HLK Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What limits the ability of a blood vessel to expand and accommodate blood?

A

The connective tissue layer surrounding it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 4 layers in a blood vessel (not present in all vessels)?

A
  • Endothelial layer
  • Elastic layer
  • Smooth muscle layer
  • Fibrous tissue layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does arterial compliance work to accommodate a pressure pulse?

A

Blood exerts a perpendicular pressure on the walls of the artery, which expand to accommodate it and then further propel it forward as the vessel returns to normal. As compliance decreases with age/pathology, pressure in the artery rises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Total peripheral resistance is determined in large part by what type of vessel?

A

Arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is resistance related to viscosity and the length and radius of vessels?

A
  • Proportional to viscosity and length

- Inversely proportional to 4th power of radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is responsible for most of the control of vasoconstriction in peripheral vascular beds?

A

Neurally secreted norepinephrine acting on alpha receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give an example of how local control can overrule sympathetic activity:

A

Exercising one arm: sympathetic activity is the same throughout the body, but because of local control blood flow is only increased in the muscle being exercised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Contrast the actions of norepinephrine and epinephrine in regards to smooth muscle activity:

A
  • Neurally secreted norepinephrine acts on alpha adrenergic receptors in peripheral arteries to cause vasoconstriction
  • Epinephrine secreted into plasma by adrenal medulla acts on beta adrenergic receptors in the heart and lungs to cause vasodilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two forces drive capillary exchange?

A
  • Diffusion: concentration gradients across capillary wall

- Bulk flow: hydraulic gradients due to pressure differences across capillary wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is oncotic pressure?

A

Osmotic pressure due to the presence of colloids in a solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Starling’s hypothesis?

A

It says that the flow across a capillary wall is proportional to the difference in pressure across the wall. The pressure on each side is a compound pressure made up of hydrostatic and oncotic pressures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

With pitting edema, explain how pushing on a patient’s tissue causes edema to disappear:

A

By pushing on the tissue, you increase the tissue pressure, which forces fluid back into the veins. This is why compression stockings are recommended for people with edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What two things do cardiovascular homeostasis mechanisms preserve blood flow to above all others?

A

Brain and kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In terms of improving cardiac function, which is more important to treat, preload (through diuresis) or afterload (through SBP reduction)?

A

Afterload. LV performance is afterload dependent but relatively preload independent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In patients with CHF, what category of hemodynamic status is correlated with poor outcomes?

A

Both cold (low perfusion) types: cold and wet (volume overload but still low output) or cold and dry (volume depleted with low output).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false: In patients with CHF, both Digoxin and diuretics (with the exception of aldosterone inhibitors) are good for keeping patients out of the hospital but don’t reduce mortality.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which classes of HF drugs reduce mortality?

A
  • Beta blockers
  • ACE’s/ARB’s
  • Aldosterone inhibitors
  • Combination Hydralazine and Isordil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the use of beta blockers in CHF:

A
  • Never use in cold & wet patients
  • Only use in warm & dry patients
  • In the long term, improves long term ventricular responsiveness to adrenergic stimulation
  • Shields cardiac muscle from long term effects of norepinephrine
  • Improves LV performance and reduces mortality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What sort of patient would combination Hydralazine and Isordil be good for in reducing mortality?

A

African Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mesenteric ischemia:

A

Should be suspected in elderly, atherosclerotic patients complaining of frequent indigestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Amaurosis fugax:

A

Temporary blindness causes by thromboembolism in the carotid artery that ends up in the arterioles feeding the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SSx of chronic arterial insufficiency:

A
  • Intermittent claudication
  • Sparse or absent distal leg hair
  • Dependent rubor
  • Distal ulceration
  • Diminished or absent pulses
  • Delayed capillary refill with thickened nails
  • Cool extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Drug tx for arterial insufficiency:

A
  • Aspirin or Clopridogrel as anti-platelet therapy
  • Rheologic modifier such as Pentoxifylline to decrease viscosity and platelet adhesion
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitor such as Cilostasol to suppress platelet activation and increase vasodilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SSx of acute arterial insufficiency:

A
  • 50% have severe, unrelenting leg pain
  • 50% have insidious onset of pain over several hours
  • Compartment syndrome (remember the 5 P’s)
25
Q

5 P’s of compartment syndrome:

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Paresthesias
  • Pulselessness
  • Paralysis
26
Q

Thromboangiitis obliterans:

A
  • AKA Buerger’s Disease
  • Occlusive inflammatory disease of small/medium distal arteries of extremities
  • Prevalence higher in men from southeast Asia, India and Japan who smoke
27
Q

SSx of Buerger’s disease:

A
  • Most of the SSx of chronic arterial insufficiency, occurring in upper as well as lower extremities
28
Q

Biggest non-genetic risk factor for developing varicose veins:

A

Pregnancy

29
Q

How is the Trendelenberg test used in the workup of varicose veins?

