HM Flashcards

Question 1

Q

EPA

Answer

A

Environmental Protection Agency (Title 40)

Question 2

Q

DOT

Answer

A

Department of Transportation (Title 49)

Question 3

Q

Code of Federal Regulations

Answer

A

CFR ***Title, Chapter, Part, Sub-part, Section, Paragraph, Sub-Paragraph

Question 4

Q

HMTUSA

Answer

A

Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act

Question 5

Q

POPS

Answer

A

Performance Oriented Packaging Standards (HM181)

Question 6

Q

RQ

Answer

A

Reportable Quantity

Question 7

Q

OSHA

Answer

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (Title 29)

Question 8

Q

PSN

Answer

A

PROPER SHIPPING NAME

Question 9

Q

DOT HAZARD GROUPS

Answer

A

I = Great Danger
II = Moderate Danger
III = Minor Danger

Question 10

Q

Packaging Groups

Answer

A

PG I
PG II
PG III

Question 11

Q

Hazmat Regulations

Answer

A

49 CFR 172 . 101
(Title) [DOT] (Part) . (section)

Question 12

Q

ORM

Answer

A

Other Regulated Materials

Question 13

Q

HAZPOWER

Answer

A

Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response
(29 CFR 1910.120)

Question 14

Q

SARA

Answer

A

 Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act
 Law on October 17th, 1986
 Known as EPCRA (Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act)
 Requires governors to designate a State Emergency Response Commission (SERC)
 {Section 301 to 303 of Emergency Planning}
 Local Emergency Planning Committees (LEPC)

Question 15

Q

Section 304 Emergency Release Notifications

Answer

A

Facilities must notify LEPC of any possible environmental release of specific chemicals

Question 16

Q

Section 311 – 312 Reporting requirements

Answer

A

 Facilities must provide MSDS if
 500 lbs. Extremely Hazardous
 10,000 lbs. All Other

Question 17

Q

Hazmat Regulations

Answer

A

 29 CFR 1920.120
 40 CFR 311
 49 CFR 172.101
 Table 1Materials – Placard ANY amount (1.1 / 1.2 / 1.3 / 2.3 / 4.3 / 5.2 / 6) Rad III
 Flammable vs. Combustible – Flash Point (FP) of 141°F

Question 18

Q

 Vapor Pressure

Answer

A

: How fast a liquid vaporizes or evaporates

Question 19

Q

Physical States

Answer

A

solid-liquid-gas

Question 20

Q

**Liquid

Answer

A

> 0mmHg / < 760mmHg

Question 21

Q

**Gas

Answer

A

> 760mmHg

Question 22

Q

VP H2O @ 68°F

Question 23

Q

Boiling Point

Answer

A

Temperature at which a liquid starts to boil.

Question 24

Q

Flash Point

Answer

A

Minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapors to form an
ignitable mixture.

Question 25

Q

Vapor Density

Answer

A

All liquid vapors are heavier than air

Question 26

Q

VAPOR DENSITY ( * VD) of Air

Question 27

Q

Specific Gravity : *SG of Air

Answer

A

= 1 (0.9 will float / 1.1 will sink)

Question 28

Q

Molecular Weight * MW of Air

Question 29

Q

~Methane

Answer

A

=16 (raises in air)

Question 30

Q

~Propane

Answer

A

= 44 (drops in air)

Question 31

Q

1% OF LEL OR UEL IS EQUAL TO?

Answer

A

= 10,000 PPM

Question 32

Q

LEL / UEL: Range of flammability

Answer

A

Concentration (percentage) of a gas or a vapor in air
capable of producing a flash of fire in presence of an ignition source

Question 33

Q

LEL:

Answer

A

Minimum mixture in air to ignite

Question 34

Q

UEL:

Answer

A

: Too rich, mixture will not ignite
i.e.  Methane: LEL 5% / UEL 15%

Question 35

Q

Photo Ionization (PID)

Answer

A

10.6 bulb

Question 36

Q

Flame Ionization (FID)

Answer

A

Must have hydrogen

Question 37

Q

PPM

Answer

A

= Lower the #, more toxic.

Question 38

Q

Mg/m³

Answer

A

MILLIGRAMS OF MERCURY CUBED

Question 39

Q

~ Polar

Question 40

Q

(~ Non Polar

Answer

A

= does not mix

Question 41

Q

Corrosive

Answer

A

= Burns, irritates or destructively attacks organic tissues
~ 0 to 6 = acid ~ 7 = neutral ~ 8 to 14 = base

Question 42

Q

Polymerization

Answer

A

= Process of combining single chemical units to form larger chemical
units. (Monomers > Polymers)

Question 43

Q

Miscible:

Answer

A

When a liquid is infinitely soluble in water

Question 44

Q

Sublimation

Answer

A

When a solid turns to gas (the change from a solid to gas without entering
liquid phase) skips liquid phase

Question 45

Q

1

Answer

A

= Air’s Vapor density

Question 46

Q

1

Answer

A

= Air’s Specific Gravity

Question 47

Q

29

Answer

A

molecular weight of air

Question 48

Q

10 is key for?

Answer

A

10% the LEL
10 PPM -CO
10 PPM-H2S
10-mr/hr

Question 49

Q

2=

Answer

A

2X Background (Rad)

Question 50

Q

PROPANE

Answer

A

44 DROPS IN AIR

Question 51

Q

VAPOR PRESSURE OF WATER

Question 52

Q

ACCEPTABLE OHMS LEVEL FOR A GROUNDING AND BONDING OPERATION

Answer

A

25 OHMS IS THE ACCEPTABLE LEVEL FOR GROUNDING AND BONDING

Question 53

Q

GASOLINE KEY FACTS

Answer

A

(BP-100F); (VP 38F); (FP -44*F)

Question 54

Q

760mm/Hg= 1ATM

Answer

A

=14.7PSI= 1 BAR

Question 55

Q

IDLH(RESPIRATORY STANDARDS)

Answer

A

PPM: THE LOWER NUMBER THE MORE TOXIC A PRODUCT IS

Question 56

Q

1300 RULE >

Answer

A

1300 X VP=PPM CONCENTRATION IN THE HEAD SPACE OF A CONTAINER

Question 57

Q

REGULATIONS

Answer

A

FEDERAL REGULATIONS/LAWS USED TO OVERSEE THE STORAGE AND TRANSPORT OF HAZARDOUS MATERIALS IN THE US

Question 58

Q

CFR

Answer

A

CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS

Question 59

Q

DOT: DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Answer

A

CFR 49 (ONLY APPLIES TO COMMERCIAL TRANSPORT)

Question 60

Q

OSHA: OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY & HEALTH ADMINISTRATION

Question 61

Q

EPA: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY

Question 62

Q

HAZARD CLASSES

Answer

A

9 HAZARD CLASSES EXIST

Question 63

Q

HAZARD CLASS #1

Answer

A

EXPLOSIVES (1.0-1.6)

Division 1.1 Mass explosion hazard (Black powder, TNT)
Division 1.2 Projection hazard (Aerial Flares, Detonating cord)
Division 1.3 Fire and minor blast hazard. Minor projection hazard (Liquid-fueled
Rocket motors)
Division 1.4 Explosive devices w/minor explosion hazard. No more than
25g/0.9oz of detonating material. (Line throwing rockets, practice ammo
Division 1.5 Very insensitive explosives. (Pilled Ammonium Nitrate, Fertilizerfuel Mixtures)
Division 1.6 Extremely insensitive articles without explosive hazard.

Question 64

Q

HAZARD CLASS #2

Answer

A

GASES (2.1-2.3) - Division 2.1 Flammable gases: Gases at 68°F or less and 14.7 psi ignitable when
in a mixture of 13% or less by volume with air.
- Division 2.2 Non-Flammable: Non-poisonous compressed gas or mixture with an
absolute pressure of 41psi. at 68°F and does not meet the definition of 2.1 or 2.3.
- Division 2.3 Poisonous by inhalation. A (most poisonous) to D (Least poisonous)

Answer 58

A

FLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTIBLE LIQUIDS
- Flammable: Flashpoint of less than 141°F/60.5°C
- Combustible: Flashpoint greater than 141°F and less than 200°F

Answer 59

A

FLAMMABLE SOLIDS (4.1-4.3)

Division 4.1 Flammable solids (Metal powders, self-reactive materials)
Division 4.2 Spontaneously Combustible and Self Heating Materials within 5
minutes of contact with air.
Division 4.3 Dangerous when wet

Answer 60

A

OXIDIZERS 5.1-5.2

Division 5.1 Oxidizers (yields oxygen, causes or enhances combustion of organic
materials.
Division 5.2 Organic Peroxides [Tendency to deflagrate (to burn, specially
suddenly and violently)]

Answer 61

A

POISONS 6.1-6.2

Division 6.1 Materials other than gases known to be toxic during transport or have
a toxic effect on animals.
Division 6.2 Contains a viable microorganism or microbial toxin with potential to
cause disease.

Answer 62

A

RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS I-III

Radioactive III: More than 50 milliroentgents/hr
Radioactive II: More than 0.5mr/hr and less than 50mr/hr
Radioactive I: Equal or less than 0.5mr.hr

Answer 63

A

CORROSIVE MATERIALS I-III

Solid or liquid that causes irreversible harm to human skin
(necrosis) over a 4 hour period.
Assigned to packing groups based on necrosis time:
I. Less than 3 minutes of necrosis time
II. 3 to 60 minutes of necrosis time
III. 60 to 240 minutes of necrosis time or ¼” corroding steel or aluminum surfaces
per year.

Answer 64

A

MISCELLANEOUS HAZARDOUS MATERIALS

Material which presents a hazard during transport but it is not included in any other
hazard class.

Answer 65

A

No longer exists
ORM-D is the exception. Consumer commodities packaged and distributed in a form
intended for retail sale or consumption by individuals for the purpose of personal care or
household use.

Answer 66

A

Specific to the mode of transportation.
Highway: Bill of Lading / Hazardous Waste Manifest (Driver)

Rail: Waybill (Crew)

Water: Dangerous Cargo

Manifest (Captain)

Air: Air Bill (Pilot)

Answer 67

A

*Proper Shipping Name >Hazmat Table Column 2

*Hazard Class >Hazmat Table Column 3

ID Number >Hazmat Table Column 4

*Packing Group – Hazmat Table Column 5

Answer 68

A

*Used when transporting a single Hazardous Material

*Words “Mixture” or “Solution” are added if the material has been mixed with a Non-Hazardous or Non-regulated ingredient.

Answer 69

A

*Used when transporting a mixture of 2 or more Hazardous Materials

*Identifies the generic Shipping Name by the letters N.O.S.

Answer 70

A

*Label: Describes the Hazardous Material within a container

*Multiple Hazards = Multiple labels

*Should be located near the proper shipping name and same surface

*Should not be placed on the bottom of the container

Answer 71

A

*Sets regulations for the handling and storage of Hazardous Materials

*HAZPOWER 29 CFR 1910.120 deals with hazardous waste operations and emergency
respond

Answer 72

A

Regulates the federal system of Hazardous Waste management.

