspected aspiration
Decreased feeding
Intubation or vent weaning
Vocal cord paralysis

148
Q

Swallow test

A

Fluoroscopic with XR
Thin liquid
Thick liquid
Thin solid
Thick solid

149
Q

Where should stuff go in a swallow test

A

Go down the back of the throat where the esophagus is

150
Q

Aspiration

A

Food down trachea -often silent

151
Q

Penetration

A

Food enters throat without being swallowed - warning for aspiration

152
Q

Valecular stasis

A

FLuid/Food gets stuck in the area anterior to the epiglottis

153
Q

Osteoporosis prevention for hospitalized patients

A

Early mobilization and strength training

154
Q

Condition for which we MUST involved PT/OT

155
Q

Cardiac rehab

A

Post MI, CHF, CABG, Heart transplant OT and PT involved

156
Q

Main focus of pulm rehab

A

Exercise with increased use of resp muscles