HIV/AIDS and Opportunistic Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Which route of transmission has the highest risk of transmission?

A

receptive anal intercourse 1:100 - 1:30

insertive vaginal intercourse is 1:10,000

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2
Q

A healthcare provider is working at a mission trip in Uganda. During the course of checking blood samples, they get stuck by a used needle. Which of the following best describes their transmission risk.

A. 1:100
B. 1:10,000
C. 1:2
D. 1:300

A

D. 1:300

things that change risk factors include depth of penetration, hollow bore needles, blood on needles, advanced stage of disease in source.

*remember to divide incidence in 2 with needle sharing in illicit drug use to 1:150

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3
Q

Without prophylactic prevention, what percentage of children born to HIV+ mothers will contract the disease

A

13-40%

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4
Q

Which two groups represent the most likely to be HIV positive?

A

African americans

Gay/Bixesual men

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5
Q

What is the mean time between infection with HIV and development of AIDS

A

10 years

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6
Q

Which diagnostic test, looks for the presence of HIV ab and the HIV p24 antigen?

A

combines immunoassay

improves ability to detect because p24 is present before Ab

99.6% specificity

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7
Q

If a person was negative for the HIV-1/2 Ab differentiation immunoassay, what test would you do to confirm the negative finding.

A

HIV-1 nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

if positive with negative ab test -> acute HIV

if initial positive on ab test, negative NAAT -> false positive.

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8
Q

What is the most widely used marker for HIV prognostic information?

A

absolute CD4 count

trend is more important than single determination

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9
Q

What are the limitations to consider when using CD4 count?

A

Diurnal variation
depression with intercurrent illness
intra-laboratory and interlaboratory variability

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10
Q

Which diseases are common with a CD4 count of >300

A

Pink Penises Hop On Very Fast (300 mph)

Pneumococcal pneumonia 
Pulmonary Tb
Herpes Zoster
Oral Candidiasis 
Vaginal Candidiasis 
Fatigue
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11
Q

Which diseases are common with a CD4 count of <300

A

Over The Worst Fucking Day

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia
Thrush 
Weight Loss
Fever 
Diarrhea
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12
Q

Which diseases are common with a CD4 count of <200

A

Please Dont Kap Every Non Catholic

Pneumocystis Jirovecii (PCP)
Disseminated histoplasmosis 
Kaposi Sarcoma 
Extrapulmonary/miliary TB
Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma 
CNS Lymphoma
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13
Q

Which diseases are common with a CD4 count of <100

A

Cryptococcosis (cryptococcal meningitis)
Esophageal candidiasis
Toxoplasmosis

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14
Q

Which diseases are common with a CD4 count of <50

A

Mycobacterium-avium complex (MAC)
Cytomegalovirus
Primary CNS lymphoma

marked as important

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15
Q

How often should CD4 counts be monitored in patients taking antiretroviral treatment consistently

A

3-6 Months

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16
Q

True or false: CD4 count measures how actively HIV is replicating in the body

A

False:

this is measured by viral load. provides important prognostic info

17
Q

What are the AIDS defining illnesses?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii
CMV infection
Coccidioidomycosis (disseminated or extrapulmonary)
Mycobacterium TB

These were the ones they emphasized but I would also know kaposi sarcoma.

18
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

Fever, cough, shortness of breath
Hypoxemia.

19
Q

What techniques are used to obtain a definitive diagnosis of PJP

A

Wright-Giemsa stain or Direct Fluorescence antibody

Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)

20
Q

Describe the findings in Pneumocystis Pneumonia

A

elevated serum Lactate Dehydrogenase
serum beta glucan more sensitive and specific than LDH
if normal diffusion capacity of CO make pCP unlikely

21
Q

What is the most common cause of pulmonary disease in HIV+ pts

A

Community-acquired pneumonia

22
Q

What is the most common space occupying lesion in HIV+ pts

A

Toxoplasmosis

23
Q

What is the typical CD4 count and and symptoms associated with someone with a toxoplasmosis infection

A

CD4 <100

headache
fever
focal neuro deficits
altered mental status and seizures

24
Q

how does toxoplasmosis appear on unenhanced CT scan

A

multiple subcortical lesions with predilection in basal ganglia

25
Q

on MRI you see the typical ring enhancing lesions associated with toxoplasmosis but you confirm 100% it isn’t toxo. what other diseases should remain on your differential

A

CNS Lymphoma
fungal infection
cerebral TB

26
Q

what is the second most common cause of space-occupying lesion in HIV

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

27
Q

70-90% of patients with cryptococcal meningitis have a positive result of what?

A

serum CRAG (cryptococcal antigen)

28
Q

Describe Primary CNS lymphoma

A

diffuse, large-cell B-cell malignancy
high association with EBV
usually occurs CD4 <50

29
Q

Describe the problems associated with CMV in HIV pts

A
Retinitis* 
Colitis 
Esophageal ulceration 
Encephalitis 
Pneumonitis
30
Q

Describe Kaposi Sarcoma

A

caused by HHV-8

skin lesions appear on LE, face, oral mucosa, and genitalia
Pulmonary involvement can occur in HIV pts

31
Q

Describe the situation that would warrant prophylaxis for PCP and what would that be

A

CD4+ <200 or Oropharyngeal candidiasis or prior PCP

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) (Bactrim)

  • -1 DS tablet PO
    • 1 SS tablet PO
32
Q

What drugs are indicated in mycobacterium TB prophylaxis

A

Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyridoxine 25 mg PO
or
Isoniazid 900 mg PO 2X/week + Pyridoxine 25 mg PO QD

33
Q

What type of vaccines should you avoid in patients with HIV

A

LIVE vaccines