Answer 73

A

*UN ID #

*Emergency Contact / Phone number

*RQ when applicable

Shipping name

*Hazard Class

Can be found in: Cab of vehicle
Train crew member
Holder on the bridge of vessel
Aircraft’s pilot possession

Answer 74

A

*Diamond shaped sign used on transport vehicles

*Include: Name / ID Number / Hazard Class

Answer 75

A

4 digit number found on: Placards
Shipping Papers
Packing

Answer 76

A

(DOT CFR 49)

Answer 77

A

Bulk containers with an internal volume greater than

Liquid: 118.9 gallons (450 Litters)
Solid: 881.8 lbs. (400 kg)
Gas: 1000 lbs. (456.6 kg, water capacity)

Answer 78

A

*Designed to carry petroleum products or alcohol.

*1,500 to 12,000 gallons of product.

*Internal pressure of 2.65 psi (min) to 4 psi (max)

*Top loaded only

Answer 79

A

Circular cross section
*5,000 to 8,000 gallons of product.
*Working pressure of 25 to 35 psi/g
*Flammable and combustible liquids, mild corrosives, poisons.

Answer 80

A

Single compartment
Working pressure of 15 to 50 psi/g
3,000 to 5,000 gallons of product
Liner bonded to the tank
Stiffening rings

Answer 81

A

Working pressure of 100 to 500 psi/g

8,000 to 15,000 gallons of product
Rounded ends
Values labeled as “vapor” or ”liquid”

Answer 82

A

Keeps product very cold (-130°F)

8,000 to 10,000 gallons of product
Highly insulated
Working pressure of 25.3 to 500 psi

Answer 83

A

2 to 20 tubes

9 to 48 inches in diameter
Up to 5,000 psi/g working pressure
Carry only gas under pressure (not liquid)

Answer 84

A

*Waybill: information specific to a particular rail car

Consist / Wheel Report: Lists all of the cars and their location and also identifies the
Hazmat cars.

Answer 85

A

Up to 100 psi/g

Relieve valve set at 75 psi/g
No expansion dome

Answer 86

A

Up to 600 psi/g

Carries 4,000 to 45,000 gallons of product
Process chemicals, Anhydrous Ammonia, LPG
Round Ends

Answer 87

A

Pressure of 25 psi/g or lower

-115°F
Liquid Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide, Argon, Hydrogen
No topside fittings

Answer 88

A

180 to 320 gallons of product

Up to 1,000 psi/g
Use to carry Chlorine, Phosgene

Answer 89

A

IM-101 / IM-102

Up to 100 PSI
All mode of transport

Answer 90

A

Simple→Displaces Oxygen
Chemical→Prevents the body from using Oxygen.

Answer 91

A

Effects depends on concentration
Acid or Base
Irreversible tissue damage

Answer 92

A

Temporary but occasionally severe inflammation of eyes, skin or respiratory
tract.

Answer 93

A

Cause allergic reactions

Answer 94

A

agent directly involved in causing cancer

Answer 95

A

substance that inhibits the function of neurons, cells in the nervous system

Answer 96

A

agent which induces genetic mutation

Answer 97

A

lead to structural and/or functional birth defects

Answer 98

A

Have a physical and chemical properties capable of causing harm

Be present in sufficient amounts to do harm
Be present for a sufficient amount of time
Have a route of entry to the body
Be able to reach a susceptible body organ or tissue

Answer 99

A

When a toxic substance or infectious agent is taken into the body or in direct contact
with the body

Answer 100

A

Acute: Short period, high concentration
Chronic: Long term, long concentration

Answer 101

A

Material clings to or saturates clothing or parts of your body

Answer 102

A

LD50: Lethal Dose 50. Amount of the substance required to kill 50% of the test
population
LD100: Lethal Dose 100. Amount of the substance required to kill 100% of the test
population
LC100: Lethal Concentration 100. Lethal concentration of a substance required to kill
100% of the test population

Answer 103

A

Average airborne concentration of substances to which is believed nearly all adults may
be repeatedly exposed in the work environment for an 8hr. workday without adverse
effects

Answer 104

A

Standard or legal limit. Maximum duration of exposed at this level is 15 minutes with no
more than 4 exposures in an 8hr day

Answer 105

A

Exposure to airborne contaminants that is “likely to cause death or immediate or delayed (within 30 minutes)
permanent adverse health effects or prevent escape from such an environment.

Answer 106

A

Skin Absorption - Toxic substances can be absorbed through the skin or may enter the
bloodstream through broken skin.

Inhalation – Most common. Rate and depth of respiration affect the amount of material
absorbed.
Ingestion – Toxic materials can be swallowed if contaminated hands or clothes come in
contact with the mouth.
Injection or puncturing – Result from contact with physical agents (syringes, high
pressure devices or sharp objects)
Eyes – 90% of chemicals can be absorbed through the eyes

Answer 107

A

Pre-incident planning provides a mechanism for making decisions calmly and rationally,
in advance of an emergency. The emergency incident scene is a poor environment in
which to make decisions.
Pre-incident planning provides an opportunity to gather information prior to an
emergency. Timely, accurate information may be difficult to obtain during a hazardous
materials emergency.

*Pre-incident planning provides response agencies and personnel with the information
needed to act in an effective, well-coordinated manner. Coordination of responders is
often a problem at hazardous materials emergencies.

Answer 108

A

Compiling Information:
Additional information will help you conduct site surveys. Obtain information from
public records regarding material usage and waste, traffic patterns, past experience and
observation, and other sources of information about each facility.
Preparing for On-Site Surveys
Once you have established priorities and tapped and analyzed available sources of
information, conduct the on-site surveys. An on-site survey helps you assess relevant
information, including the location of utility and product shutoffs, built-in protection
systems, and areas where spilled products may pool.

Answer 109

A

Previous inspection reports * Drawings * Permit applications * History of fires or chemical
incidents * MSDSs or lists of chemicals * Maps * Adjacent vulnerable locations

Answer 110

A

Location/exposures * Type of construction * Type of business/process * Water supply *
Building access * Communications and security * Electrical/gas shutoffs * Water shutoffs and
sprinklers * Location/type/quantity of chemicals and their hazards * Emergency medical support
available * Work schedules/number of employees * Emergency resources on site/contingency
plans * Protective clothing available on site * Vulnerability of surrounding area/ability to
evacuate * Adjacent facilities and other exposures that cannot be evacuated or shut down *
Compatibility of resources * Waterways and storm sewers, particularly those that empty into
waterway

Answer 111

A

Once materials have been identified, assess the hazards posed by each material and those that
could result from a combination of these materials. Flammability, reactivity, and other hazards
can be assessed using a variety of sources.
Potential Health and Environmental Effects
Among the most critical areas of pre-incident planning are the specific health and environmental
effects of materials that could be involved in a hazardous materials emergency. The safety of
emergency personnel as well as civilians is directly related to health effects of materials.

Answer 112

A

When you assemble information about a site or transportation corridor, include activities that
take place prior to, during, and after visiting the site or area

Answer 113

A

INFORMATION Regarding access to and exit from a site or area is essential to a comprehensive pre–INCIDENT PLAN

Answer 114

A

The location of incidents may also present major problems for fire fighters. The presence of large
bodies of water, steep hills, high buildings, confined spaces, very porous or very compact soil,
hot asphalt, or uneven terrain all increase the likelihood of injuries and add to the complexities of
dealing with an incident

Answer 115

A

Noise is a major but often overlooked hazard. It often interferes with communications between
the entry team and command. Noise may be generated by sirens, radios, explosions, air horns,
machinery, or venting from containers under pressure

Answer 116

A

Hazardous materials emergencies often expand beyond the initial hazard area. Runoff, vapor
clouds, and fire exposures are a few of the potential avenues for spreading a hazard. An
additional function of pre-incident planning is to provide information on exposures

Answer 117

A

Pre-incident planning helps you identify the protective features of a site and to recognize the
abilities and limitations of any in-house response forces. Understanding their capabilities and
limitations in advance helps you assign roles and avoid misunderstandings during an emergency

Answer 118

A

A key task in pre-incident planning is the objective assessment of the capabilities and limitations
of response personnel in dealing with potential emergencies at a fixed site or in a particular
transportation corridor.

Answer 119

A

– Temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid

Answer 120

A

Temperature at which a liquid becomes a solid.

Answer 121

A

Temperature at which a liquid becomes a vapor.

Answer 122

A

Measurement of the ability of a material to evaporate
760 mm/hg = 1 ATM = 14.7 psi = 1 BAR

Answer 123

A

Measurement of the tendency of a gas to either sink or rise
Air = 1  > 1 = sink
< 1 = rise

Answer 124

A

Air = 29  > 29 = sink
< 29 = rise

Answer 125

A

How much of one material is in relation to another. Factor that
determines the toxicity of a substance.

Answer 126

A

Concentration of a vapor or gas in the air.

Answer 127

A

Weight of a material compared to water (1)
> 1 = sink
< 1 = rise

Answer 128

A

Degree that one substance will mix completely with another substance

Answer 129

A

Liquid is infinitely soluble in water

Answer 130

A

Polar = Positive and Negative charges are present – Non Polar = Positive and
Negative charges are evenly distributed within the structure thereby balancing each other
out

Answer 131

A

Can make a fire burn hotter, faster and cause explosions
Unstable and reactive
Usually does not need air to burn

Answer 132

A

Act as both Oxidizer and Corrosive

Answer 133

A

Contains both an Oxidizer and a compound that can act as fuel.
Should be treated as Class 1 Explosive.

Answer 134

A

Unstable molecules containing excess Oxygen
Decompose rapidly when subjected to heat

Answer 135

A

Process of combining single chemical units (Monomers) to form a larger chemical
unit (Polymer)

Answer 136

A

Material that burns, irritates or destructively attacks organic tissue (skin)
Based on the PH Scale (0 to 14)
Acid 0 to 7
Base 7 to 14

Answer 137

A

Ability of a material to undergo a chemical reaction

Answer 138

A

Minimum temperature at which a spark or flame can cause an instantaneous flash in
the vapor space above the liquid.

Answer 139

A

Temperature at which a material’s vapor start to burn without a flame or other
ignition source (Solids=400°F)

Answer 140

A

Maximum Safe Storage Temperature: Above this temperature a chemical may
become unstable, spontaneously igniting and rupturing the container

Answer 141

A

Self-Accelerating Decomposition Temperature: Above this temperature a chemical
will become unstable and could rupture it’s container and ignite violently.

Answer 142

A

Ability of a liquid to pour: - Low Viscosity (water) pours easily
High Viscosity (oil) pours slowly

Answer 143

A

Radioactivity: Ability of certain materials to emit energy as a result of changes to the
nucleus or center of their atoms leading to instability.