A
  • Used to distinguish superficial venous insufficiency due to saphenofemoral valve incompetence from perforator vein incompetence
  • Compress saphenous vein with leg elevated, then have patient stand while maintaining compression
  • If varicosities return, problem is perforator incompetence
30
Q

Describe Virchow’s triad:

A
  • Stasis, hypercoagulability and vessel damage

- = increased risk of phlebitis

31
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign (of malignancy)?

A

Superficial migratory thrombophlebitis, often occurring in unusual locations, that may be the 1st indication of a cancer, esp. pancreatic and lung cancer

32
Q

What’s the DDx for chest pain in the primary care setting?

A
  • ~1.5 % MI or ACS
  • 20 % chest wall pain
  • 13 % reflux esophagitis
  • 13 % costochondritis
  • Other systems (GI, pulmonary, psych, CV)
33
Q

What is the definition of likelihood ratio?

A

It’s the ratio of true positives to false positives

34
Q

What kinds of surgery do not require interruption of anticoagulant therapy?

A
  • Dental, dermatologic or ophthalmologic surgeries, which are considered minor risks for bleeding
  • All others are considered major risks for bleeding.
35
Q

What is the MOA of vorapaxar?

A

Blocks thrombin receptors on platelets

36
Q

Indication for Aggrenox (ASA + ER dipyrimadole)

A

To prevent recurrent stroke in patients who have had a TIA or ischemic stroke

37
Q

What is the MOA of aspirin?

A

Irreversibly blocks thromboxane A2 production in platelets, decreasing their ability to aggregate.

38
Q

What would you expect to see on exam of a patient with myocarditis?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Pleural or pericardial chest pain
  • Gallop
  • Signs of HF
  • Conduction defects
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Pulmonary edema/hypertension
39
Q

On exam, pericardial rub, dyspnea, and chest pain that is worse when supine would indicate:

A

Pericarditis

40
Q

How would you treat myocarditis?

A
  • NSAIDS for pain
  • Abx for pathogen, if identifiable
  • ACE/Beta blocker if left ventricular EF is less than 40%
41
Q

What’s the typical patient population for congenital bicuspid-related aortic stenosis?

A

Male, 40’s to 60’s

42
Q

Which type of murmur is typically associated with a “crescendo-decrescendo” sound?

A

Aortic stenosis

43
Q

Murmur due to aortic stenosis:

A
  • Opening click just after S1

- Followed by crescendo decrescendo murmur

44
Q

Murmur due to mitral regurgitation:

A
  • Murmur begins at S1

- Followed by holosystolic murmur

45
Q

Murmur due to mitral valve prolapse:

A
  • Mid systolic click

- Followed by flat murmur

46
Q

Murmur due to aortic regurgitation:

A
  • Murmur begins at S2

- Followed by decrescendo only murmur

47
Q

Murmur due to mitral stenosis:

A
  • Opening snap
  • Followed by decrescendo with pre-systolic accentuation (due to atrial kick)
  • Described in class as mid diastolic rumble with pre-systolic murmur
48
Q

What physiologic condition is associated with S3?

A

Volume overload (sound made by chordae tendinae tensing due to rapid filling, which in the elderly or sick is due to volume overload)

49
Q

What physiologic condition is associated with S4?

A

Pressure overload (sound made by atrial kick pumping blood into a stiff (due to hypertrophy) ventricle)

50
Q

What is the treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  • Beta blockers
  • Septal ablation
  • Myectomy or alcohol injection
51
Q

SSx of acute vs. chronic aortic regurgitation:

A

Acute: patients usually present with HF and shock
Chronic: Sx of HF develop slowly over time

52
Q

Describe the pulse pressure in a patient with aortic regurgitation. How does this affect the carotid pulses?

A
  • Very wide

- Carotid pulses are often very visible

53
Q

Patient population for mitral stenosis:

A

Women in their 40’s and 50’s from developing countries with Hx of rheumatic heart disease

54
Q

Treatment for mitral stenosis:

A
  • Manage A-fib with digoxin
  • Anticoagulate for stroke risk
  • Can do surgery to break apart stenotic valve, with regurgitation as a sequela
55
Q

What other electrolyte must be administered prior to administering calcium or potassium?

A

Magnesium if it’s also deficient

56
Q

Normal ranges for BMP:

A
  • Glucose (65 - 100)
  • Sodium (135 - 145)
  • Potassium (3.5 - 5)
  • Calcium (8.5 - 10.5)
  • BUN (8 - 20)
  • Creatinine (0.8 - 1.4)
  • Bicarb (22 - 27)
  • Chloride (95 - 105)
57
Q

What is the importance of chloride and bicarbonate ions in a BMP?

A

Common anions used to regulate acid base balance and osmotic pressure

58
Q

What is the importance of BUN and creatinine in a BMP?

A

Good indicators of renal function

59
Q

What should you think if you see a patient with profound carotid pulses and a wide pulse pressure?

A

Aortic regurgitation