Answer 144

A

-Travel only a short distance
- Can be stopped by a thin film of water or a sheet of paper
- Largest Radioactive Particles
- Hazardous if allowed to enter the body

Answer 145

A

Can travel up to 30’ from its source
Can penetrate skin

Answer 146

A

Higher energy and can penetrate further
Electromagnetic waves without electrical charge
29 CFR 1910.96

Answer 147

A

Instrument’s response or reading relative to the calibration gas

Answer 148

A

Time that takes the instrument to obtain the sample and produce a reading.
Factors: Hose length, flow rate of the pump, length of time for the instrument to
generate a response.

Answer 149

A

Also known as Explosive Meters
Tests the Lower Explosive Level (LEL)
0% to 100% range of the LEL

Answer 150

A

Calibrated to indicate concentrations between 0% and 25%

Answer 151

A

Specific Gas detector
Found on “Multi-Gas” or “Toxic” meter

Answer 152

A

Measures concentrations of known gas in the air
Uses an vacuum pump
Calibrated to specific gas

Answer 153

A

Radiation causes ionization in the detecting media

Answer 154

A

Detects organic vapor and gases
Cannot determine the unknowns in the air
Indicates that there is a high or low concentration of a chemical present

Answer 155

A

Electrons (negative charge) are held in orbit around the nucleus of an atom (positive
charge). The energy required to remove the outermost electron is called “Ionization
Potential” (IP)
IP: Unique value for a specific compound
Calibrated to Benzene
Up to 400 to 500 PPM

Answer 156

A

Sensitive to low PPM changes
Detect any chemical that can burn.

Answer 157

A

Pro: Readily available
Highest level of respiratory protection and Oxygen efficiency
Con: Bulky
Limited air supply
May impair movement
Unknown resistance to chemicals

Answer 158

A

Pro: Longer work periods
Less bulky and less heavy
Con: Hose line impairs mobility
Not approved for IDLH environments
OSHA / NIOSH limits hose length to 300’

Answer 159

A

Pro: Enhanced mobility
Increased work duration
Less physical stress
Con: Cannot be used on IDLH or environment with 02 deficiency
Only protects against specific chemicals
Limited duration of protection
No positive pressure

Answer 160

A

1920.120
NFPA 471 to 472
NFPA 1991 to 1993

Answer 161

A

Greatest level of chemical protection
SCBA or PPSAR with escape SCBA inside suit
Vapor protective, fully encapsulating, chemical resistant
Virtually eliminates the possibility of any contact
Limitations: ~ Bulky, does not allow for cooling
~ Reduce mobility and dexterity
~ Cost
~ Man power needed to don / doff

Answer 162

A

Splash protective
Not for vapor / gas protection
Cooler / more mobility
Not vapor / gas tight

Answer 163

A

Same splash protection as Level B
Reduced level of respiratory protection

Answer 164

A

Station uniform / footwear
Eye protection / gloves

Answer 165

A

Interference with the body’s ability to regulate temperature
- Heat cramps: ~ Painful intermittent cramps
~ Heavy sweating
~ Variable pulse and respirations
- Heat exhaustion: ~ Profuse sweating
~ Rapid / Shallow respirations
~Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, cool, pale, clammy
- Heat Stroke: ~ Life threatening
~ Red, Hot, Dry skin
~ No sweating
~ Core temperature > 104.5 °F

Answer 166

A

Frostnip: ~Sudden whitening of the skin
~Some discomfort
Superficial Frostbite: ~Waxy or white skin surface
~Underlying tissue is resilient
Deep Frostbite: ~Cold pale skin
~Underlying tissue is solid
Hypothermia: ~Systemic problem
~Shivering to apathy  Sleepiness  Slow Pulse
Coma like respirationsFreezing of extremities Death

Answer 167

A

Claustrophobia
Loss of dexterity and movement

Answer 168

A

Penetration: Movement of a chemical through existing openings in a material or
garment24
Permeation: Movement of a chemical through a material at a molecular level
(NFPA 1991)
Degradation: Actual, observable or measurable change in a material caused by
contact with another agent.

Answer 169

A

Removal of hazardous substances from employees and their equipment
to the extent necessary to preclude the occurrence of foreseeable adverse health
effects.
Eliminate or reduce exposure to harmful substances.

Answer 170

A

Surface: Occurs when product remains on the surface of a protective garment.
Permeation: Difficult to detect. Contaminants soak into the protective garment.
Difficult to remove.
Direct: Person or object comes in direct contact with the contaminant
Secondary: Person or object (clean) comes in contact with a contaminated person
or object.

Answer 171

A

Emergency: Designed to quickly decontaminate a civilian or responder who
cannot wait for technical decon.
Technical: Planned and systematic removal of contaminants from personnel and
equipment. Formalized set of procedures and equipment designed to progressively
clean individuals and equipment

Answer 172

A

Dilution / Washing: Use of water to carry away and/or dissolve or dilute a
chemical hazard. Dilution effectively reduces the concentration of soluble
chemicals.
Absorption: Soaking up a liquid contaminant with another medium. Produces less
waste.
Absorption: Adherence of a chemical to the surface of another medium.
Isolation: Process of segregating contaminated items from other items and
personnel. Placing contaminated items in bags or specifically designated drums.
Disposal: Legal removal of contaminated items to regulated treatment or storage
facilities.
Chemical Degradation: Process in which a hazardous chemical is changed or
degraded into another, less hazardous compound by the addition of a non-reactive
substance.

Answer 173

A

~Isopropyl Alcohol > Rubbing Alcohol
~Sodium Hypochlorite > Bleach
~Sodium Hydroxide > Drain Cleaner
~Sodium Carbonate > Washing Soda
~Calcium Oxide > Lime

Answer 174

A

Form of chemical degradation used with Acid and Bases. Object
is to bring the PH as near to neutral as possible.

Answer 175

A

Liquid portion of a contaminant is allowed to evaporate or “gas off”
either completely disappearing or leaving behind solids dissolved or suspended in
solution.

Answer 176

A

Process by which another agent is added to a hazardous liquid and
combines with it physically and/or chemically to produce a solid

Answer 177

A

Uses a HEPA vacuum system to remove dust and other hazardous
materials from personnel and equipment

Answer 178

A

Uses compressed air to blow off or remove dust ad some liquids.

Answer 179

A

Used only when the hazard involves a low-toxicity
material. Has a significant cross-contamination risk.

Answer 180

A

Before entering the Hot Zone
Uphill / Up wind
Marked and easy to see
Considerations: ~ Product, Weather Topography

Answer 181

A

Physical Hazards: Slip / Trip hazards – Barriers – Obstruction – Environmental –
Weather.
Container hazards.
Container stability.
Container integrity.
Energy release.

Answer 182

A

Have a plan.
Stay away from the product.
Have the correct tools.
Reduce leaks before containing them.
Protect against fire.
Basic: Diking / Damming
Advanced: Plugging / Patching / Over packing
Special: Transfer / Neutralization / Saddle Tank Ops.

Answer 183

A

Process of limiting a product spill to the smallest possible area.

Answer 184

A

Solids: Site control – plastic sheeting – tarps.
Liquids: Challenging – easy to spread based on terrain and viscosity.
~ Diking / Damming: Easiest method to confine a spill
~ Absorption: Use of another material placed directly on the liquid to soak.
~ Adsorption: Use of another material placed on the product to adhere to the
surface.
~ Diversion Channels liquid to another, less sensitive area.
~ Retention: Act of holding liquids until they are neutralized.
~ Dispersion: Use of special agents to break up non-soluble liquids in water.
Gases / Vapors:
~ Confining liquids to a small area reduces vapor production
~ Suppression: Use of foam blanket to prevent or reduce vapor production.
~ Dispersion: Moving gas / vapors to another area or diluting it’s concentration in
air.

Answer 185

A

Stopping or slowing a leak from a container.
- Neutralization: Adding a different chemical to reduce or eliminate the hazards
- Over packing: Process of placing a damaged container into an undamaged
container.
- Plugging: Placing an object into an opening of a container.
- Patching: Placing of a material over an opening on a container.
- Bandage: Use with or instead of patches.
- Auxiliary Closure Devices: Meant to be use when an engineered opening (Valve,
cover, man way) has been breached.

Answer 186

A

Kit A: Cylinders up to 150 lbs.
Kit B: One Ton Cylinders.
Kit C: Cargo Train cars.

Answer 187

A

Cracks: Narrow split or breaks due to fatigue or impact,
Scores: Reduction in thickness when container is indented.
Gouge: Reduction in thickness when part of the container material is removed.
Dent: Deformation in a tank caused by blunt object.
Burns: ~ Wheel: Constant contact with a turning wheel which reduces the
thickness of the tank car.
~ Rail: Result of a moving tank passing over a stationary object.
~ Street: Deformation in a tank shell caused by sliding on pavement.

Answer 188

A

Field product removal methods
- Transferring: Product must be transferred prior to up righting if extensive damage
is present to tank, frame, understructure or other mechanical damage or the site
conditions prohibits the up righting of the tank.
- Venting: Process of releasing flammable and nonflammable liquefied compressed
gas vapors into the atmosphere to reduce internal pressure
- Flaring: Control release and disposal of flammable materials by burning from the
outlet of a pipe.
- Venting and Burning: Method of removing liquefied flammable compressed gas
or flammable liquids from a tank by creating openings through the controlled use
of explosives.

Answer 189

A

CL2/ Hazard Class 2.3 / UN 1017
Corrosive / Toxic
Can cause frostbite
(+ Water) = Hydrochloric Acid
VP = 6.8 ATM
VD = 2.47
BP = -29 °F
SG = 1.467
Expansion Ratio 460:1

Answer 190

A

OSHA 29 1910.120 / EPA 40 CFR 311

Answer 191

A

Understand the nature of the hazard.
Gather information about the hazard. (Time consuming)
Size up ~ Hazard Identification: Chemical Identities, Quantities,
Handling, Location, Means of spread, Hazards related to spill and/or
release.
~ Vulnerability: Types of exposure, Extent of the vulnerable
area, Private and public property involved/compromised, Environment.
~ Risk Analysis: Assesses the likelihood of injury or death.

Answer 192

A

Proper personnel with adequate resources for different
tasks must be on scene before any offensive operations begin.

Answer 193

A

Risk taken must be justified by the likely benefits of their
actions

Answer 194

A

Seen or be known to exist
Time frame of exposure to material
Viable?
Entrapment

Answer 195

A

~ Identity of the materials
~ Visible?
~ Properties
~ Ignition sources present
~ Amount of material
~ Concentration in the area around patient
~ Status of container and/or vehicle involved

Answer 196

A

~ Adequately skilled and experienced
~ Monitoring devices available
~ Appropriate PPE
~ Appropriate staffing
~ Time frame for extrication
~ Proper tools

Answer 197

A

Responsible for entry into the Hot Zone. It handles

Answer 198

A

~ Identifies the boundaries of various zones
~ Monitors access routes
~ Ensures that contaminants are not being spread

Answer 199

A

Hot, Warm, Cold (Based on level of
contamination)
- Safety: ~ Supports Hazmat Sector’s OIC
- Research: ~ Retrieves printed and database information (Health Hazards,
handling techniques, PPE recommendation, environmental effects)
- Entry: ~ Responsible for operations in the Hot Zone
- Decon: ~ Responsible for removing contaminants from personnel and
equipment.
- Termination of Incident: ~ Phase in which FD activities are concluded and
responsibility is transferred to Federal, State or local agency responsible
for clean up
- Waste Handling: ~ hazardous waste should be placed in compatible
containers and left in the custody of the individual in charge of clean-up
efforts.

Answer 200

A

defined as an unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property

Answer 201

A

~ Bacteria, fungi, viruses or toxins
~ Dispersed as solids, liquid, gases aerosols and vapors
~ 1 to 5 micrometers can remain in the air for hours
~ Different dispersion methods allow the agent to affect eyes and skin by direct
contact.

Answer 202

A

~ Small quantities
~ Highly radioactive

Answer 203

A

~ Flammable devices that are thrown or placed
~ When detonated they create large amounts of fire
~ Consider secondary devices

Answer 204

A

~ Number one terrorist weapon
~ Pipe bombs
~ Plastic explosives

Answer 205

A

~ Can exist as solids, liquids or gases depending on the temperature / pressure
~ Hydrogen Cyanide, Chlorine, Phosgene
~ Vesicants / Blister agents: Respiratory collapse, aspiration, pneumonia, chemical
burns.
~ Blood Agents: Cyanide, Arsine, Carbon Monoxide
~ Chocking Pulmonary: Irritation, Damage to mucus membranes.
~ Nerve Agents: Mark I Kits. Organo-phosphate poisoning
~ Categories : Neurotoxins (Nerve Agents), Chemical Asphyxiants (Blood
Agents), Respiratory Irritants (Chocking Agents), Skin Irritants (Blister
Agents), Anti-personnel (Riot Control)

Answer 206

A

Substances capable of causing disease (Hepatitis, HIV)

Answer 207

A

Combining weapons produces even larger number of victims and destruction (i.e.
dirty bombs)

Answer 208

A

~Thermal: Hazards from both hot and cold substances. Fire or heat generated by a
detonation or chemical reaction.

~ Radiological: Alpha, Beta particles and Gamma radiation.

~ Asphyxiation: Simple: Lack of O2 (by depletion or displacement), Chemical:
Inability of the body to exchange air.

~ Chemical: Toxic or corrosive materials.

~ Etiological: Bacteria, Rickettsia, Viruses, and Toxins. Hazardous if a device is
used to disperse them.

~ Mechanical: Physical item or situation that causes trauma. Blast pressure,
shockwave, fragmentation

Answer 209

A

~Tactical: Hostile threat removed (PD).
~ Operational: Life Safety Objectives.
~ Crime Scene (PD).
~ Thread lightly.

Answer 210

A

Preparation
Approach the scene
Secure and protect the scene
Initiate primary survey
Evaluate physical evidence possibilities
Narrative description
Photography
Diagram / Sketch of scene
Detailed search
Record and collect physical evidence
Conduct final survey
Turn over to PD

Answer 211

A

~ RF shielded high impact plastic case
~ CSA classified for Class I, Division I, Groups A, B, C, and D hazardous atmospheres
~ Response time T90 within 30 seconds
~ Operating Temperature + Humidity: -20 °C to 50°C/ Bellow 85% RH (Without
Condensation)
~ Power Supply and Operating Time:
~ Four (4) C Size Alkaline (standard) / 16 hrs (non alarm operation, full charge)
~ Four (4) C Size Ni-MH (optional) / 18 hrs hrs (non alarm operation, full charge)
/ 500 charges cycle
~ Dimensions and weight: 5.6”H x 2.5”W x 1.5”D
 Calibrated to Methane (CH4).

Answer 212

A

Oxygen Sensor
The O2 sensor is a galvanic type of sensor. A membrane behind the openings on the sensor face
allows gas to diffuse into the sensor at a rate proportional to the partial pressure of oxygen. The
oxygen reacts in the sensor and produces a voltage proportional to the concentration of oxygen.
The voltage is measured by the EAGLE 2’s circuitry, converted to a measurement of gas
concentration, and displayed on the LCD

Answer 213

A

The standard factory configuration for the EAGLE 2 allows the user to use the RANGE ▼
SHIFT button to change the displayed detection units of the catalytic combustible channel
between %LEL, ppm, and %volume. The detection range of the combustible catalytic channel
when set for ppm or %volume will correspond to 0 - 100% LEL for the configured gas. For
example, the LEL for methane (CH4) is 5% volume, or 50,000 ppm. So if the catalytic
combustible channel is displayed in terms of %volume, the full scale is 5.00% and if it is
displayed in terms of ppm, the full scale is 50,000 ppm.

Answer 214

A

NOTE: False alarms may be caused by radio frequency (RF) or electromagnetic (EMI)
interference. Keep the EAGLE 2 away from RF and EMI sources such as radio transmitters or
large motors.

Answer 215

A

LOW ALARM- CONCENTRATION OF GAS RISES ABOVE THE LOW ALARM SETTING OR FALLS BELOW THE LOW ALARM SETTING FOR 02

ALRM1 APPEARS NEXT TO GAS READING

ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH ONCE PER SECOND

BACKLIGHT TURNS ON

Answer 216

A

PULSING TONE ONCE/ PER SECOND

Answer 217

A

CONCETRATION OF GAS RISES ABOVE THE HIGH ALARM SETTING

Answer 218

A

ALRM2 APPEARS NEXT TO THE GAS READING

ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH TWICE PER/ SECOND

BACKLIGHT TURNS ON

Answer 219

A

PULSING TONE TWICE PER SECOND

Answer 220

A

CONCENTRATION OF CO OR H2S RISES ABOVE THE TWA OR STEL ALARM SETTING

Answer 221

A

ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH ONCE PER SECOND

BACKLIGHT TURNS ON

TWA OR STEL APPEARS NEXT TO GAS READING ON LCD SCREEN

Answer 222

A

PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 223

A

(OVER) APPEARS NEXT TO GAS READING

GAS READING INDICATES FULL SCALE

ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH TWICE PER SECOND

BACKLIGHT TURNS ON

Answer 224

A

PULSING TONE TWICE PER SECOND

Answer 225

A

THE DISPLAY INDICATES (FAIL LOW FLOW LEVEL)

ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH IN A DOUBLE PULSING PATTERN ONCE PER SECOND

BACKLIGHT TURNS OUT

Answer 226

A

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 227

A

BATT APPEARS VERTICALLY ALONG THE LEFT SIDE OF THE LCD SCREEN

Answer 228

A

NO INDICATIONS

Answer 229

A

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 230

A

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 231

A

FAILED SENSORS APPEAR AT THE TOP OF THE DISPLAY AND THE FAILED SENSOR IS INDICATED

ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH IN A DOUBLE PULSING PATTERN ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 232

A

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 233

A

The EAGLE 2 will sound an alarm and flash the LED arrays when one of the target gas
concentrations rises above the Low Alarm level, or in the case of oxygen falls below the Low
Alarm level, for that gas

Answer 234

A

The EAGLE 2 also sounds an alarm and flashes the LED arrays when
one of the target gas concentrations rises above the High Alarm level and when the STEL and
TWA alarm levels are reached for CO and H2S

Answer 235

A

If an alarm condition occurs while you are in Display Mode, the EAGLE 2 will
automatically bring up the alarm screen instead.

Answer 236

A

Self-resetting alarms (ALARM LATCHING set to SELF RESET)
Self-resetting alarms automatically shut off and reset when the gas reading falls below (or rises
above for an oxygen low alarm) the alarm setting. You cannot reset self-resetting alarms with the
POWER ENTER RESET button. You can set self-resetting alarms with or without the alarm
silence feature

Answer 237

A

Latching alarms (ALARM LATCHING set to LATCHING)
Latching alarms will remain in effect until the gas reading falls below (or rises above for an
oxygen low alarm) the alarm setting and they are reset with the POWER ENTER RESET button.

Answer 238

A

ALARM SILENCE set to ON and ALARM LATCHING set to LATCHING are the factory
settings
Press and release any button to silence the buzzer. If the gas concentration was still above the
alarm level when the button was pressed, the LED arrays continue to flash, and the EAGLE 2
continues to display the current alarm level. The gas reading must fall below (or rise above for an
oxygen low alarm) an alarm setting before you can reset the alarm.

Answer 239

A

Gas reading must fall below (or rise above for an oxygen low alarm) an alarm setting before you
can reset the alarm. When the alarm condition passes, press and release the POWER ENTER
RESET button to reset the alarm. The LED arrays and buzzer turn off and the EAGLE 2 alarm
indications on the display turn off.

Answer 240

A

Two other operating modes are accessible when the EAGLE 2 is in Measuring Mode. They are
Display Mode and Calibration Mode. This section describes using the EAGLE 2 in Display
Mode. In Display Mode you can:
* display peak readings
* display the minimum operating and current battery voltage
* select how the active channels are displayed on the LCD

Answer 241

A

turn the catalytic LEL sensor on or off (if there is a TC or infrared combustible channel along
with a catalytic combustible channel)
enable or disable methane elimination mode (if the catalytic combustible gas channel is
configured appropriately in the CONFIGURE GASES item in Setup Mode)
Temporarily configure the catalytic combustible channel for a target gas other than the one
used for calibration (if the RELATIVE RESPONSE item in Setup Mode is set to ON)
display STEL readings (H2S and CO only)
display TWA readings (H2S and CO only)
display alarm settings
select the user ID (if the USER/STATION ID item in Setup Mode is set to ON)
select the station ID (if the USER/STATION ID item in Setup Mode is set to ON)
display time in operation
Display date and time
display remaining data logging time and clear data logger memory (if the DATA LOG
MEMORY item in Setup Mode is set to ON)

Answer 242

A

To enter Display Mode and scroll from one screen to the next or skip an item when a question
is asked, press and release the DISPLAY ADJUST NO button.
To enter an item when a question is asked, press and release the AIR ▲ YES button.
To change a flashing parameter, use either the AIR ▲ YES button or RANGE ▼ SHIFT
button

Answer 243

A

Each screen displays for 20 seconds. If you do not press a button within 20 seconds, the
EAGLE 2 automatically returns to Measuring Mode.

Answer 244

A

The peak screen displays the highest (lowest for oxygen) concentrations detected since the
EAGLE 2 was turned on. Readings are stored in the EAGLE 2’s memory until a higher level is
detected (lower for oxygen), the peak reading is cleared, or the EAGLE 2 is turned off. The
lunch break feature enables the EAGLE 2 to save peak readings when it is turned off so it can
continue them when it is turned on again
To clear the peak readings, do the following:

Answer 245

A

With the Peak Screen displayed, press and release the POWER ENTER RESET button.
The following screen will appear.
Press and release the AIR ▲ YES button. The peak readings will be reset and the unit
will return to the Peak Screen. If you do not want to clear the peak readings, press and
release the DISPLAY ADJUST NO button and the unit will return to the Peak Screen
without clearing the peak readings.

Answer 246

A

BATTERY MIN LEVEL
4.3 VOLTS

The Battery Voltage Screen displays the minimum operating voltage and the current battery
voltage. Fully charged alkaline batteries typically indicate 6.0 volts; fully charged Ni-MH
batteries typically indicate 5.2 volts

Answer 247

A

The Gas Display Screen gives you the option to select how the active channels are displayed.
You can display all of them on the screen at the same time, one at a time with automatic
scrolling, or one at time with manual scrolling. The factory setting displays all of the active
channels at the same time

SELECT GASES DISPLAYED

Answer 248

A

With the Gas Display Screen displayed, press and release the AIR ▲ YES button. The
following screen will appear with the cursor blinking.
Use the AIR ▲ YES and RANGE ▼ SHIFT buttons to place the cursor next to the desired
choice.41
Press and release the POWER ENTER RESET button. The unit continues to the STEL Screen
and the display configuration will reflect your choice when you return to Measuring Mode.
If you do not want to change the setting, press and release the DISPLAY
ADJUST NO button and the unit will return to the Gas Display Screen.

SELECT GASES DISPLAYED

SELECT
>DISPLAY ALL
SCROLL AUTO
SCROLL MANUAL

Answer 249

A

The STEL Screen displays the short term exposure limit (STEL) readings for H2S and CO only.
The STEL reading is the average reading over the last 15 minutes

Answer 250

A

The TWA Screen displays the time weighted average (TWA) readings for H2S and CO only. The
TWA reading is the average reading over the last 8 hours. If 8 hours have not elapsed since the
last time the TWA reading was cleared, the average is still calculated over 8 hours.

Answer 251

A

The View Alarm Settings Screen gives you the option to view the gas alarm settings for all
active channels.
To view the gas alarm settings, do the following:
With the View Alarm Settings Screen displayed, press and release the AIR ▲ YES button.
The following screen appears showing Channel 1 alarm points

Answer 252

A

If the channel description is too long to fit across the screen, press and release the POWER
ENTER RESET button to view the remainder of the displayed channel’s description. Press and
release the POWER ENTER RESET button again to return to the previous screen.

Answer 253

A

If the number of alarm settings is too many to display on one screen, a down arrow will appear
in the lower right corner of the display indicating that there are additional alarm points. Press and
release the RANGE ▼ SHIFT button to scroll down and display the remainder of the gas alarm
settings for the displayed channel and again to return to the previous screen.

Answer 254

A

In Calibration Mode, you can move through a menu of screens to do the following:
* Perform a span adjustment on all channels simultaneously using auto calibration
* Perform a span adjustment on one channel at a time using single calibration
* Perform a fresh air (zero) adjustment

Answer 255

A

PROBLEM: THE LCD SHOWS ABNORMALLY HIGH OR LOW READINGS BUT OTHER GAS DETECTION INSTRUMENTS DO NOT

CAUSES: THE EAGLE 2 MAY NEED TO BE RECALIBRATED.

CAUSES: THE SENSOR FOR THE AFFECTED CHANNEL(S) MAY NEED REPLACMENT

SOLUTION:
1.RECALIBRTE THE METER

IF THE ISSUE CONTINUES REPLACE THE SENSOR FOR THE AFFECTED CHANNEL(S) AND CALIBRATE THE AFFECTED CHANNEL(S)
IF THE DIFFICULTIES CONTINUE, CONTACT RKI FOR FURTHER INSTRUCTION

Answer 256

A

3 seconds response time
It monitors Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC) using a photoionization detector (PID)
with a 9.8 eV,(10.6 eV), or 11.7 eV gas-discharge lamps.
 More than 16 hours of continuous monitoring with rechargeable battery pack
Designed to continuously monitor VOC vapor at parts-per-million (ppm) levels
Preset alarm thresholds for STEL, TWA, low- and high-level peak values.
260,000-point data logging storage capacity
It gives real-time measurements and activates alarm signals whenever the exposure
exceeds preset limits.
The default setting for your instrument is:
User Mode: Basic
Operation Mode: Hygiene

Answer 257

A

Size: 9.25” L x 3.6” W x 2.9” H
- Weight: 28 oz. with battery pack
- Detector: Photoionization sensor with 9.8, 10.6, or 11.7 eV UV lamp
- Battery: A 4.2V/3300mAH rechargeable Lithium-Ion battery pack (snap in, field
replaceable, at non-hazardous location only) Alkaline battery holder (for 4 AA batteries)
Battery Charging: Less than 8 hours to full charge
- Operating Hours: Up to16 hours continuous operation
- Display: Large dot matrix screen with backlight
- Response time (T
90 in 2 seconds
- Accuracy 10 to 2000 ppm: ±3% at calibration point.
- Inlet Probe: Flexible 5” tubing
- Direct Readout: Instantaneous, average, STEL, TWA and peak value, and battery
voltage
- Sampling Pump: Internally integrated. Flow rate: 450 to 550 cc/min.
- Temperature: -20º C to 50º C (-4º to 122º F)
- Humidity: 0% to 95% relative humidity (non-condensing)
Low Voltage Warning
When the battery’s charge falls below a preset voltage, the instrument warns you by
beeping once and flashing once every minute, and the “empty battery” icon blinks on and
off once per second.

Answer 258

A

An internal clock battery is mounted on one of the instrument’s printed circuit boards.
This long-life battery keeps settings in memory from being lost whenever the Li-ion
battery or alkaline batteries are removed

Answer 259

A

When the instrument is turned off, all the current real-time data including last measured
values are erased. However, the data log data is preserved in non-volatile memory.

Answer 260

A

The instrument is programmed to operate in Basic User Level/Hygiene Mode as its default. This
gives you the most commonly needed features while requiring the fewest parameter adjustments.
Pressing [N/-] steps you from one screen to the next, and eventually return to the main display. If
you do not press a key within 60 seconds after entering a display, the instrument reverts to its
main display.
After the instrument is turned on, it runs through the start-up menu. Then the messages “Please
apply zero gas…” is displayed. At this point, you can perform a zero air (fresh air) calibration. If
the ambient air is clean, you can use that. Otherwise, use a cylinder of zero air.
Start zero calibration by pressing Start. You see the message “Zeroing…” followed by a 30-
second countdown. Note: You can press [MODE] to quit, bypassing the zero air calibration.
When zero calibration is complete, you see the message:
Zeroing is done! Reading = 0.0 ppm
The instrument is now sampling and collecting data.

Answer 261

A

During each measurement period, the gas concentration is compared with the programmed alarm
limits (gas concentration alarm limit settings). If the concentration exceeds any of the preset
limits, the loud buzzer and red flashing LED are activated immediately to warn you of the alarm
condition.
In addition, the instrument alarms if one of the following conditions occurs: battery voltage falls
below a preset voltage level, failure of the UV lamp, or pump stall.
Preset Alarm Limits & Calibration
The instrument is factory calibrated with standard calibration gas, and is programmed with
default alarm limits.

Answer 262

A

A memory error has occurred

TO CORRECT THIS RANGE & DOWN BUTTON+SHIFT

DISPLAY ADJUST NO BUTTON AND RELEASE BOTH.

ENTER PASSWORD WILL APPEAR- THEN ENTER THE (PW-1994)
THEN SET DEFAULT SCREEN

TRY (POWER-ENTER-RESET) IF THIS DOES NOT WORK VISUALLY INSPECT THE PROBE HOSE.

CHECK THE EXTERNAL HYDROPHOBIC FILTER

CHECK THE INTERNAL HYDROPHOBIC FILTER

PUMP MAY BE MALFUNCTIONING

Answer 263

A

Noninvasive, arterial oxygen saturation and pulse rate monitor. The Rad-57 features a
multicolored LED display that continuously displays numeric values for SpO2 and pulse
rate, a Low Signal IQ Indicator (Low SIQ) indicator, alarm status, alarm silence and
battery
Over 8 hours of continuous use on 4 “AA” alkaline batteries

Answer 264

A

*uses a multi-wavelength sensor to distinguish between oxygenated blood, deoxygenated
blood, blood with carbon monoxide content and blood with oxidized hemoglobin
* Oxyhemoglobin (oxygenated blood), deoxyhemoglobin (non-oxygenated blood),
carboxyhemoglobin (blood with carbon monoxide content) and methemoglobin (blood
with oxidized hemoglobin content) species differ in their absorption of visible and
infrared light
*The amount of arterial blood in tissue changes with your pulse (photoplethysography).
Therefore, the amount of light absorbed by the varying quantities of arterial blood
changes as well.

Answer 265

A

BATTERY LEVEL INDICATOR
Four LED indicators provide information on the remaining battery capacity. The operator
should monitor these indicators periodically to determine remaining battery life and if the
batteries should be replaced. Battery capacity is indicated in the following chart.

4LEDS- (100%-75%)
3LEDS-(75%-50%)
2LEDS-(50%-25%)
1LED -(25%-10%)
1FLASHING LED WITH AUDIBLE ALARM (10%-0%)

Answer 266

A

RESPONSE TIME OF 20 SECONDS OR LESS

Answer 267

A

THIS METER IS USED WITH 44-2
GAMMA SCINTILLATOR

Used for detecting low levels of gamma radiation in the range of 60 keV - 1.25 MeV.

Answer 268

A

44-9 (Geiger-Mueller
ALPHA, BETA, GAMMA DETECTOR (PANCAKE)

Answer 269

A

Ludlum Model 133-8 Gamma Radiation Detector

* APPLICATION: gamma radiation survey, dose rate, area monitoring

Answer 270

A

Propane belongs to a family of chemical compounds known as hydrocarbons.

Answer 271

A

They are tasteless, colorless, and usually odorless.
LP-gases are capable of being either a liquid or gas. However, under ambient conditions,
propane will be a gas.
Most LP-gases can be stored and transported as liquids under pressure and can easily
vaporize into gas under the proper conditions.
*Under normal outdoor temperatures liquid LP-gases expand rapidly into gas. One cubic
foot of liquid propane will boil off and produce 270 cubic feet of propane vapor.

Answer 272

A

LP-gases will expand when heat is applied. If stored inside a container, this expansion will
increase the volume of the liquid and the pressure inside the container. LPgases are not toxic, but
they present possible inhalation hazards. If released in a confined space, propane can displace
oxygen and act as a simple asphyxiant.

Answer 273

A

The average specific gravity is 0.504 at 60°F (15.6°C). This means that propane liquid is a little
more than one-half the weight of water at 60°F (15.6°C).
Propane vapor has a vapor density of 1.52 at 60°F (15.6°C).
The important point to remember is that propane vapor is about 1.5 times heavier than air (air =
1.00). If a leak develops in a gas line or container, propane readily dissipates. However, under
the right conditions, propane gas may settle in low unventilated areas and can become
concentrated if there is little or no air movement.

Answer 274

A

It has a boiling point of -44°F (-42°C), well below the boiling point of water and normal ambient
temperature. At temperatures above its boiling point, propane will usually boil off into vapor.

Answer 275

A

However, it should be noted that propane can also pool as a liquid when released at very low
ambient temperatures. In order to store propane as a liquid above its normal boiling point, it must
be stored and transported in pressure-tight containers called cylinders or tanks.

Answer 276

A

The ignition temperature of propane is approximately

BETWEEN 920°F (493°C) and 1,120°F (604°C)

Answer 277

A

The ideal combustion ratio is 24 parts of air (96%) to 1 part of propane (4%).

Answer 278

A

The lower flammable limit (LFL) for commercial propane is 2.15%,

Answer 279

A

PROPANES upper flammable limit (UFL) is 9.60%.

Answer 280

A

Recommended Practice for Responding to Hazardous Material Incidents:
recommended practice that covers planning, procedures, policies, and application of procedures
for incident levels, personal protective clothing and equipment, of decontamination, safety, and
communications

Answer 281

A

—Standard for Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Material
Incidents: technical standard that specifies the minimum competencies for those who will
respond to hazardous material incidents

Answer 282

A

—Standard for Professional Competence of EMS Personnel Responding to
Hazardous Material Incidents: technical standard that specifies minimum requirements of
competence to enhance the safety and protection of response personnel and all components of the
emergency medical services system

Answer 283

A

Hazardous Materials Branch Director/Group Supervisor
Hazardous Materials Operations
Hazardous Materials Safety
Hazardous Materials Medical
Hazardous Materials Entry
Hazardous Materials Decontamination
Hazardous Materials Research
Hazardous Materials Logistics

Answer 284

A

Confirmed or suspected petroleum products or chemical spills, leaks, or releases.
Train derailments and aircraft accidents.
Significant gas emergencies (two inches or greater in diameter).
Incidents involving surface transportation of hazardous materials.
Hazardous materials release in structures.
Unknown odors in/out of structures causing adverse health problems.
Incidents or attacks involving weapons of mass destruction (WMD) including: chemical,
biological, radiological and explosives.
Any incident determined to be a Hazardous Materials Emergency by the Public Safety
Communications Center (PSCC).

Answer 285

A

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120 (Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response)
NFPA 471 (Recommended Practice for Responding to Hazardous Materials Incidents)
NFPA 472 (Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents)
NFPA 473 (Competencies for Emergency Medical Services Personnel Responding to
Hazardous Materials Incidents)

Answer 286

A

Any unsafe act will be discontinued and or corrected immediately when identified. All
team members are responsible for taking corrective action when safety violations are
observed.
Levels of personal protection are predicated on the presenting hazard; therefore, an early
and accurate identification of the chemical/hazard involved is critical.
Work zones will be established as soon as possible. Initial monitoring should be
conducted using appropriate personal protection.
The Incident Safety Officer will make contact with the Hazmat Branch Safety Officer as
soon as possible. The Hazmat Brach Safety Officer will complete and monitor the Site
Safety Plan throughout the incident. Once the plan has been developed and approved by
the command staff, any change will require the approval of the IC.
Anytime personnel are operating in or near a flammable atmosphere, protective hose
line(s) or dry chemical extinguisher(s) will be readied for use..
Avoid chemical/hazard contamination and unnecessary exposure at all times.
Establish decontamination procedures as appropriate for the incident as soon as possible.
Anytime the Hazardous Materials Response Team is engaged in product transfer
operations, appropriate grounding and bonding will be used. The crew assigned to the
task will diagram the grounding and bonding configuration.
Use caution when positioning apparatus at the scene.
All Hazardous Materials Response Team members are expected to follow the safety
guidelines established in the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
1920.120 (HAZWOPER), and the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 471, Site
Safety documents.

Answer 287

A

Who and What is impacted, (i.e. people, the environment, infrastructure)
Physical / chemical properties of the chemical or agent
Quantity involved and released
Type of container
Damage to the container
88
Environmental conditions
Weather – temperature, wind, humidity
Indoor vs. outdoors
Topography
Ventilation
Available resources

Answer 288

A

Any change in oxygen concentrations may be cause for concern

The following action levels for atmospheric monitoring have been
established to assure a safe operating environment for all personnel.
- Oxygen deficiency 19.5%
- Oxygen enriched 23.5%
- Flammability 10% of LEL

Answer 289

A

Toxicity:
- CO 10 PPM
- H
2
S 10 PPM
- Radiation 10 mR/hr exclusion area
In the event of a needed rescue, a once in a lifetime exposure of 25 R is acceptable

Answer 290

A

Level – A: totally encapsulating chemical protective clothing protection affords the responder
with a vapor tight ensemble that features the highest level of both respiratory and skin protection
available.
Equipment Required
- positive pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
- totally encapsulated chemical protective suit (TECP)
- latex/nitrile gloves
- gloves, inner, chemical resistant
- gloves, outer, chemical resistant
- boots, chemical resistant, steel toe and shank
- hard hat (optional)
- coveralls, fire retardant
- two-way radio communications
- personal cooling unit (optional)
- outer flash fire protective garment

Answer 291

A

The “Quick Dress” procedure is for the rapid donning of CPC (Chemical Protective Clothing),
entry into the contaminated environment, and extraction of “viable” victims. To facilitate rapid
entry, extensive compatibility research, pre-entry physicals, and normal step-by-step dressing
procedures will not be utilized. Selection of CPC will be based on physical/chemical properties
of the chemical/agent(s), the environment (i.e. indoor vs. outdoors, ventilated vs. unventilated,
below grade, etc.), symptomology of the patients, broad compatibility capabilities of the PPE,
etc. Emergency gross decontamination capabilities must be developed for the extracted victims
and entry team members.

Answer 292

A

Affords the user with the highest level of respiratory protection and a lesser level of
skin protection designed for liquid splash protection. Level B protection should be selected when
the atmospheric hazards have been identified, a high level of respiratory protection is needed,
and a lesser level of skin (dermal) protection is required. Level B ensembles will not protect the
responder against dangerous gases and vapors. The hazardous materials team utilizes three
different styles of Level B splash garments including:
- Encapsulated non-gas/vapor tight
- Hooded one-piece coverall
- Hooded two-piece
Equipment Required:
- positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
- chemical splash suit
- latex/nitrile gloves
- gloves, outer, chemical resistant
- gloves, inner, chemical resistant
- boots, chemical resistant, steel toe and shank
- two-way radio communications
- hard hat or fire helmet (optional)

Answer 293

A

Affords the user with same liquid splash protection as a Level B ensemble with a
lower level of respiratory protection (APR/PAPR). Level C protection can be selected if the
following conditions have been identified:
- Specific chemical has been recognized
- Oxygen concentration at normal levels
- Recognized chemical concentration below IDLH levels
- Specific chemical cartridge available
Equipment Required:
- Full-Face, Air Purifying Respirator (APR) or Powered Air Purifying Respirator (PAPR)
with the specific chemical cartridge.
- chemical splash suit
- latex/nitrile gloves
- gloves, outer, chemical resistant
- gloves, inner, chemical resistant
90
- boots, chemical resistant, steel toe and shank
- two-way radio communications
- hard hat or fire helmet (optional)

Answer 294

A

Addresses normal workplace protection. Level D protection is commonly used in
routine industrial operations.
- Normal workplace uniform
- Eye protection
- Boots/shoes that are steel-toed and shanked
- Hard hat
- Gloves

Answer 295

A

TIER – I: First Responder Operations
The crew of the first arriving unit approaching a hazardous materials emergency shall position.
the apparatus uphill/upwind with concern for a potentially dangerous and unstable environment
until a comprehensive size-up has been conducted. Current weather conditions and topography
should be considered prior to arrival.
Establish command, give a preliminary situation report, disseminate any supplemental
information when received and make appropriate notifications. The Hazardous Materials
Response Team will communicate technical data to the incident commander for initial decision-making options.
Attempt to identify the product by using:
- occupancy/incident location
- container information/shape, size
- placards
- labels / marking
- shipping papers/facility documents
- product behavior/explosions, environmental deformation, adverse health reactions to
individuals involved with the incident
- individuals familiar with the material
Scene control procedures should be based on the hazards of the product, the physical state, other
physical/ chemical properties, quantity released, weather conditions, topography, type of
container and damage to the container, results of atmospheric monitoring and information
obtained from the (ERG).
Anytime personnel are operating on an incident involving possible flammable/combustible
material responders should have a charged protective hand line(s) and dry chemical
extinguisher(s) available for use. Any possible ignition sources should be eliminated.

Answer 296

A

TIER – I: CONTINUED

Establish a clearly marked hot zone (exclusion zone) the number of personnel operating in or
near the hot zone shall be kept to the minimum.
Emergency decontamination will be performed on all contaminated victim(s) exiting the hot
zone. Emergency decontamination is performed by first responders.
TIER I defensive response objectives including:
- Extinguishment
- Vapor Suppression
- Vapor Dispersion
- Absorption
- Dilution
- Remote Valve Shutoff
- Diking, Damming, Diverting, Retaining
- Call for additional resources

Answer 297

A

TIER – II: Hazardous Materials Rescue Companies
They are the initial Technician level trained personnel that will begin the transition from
defensive to offensive tactical objectives to include site characterization, victim extraction,
atmospheric monitoring to establish control zones and begin the specific chemical research
process.
Hazardous Materials Rescue Companies
- Rescue 444
- Rescue 411
- Rescue 419
- Rescue 426
Tier II Rescue Company Offensive Response Objectives:
- Verify product identification
- Quick Dress Procedure for patient extraction
- Ensure adequate control zones
- Atmospheric monitoring
- Select personal protective equipment
- Chemical research
- Offensive leak and spill control
- Continue notification process
Field Decontamination Units (FDU’s) are selected Engine Companies with enhanced chemical
protective clothing and specialized decontamination equipment. FDU’s have the ability to
decontaminate large numbers of victims at hazardous materials incidents or operate at remote
sites such as hospitals where patients may self-present.

Answer 298

A

Battalion 1 E404 E431 - Battalion 2 E402 E413
Battalion 3 E415 E432 - Battalion 4 E408 E423
Battalion 5 E427 E435 - Battalion 6 E424 E437

Answer 299

A

Determine decontamination site.
Perform gross decontamination after structure fires.
Provide assistance to the Hazardous Materials Response Team on large-scale incidents
requiring mass decontamination.

Answer 300

A

SHRU Units provide bulk spill containment materials and Mass decontamination equipment
Special Hazard Response Units
- Fire Station 27 - Fire Station 31

Answer 301

A

Tier II Mass Decon/Spill Control Unit’s Response Objective:
- Provide additional equipment necessary for mass decontamination and spill control.

Answer 302

A

TIER - III: Hazardous Materials Units
The Hazardous Materials and Support Units provide technical expertise and specialized
equipment to stabilize and mitigate all incidents involving chemical and weapons of mass
destruction emergencies.
Tier III Hazardous Material’s Units Response Objectives:
- Implement Hazardous Materials Incident Management System
- Provide technical information for the Incident Commander
- Establish strategic goals and tactical objectives
- Develop and implement an Incident Action Plan
- Create a site-specific safety plan
- Research and select appropriate chemical protective clothing ensemble
- Develop site-specific decontamination plan
- Medical monitoring/surveillance
- Notifications
- Recovery/Termination

Answer 303

A

Technical Decontamination
Is a systematic contamination reduction corridor that is designed to be utilized for members that
have been working in the hot zone. This site layout may be modified to meet the particulardecontamination requirements addressed as part of the overall site safety plan. The type and
method of decontamination that is utilized should be commensurate with the hazards and
properties of the chemical/agent, the work assignment, and the environment the incident occurs
in. A decontamination capability shall always be established if hazardous materials response
team members are entering a known or suspected contaminated environment; however, the
Hazmat OIC shall have the authority to modify the set-up based on risk assessment and specific
incident factors.

Answer 304

A

Radiological Decontamination is a specialized process that involves thorough patient frisking
prior to entering and exiting the warm zone (contamination reduction corridor). Patient frisking
involves Technicians utilizing hand held radiological detectors with pancake style probes to
conduct a whole body survey to determine if radiological contamination is present.

Answer 305

A

The Hazmat Research position will be responsible for making notifications while en-route or as
soon as possible. Personnel will contact and brief/update the following individuals and/or
agencies:
- Hazardous Materials Group paging system.
- Hazardous Materials Program Manager (BCHM will notify and brief the Deputy Chief
special operations for working incidents).
- Hazardous Materials Services.
- Virginia Emergency Operation Center.
- Virginia Department of Emergency Management.
- Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.

Answer 306

A

Is a systematic closure of the event managed by FRD personnel. There are several stages
associated with terminating the incident. The termination procedure at all hazardous materials
emergencies will be noted as part of the incident action plan, and shall be passed-on to the
incident commander in the form of recommendations.

Answer 307

A

Termination procedures start at the inception of the incident by providing documentation of
incident operations. Detailed documentation is required to capture the incident’s history as the
events evolve and to satisfy legal obligations for the FRD. The objectives of detailing a
Hazardous Materials incident is to establish a flow of continuous information of all tasks
performed, and identify all areas of responsibility.

Accurate documentation will support and enhance all other termination procedures. At least one
Hazardous Materials Response Team member will be selected by the Hazardous Materials
officer to document the incident. The Hazardous Materials Response Team will note the
following information as permanent record for each hazardous materials incident managed:
- Pre-incident information
- Site Safety Plan
- Incident Action Plan
- Product information
- Medical concerns (short/long-term)
- mechanism responsible for the incident
- responsible individual/business or company
- resources and agencies involved
- notifications made
- impact on the community (short-long term)
- cost recovery information
- debriefing issues
- post-incident analysis
- lessons learned

Answer 308

A

Is the process of initiating action to remove hazardous materials/waste from the incident site,
clean or dispose of all contamination associated with the incident, and return the incident site to
the pre-existing condition, if possible.
Once the Hazardous Materials Response Team has stabilized the incident the Hazardous
Materials Response Team branch officer will communicate clean up and recovery
recommendations to the incident commander. The IC will determine the appropriate course of
action and request the needed resources. The Hazardous Materials Response Team and/or the
Fairfax County Hazardous Materials Services Section will attempt to identify the responsible
party (RP) associated with the incident.

Answer 309

A

Include, but are not limited to, four main categories of threats (CBRNE): chemical, biological,
radiological/nuclear, and explosive.
A WMD event will be a dynamic and continually evolving situation that will involve multiple
agencies. When responding to incidents involving WMD, there are a few key considerations
common to all categories of WMD:
- Unified command should be established early as is done with any major event.
- Multiple events should be anticipated.
- Particular attention must be paid to highly populated areas or venues, such as mass
transit, sporting events, and shopping malls.

Answer 310

A

First responders may be targets for terrorists and terrorism events. As such, responders must be
diligent in maintaining situational awareness and operational security throughout the duration of
the incident. It is also important first responders be aware of the potential for secondary devices.
Terrorism is defined by 28 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) as “the unlawful use of force and
violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population
or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives.”

Answer 311

A

A key element for a terrorist is symbolism. The following are examples of high profile, highpotential terrorist targets:
- Federal, state, and local government buildings;
- Mass transit facilities (such as subways, airports, train stations);
- Public buildings and assembly areas (examples include shopping malls, sports
complexes, theaters); and
- Controversial businesses (such as abortion clinics, fur retailers).

Answer 312

A

Any terrorist event is considered a federal crime. Every effort should be made to preserve and
recognize evidence. Anything out of the ordinary should be noted for later evaluation.
Incidents involving the use of WMD have the potential for injuring or killing large numbers of
people. Incidents of this type are very similar to hazardous material incidents and have the
potential for, or could become, a mass patient incident.

Answer 313

A

Size up factors
- Dispatched information
- Time of day
- Weather
- Area involved
- Type and scope of the event
- Number of casualties
- Vapor cloud
- Occupancy/location

Answer 314

A

Investigation may be necessary, including a reconnaissance by properly protected first
responders. Use of appropriate detection and monitoring devices will be a valuable tool.
Isolate and deny entry to limit the access and egress of civilians. The combined use of control
zones and perimeters will protect the first responders and assist in determining the size of the
event and number of victims.
Request additional resources based upon situational size-up and scope of incident. Consideration
should be given to the number of casualties and type of symptoms. The need for specialized
resources, such as hazardous materials units, technical rescue, state and federal resources, and
other specialized responders should be considered.

Answer 315

A

Acts of terrorism or incidents involving weapons of mass destruction have the potential to
quickly overwhelm local emergency resources. In the event of a WMD, public safety agencies
will be significantly challenged.
These dynamic events require a strong command and control element, coordination between
local/state/federal response agencies, and effective communications at all levels. These
requirements are accomplished through the early and continuous use of the ICS. Use of the
ICS/UCS will help facilitate safer operations for response personnel, effective achievement of
strategic goals/tactical objectives, and efficient use of resources. Use of the ICS/UCS is
particularly imperative in light of the multi-agency/multi-jurisdictional arena in which the
incident commander must operate.

Answer 316

A

EMS command and control should be managed according to the NOVA Command Officer
Operations Manual. Establish and identify the triage and treatment areas. Based on the size and
location of the incident, multiple areas may need to be established. The EMS Branch will be
responsible for overall patient triage, treatment, transportation, and tracking. The use of the
Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) triage system will be critical for the management
of patients.
The EMS Branch Director needs to ensure hospital notifications are made through Medical
Communications (MEDCOM) Information concerning types of injuries, number of patients,
possibility of contamination, and type of incident.
There are some medications that are critical to counteracting certain WMD agents that are
carried on units and available in each jurisdiction. Additionally, larger quantities of available
medications may be available from the National Medical Response Team (NMRT), the Strategic
National Stockpile (SNS), and hospital pharmacies. There will be time restrictions when these
resources are requested.
For a large number of victims, buses, private ambulances, etc. may be used for transportation. It
is unlikely that transportation by helicopter will be possible if patients are contaminated.
Establish a safe refuge area for green-tagged and/or ambulatory patients. Establish casualty
collection point for red- and yellow-tagged patients – provide security as these can be secondary
targets.
Patient tracking may be difficult because of the size of the incident and the number of casualties.
EMS may be responsible for establishing first responder rehabilitation; however, on large-scale
incidents, this becomes a logistics function.

Answer 317

A

The following section covers the basic responsibilities of the first responders arriving on the
scene of a suspected or confirmed WMD incident.
- Ensure the safety of response personnel
- Establish isolation/control/work zones.
- Use proper PPE.
- Implement time, distance, and shielding principles.
- Minimize the number of personnel assigned to the danger area.
- Fire and Rescue personnel should be aware of the possibility of secondary devices
and use extreme caution when scanning the area for potential threats.
- Ensure law enforcement officers have checked for secondary devices.
- Ensure law enforcement officers have controlled active threats – shooters, hostile
crowd, etc.
- Maintain accountability of personnel.
- Decontaminate and provide medical care if necessary.
 Conduct a thorough and continuous size-up/hazard and risk assessment.
 Continually collect intelligence and/or information regarding the incident.
 Establish the incident objectives for the incident:
- Life safety:
o Isolate/deny entry – establish control zones.
o Remove endangered victims.
o Rescue viable patients.
o Decontaminate.
o Triage, treat, and transport patients.
o Initiate public protection (evacuation and or shelter-in-place) actions.
- Incident control and stabilization.
- Infrastructure, environmental, and property protection.
- Protect the crime scene and infrastructure.
- Establish an incident action plan for implementation.

Make appropriate notifications (i.e. hospitals, agencies with statutory authority) and
provide regular updates.
Develop a communications plan that provides adequate radio channels, cellular
telephones, and other necessary equipment and personnel.
Participate in unified command operations with other local, state, and federal agencies.
Request additional and/or specialized resources as necessary.
Stage incoming units at a secure location.
Develop an incident command organization appropriate to manage the incident.
Ensure an outer-perimeter is established to restrict site access.
Manage public information and media interaction.
Prepare for long-term/multi-operational period operations, i.e. development of an incident
action plan (IAP), rehabilitation, and replacement of staff.
Protect the crime scene and evidence.

Answer 318

A

In the event of a WMD event, special operations personnel will be a valuable resource to the
incident commander. Special operations personnel will be able to assist the incident commander
in determining levels of contamination with an explosion, determining the structural stability of
buildings involved in the blast or exposed to the blast, and EOD teams will be able to assist with
locating and identifying secondary devices, as well as, the disposal of any unexploded devices

Answer 319

A

Hazardous materials response teams will play an important role in any post explosion event. Any
explosive detonation should be considered “dirty” until it can be ruled out by detection and
monitoring equipment. Hazardous materials personnel should detect for the presence of
radiation, chemical agents and combustible gases. Keep in mind that just because one or more of
these agents are detected, it does not make it a terrorist event. Many businesses have these agents
for use in their everyday processes. However, if the agents do not match the occupancy, special
care should be exercised.

Answer 320

A

Hazardous materials personnel should also check for damaged utilities such as ruptured gas
mains or service lines that could present a secondary explosion or flammability hazard

Answer 321

A

Hazardous materials personnel will also play a key role in the decontamination process.
Following an explosion, if at all possible, victims should be decontaminated prior to transport to
a medical facility. This will reduce the transfer of dust and other possible contaminates that have
not been monitored for (such as asbestos, etc.)

Answer 322

A

Hazardous materials teams should prepare to make hot zone entry for reconnaissance, detection,
and monitoring. While operating in the hot zone, hazardous materials teams should attempt to
gain the following information:
- Identification of type of agent.
- Toxicity/concentrations (IDLH levels).
- Atmospheric oxygen available.
- Presence of flammable gases.

Answer 323

A

Based on this information hazmat personnel will select levels of (PPE) for units based on the task
they are performing.
Report the number of victims, their symptoms and conditions, and any other information that
may be needed

Answer 324

A

The Hazmat Branch will be established to coordinate with the incoming specialized teams
Coordinate setting-up the hot, warm, and cold zones.
Determine direction of travel of plume if applicable. This will not be an exact science, but an
initial plume model should be prepared in the initial stages of the event. The plume model will be
constantly reevaluated throughout the incident.

Answer 325

A

.
Coordinate and ensure that the most effective and proper decontamination is being used. This
may include several decontamination sites around the incident (such as mass decontamination
corridors, technical decontamination, and emergency decontamination).
A separate technical decontamination corridor under the direction of the Hazmat Branch shall be
established for hazardous materials team use only

Answer 326

A

Units can reduce levels of PPE upon a decision from the IC, in coordination with the Hazmat
Branch/Group Officer, based upon the situation information obtained as specified above.
Special operations hazardous materials personnel will conduct available tests to determine the
agent used. If the test results are positive, hazardous materials personnel will coordinate
decontamination of the victims in available shower facilities with warm water and soap.
Emergency clothing packets will be provided and the victims clothing shall be “bagged.”
Responders shall decontaminate themselves as appropriate.

Answer 327

A

If a dispersion device is found, EOD personnel should attempt to disrupt or control the device.
EOD personnel should also ensure that the device and the area around the device are free of
booby traps. EOD personnel will most likely be the initial crime scene investigators

Answer 328

A

Special operations personnel will also interact with law enforcement agencies as appropriate for
crime scene preservation and evidence collection. First arriving units will be able to determine
the presence of radiation; however hazardous materials teams will be required to determine the
level of contamination on people or patients. For an event involving radiation, special operations
personnel should:
- Determine control zones.
- Determine levels of contamination (patient frisking).
- Decontaminate patients.100
- Conduct patient frisking (post-decontamination)

Answer 329

A

Special operations personnel will interface with outside agencies such as the US Department of
Energy, EPA, DOT and other applicable agencies.
Tech rescue teams will play a vital role in assessing the structural stability of affected structures,
shoring of damaged structures, rescue of trapped victims, and the use of technical search
equipment.
All explosions should be considered to be “dirty” until proven otherwise

Answer 330

A

First responders have the potential to encounter devices ranging from soda bottles to suicide
bombers. Current events have shown that explosive type incidents are the most prevalent type of
terrorist event.
Firefighter PPE and SCBA should be donned prior to arrival on the scene and worn until the
involvement of other chemical, biological, and/or radiological agents can be ruled out.
If the incident is believed to be the result of a terrorist action, consideration should be given to
the potential for secondary devices. Unusual packages and objects located in unusual places (at
or near the front door, standpipe, hydrant) should be viewed with suspicion and avoided until
confirmed as not dangerous. Command should be immediately notified.
Observing the appearance and signs/symptoms of victims may indicate whether a chemical agent
has been released. Monitoring of the scene by the hazardous materials team is essential to
determine what chemical agent(s) were used. Immediate signs and symptoms of victims should
not be used as an indication that radiological materials are involved. The use of radiological
detection and monitoring equipment is necessary to make this determination. If there is a
radiological agent associated with the explosive device the radiological portion of this manual
shall be used in conjunction with the explosives section. In WMD incidents with contaminated
mass casualties, responders can be most effective by rapidly initiating mass casualty
decontamination procedures for the victims

Answer 331

A

All incidents involving explosives should be considered a real threat until proven otherwise.
Keep in mind that any explosive device could be used as a dissemination device for other WMD
materials such as radiological, chemical, and biological agents.
First arriving unit officers and command staff shall gather as much information as possible from
communications regarding the situation while en route to the scene.
The first-arriving suppression/EMS unit should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the
situation. Consider staging a minimum of 500 feet from the site or where debris/damage is first
encountered. This unit may be referred to as the reconnaissance (recon) group and radiological
agents involved.

Answer 332

A

There is a possibility that an explosive device can also be used as a delivery device for chemical,
biological, or radiological agent. Typically, however, most responders encounter trauma patients,
which require normal treatment modalities and require no decontamination. The emergency
responder should not assume that an explosive device presents no additional threat after the
explosion.
As a matter of practice, patients should be removed from the area of hazard and triage/treatment
performed in an area of safety. Ambulatory patients should be directed to a safe refuge area for
further assessment and possible treatment

Answer 333

A

Explosives can be categorized as high-order explosives (HE) or low-order explosives (LE).
High-order explosive produces a deafening supersonic over-pressurization shock wave.102
Low-order explosive creates a supersonic explosion; however, it lacks the over-pressurization. It
is therefore important that EMS care providers understand the differences between the two
classifications, since you can anticipate different injury patterns.

Answer 334

A

There are four basic mechanisms of blast injuries that a responder should anticipate with
explosive devices: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quandary.
“Blast Wave” refers to the intense over-pressurization impulse that is created by a high-order
explosive (HE). Blast injuries are characterized by anatomical and physiological changes from
the direct or reflective forces impacting the body’s surface.
A blast wave is defined as an over-pressurized wave, an increase pressurization that affects the
body and objects the waves come in contact with. Blast waves are associated only with highorder explosives.
There is another type of a blast injury called “blast wind,” which is a force of superheated air
flow; these are associated with both high and low-order explosives.

Answer 335

A

(TICs and TIMs) and
chemical warfare agents

Toxic industrial chemicals (TICs) are readily available in large quantities in industrial settings,
bulk storage, and in transportation.

Examples of TICs are chlorine, sulfur dioxide, phosgene,
anhydrous ammonia, and concentrated sulfuric acid

Answer 336

A

Chemical warfare agents are highly toxic and may persist in the environment from minutes to
years. The persistence of these agents depends on humidity, temperature, physical state, and the
type of soil and vegetation in the area

Depending on the agent, human exposure can occur via
skin (dermal), inhalation, ingestion of contaminated water or food, or entry through other
mucous-lined areas such as the eyes, nose, and open cuts

Answer 337

A

The 3/30 rule, as outlined by
SBCCOM (United States Army Soldier Biological Chemical Command), states the following:
3/30 RULE: All personnel must remember that self-contained breathing apparatus provides the
highest level of respiratory protection. This, combined with the structural firefighting ensemble,
will afford the best level of protection in the absence of chemical protective clothing. The “3/30
rule” must be considered when using structural PPE with SCBA for making immediate rescues.

Answer 338

A

1,000 micro-roentgen (μR) = 1milli-roentgen (mR)

1,000 milli-roentgen (mR) = 1 Roentgen (R)

1,000,000 micro-roentgen) = 1 Roentgen (R)

Answer 339

A

A guiding philosophy and requirement in the field of radiation safety today is the concept
ALARA. ALARA stands for “As Low as Reasonably Achievable.”

Answer 340

A

a. Maximize distance
b. Minimize exposure time
c. Maximize shielding

Answer 341

A

Dose Limit (Whole Body) Emergency Action Dose Guidelines/Activity
Performed

5 R (rem) All Activities

10 R (rem) Protecting major property

25 R (rem) Lifesaving or protection of large populations

> 25 R (rem) Lifesaving or protection of large populations, Only
by volunteers who understand the risks

Answer 342

A

The “3/30 rule” states that in a situation where victims are unconscious or seizing, the structural
firefighting ensemble with SCBA will provide 3 minutes of protection for the responder. If
victims are conscious and moving, the structural firefighting ensemble will provide up to 30
minutes of protection for the responder

**NOT FOR CONFINED SPACE OR BELOW GRADE RESCUE **

Answer 343

A

Explosion with little or no structural damage.
Reports of a device that dispersed a mist or vapor.
Multiple casualties exhibiting similar symptoms.
Mass casualties with no apparent reason or trauma.
Reports of unusual odors, liquids, spray devices, or cylinders.
Discarded personal protective equipment.

Answer 344

A

Decontamination is the key factor to an overall successful response

Answer 345

A

performed within108
minutes of the agent exposure

Answer 346

A

The NOVA fire departments and hazardous material teams will use the Roentgen (R) as the
standard unit to measure radiological exposure

Answer 347

A

1,000 micro-roentgen (μR) = 1milli-roentgen (mR)

1,000 milli-roentgen (mR) = 1 Roentgen (R)

1,000,000 micro-roentgen) = 1 Roentgen (R)

Answer 348

A

Is a measure of how much radiation is present. This is similar to a
speedometer, the more you press on the gas the higher the reading. It is measured per hour.

Answer 349

A

GAMMA SODIUM IOD SCINTILLATOR

Answer 350

A

ranges
between: 5 – 20 μR/hr = 0.005 – 0.2 mR/hr.

Answer 351

A

The less time you spend around a radiation source the less exposure you will receive. If
you are in an area where the exposure rate is

60R/hr and you spend 15 minutes, your exposure
will be 15 R (60R/hr divided by 4).

Answer 352

A

The more material between you and the source the less radiation exposure you will
receive

Answer 353

A

Always wear structural firefighting gear, including
respiratory protection.

Ensure the task is worthy of the exposure (risk vs. benefit).

Answer 354

A

Inhalation is the most dangerous type of exposure to the body and it is the most difficult to treat.
Wearing SCBA affords the greatest protection in any WMD event It is best to assume that
radiation is present for any explosive or unusual incident until it can be ruled out through
detection and monitoring

Answer 355

A

Is radiation present?

Are there life safety issues?

Answer 356

A

every
effort should be made to approach the incident from uphill and upwind. Additionally, begin the
approach 300 feet from the incident or at the edge of debris field

Answer 357

A

If initial fire department personnel are NOT equipped with radiological dosimeters, they may
conduct lifesaving operations for a maximum of 15 minutes.

Answer 358

A

Dosimeters record the total exposure to external gamma radiation.

When wearing external dosimeters, they should be
read and reported every 15 minutes.

All pencil dosimeters should be zeroed prior to entry.

Answer 359

A

In all suspected radiation incidents, responders’ exposure to radiation must be documented. In
order to ensure that responder doses are recorded

Answer 360

A

Fire or explosion;
Ignition by heat, sparks, or flame;
Vapors that may explode;
Vapors that may travel;
Containers that may explode when heated or punctured;
Health hazards;
Vapors or liquid that may be toxic if inhaled, ingested, or absorbed;
Vapors and liquid that may produce burns or irritate skin and eyes;
Inhalation of vapors that may cause dizziness or nausea;
Environmental hazards that potentially endanger wildlife, streams, and rivers

Answer 361

A

Transportation

Answer 362

A

Lithium ion

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