HIV Flashcards

1
Q

HIV seroconversion presents very similarly to what other infection?

A

Glandular fever

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2
Q

How long after the initial infection does HIV seroconversion illness typically occur?

A

3-12 weeks

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3
Q

What is the best test to use for HIV detection at 4 weeks after possible exposure?

A

p24 antigen test

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4
Q

When should initial testing for HIV be done in asymptomatic patients?

A

4 weeks after potential exposure

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5
Q

After an initial negative result when testing an asymptomatic patient for HIV at 4 weeks, when should a repeat test be offered?

A

12 weeks after potential exposure

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6
Q

What is the most common and accurate test for HIV?

A

HIV antibody test

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7
Q

99% of patients with HIV develop antibodies by when?

A

3 months

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8
Q

HAART involves a combination of at least how many drugs from how many different classes?

A

3 drugs from at least 2 different classes

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9
Q

What is the typical combination of drugs used in HAART?

A

2 NRTIs and 1 of either a NNRTI or protease inhibitor

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10
Q

It is recommended that patients with HIV start HAART when?

A

As soon as the diagnosis is made

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11
Q

Zidovudine, abacavir, emtricitabine, tenofovir, zalcitabine, lamivudine and stavudine are all examples of which type of drug?

A

NRTIs

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12
Q

What is a side effect that can be caused by all NRTI drugs?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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13
Q

What are some side effects of tenofovir?

A

Renal impairment and osteoporosis

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14
Q

Nevirapine and efavirenz are all examples of which type of drug?

A

NNRTIs

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15
Q

Indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir and saquinavir are all examples of which type of drug?

A

Protease inhibitors

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16
Q

Raltegravir, elvitegravir and dolutegravir are all examples of which type of drug?

A

Integrase inhibitors

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17
Q

Which group of ART drugs cause side effects such as diabetes, hyperlipidaemia and central obesity?

A

Protease inhibitors

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18
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis can be used up to how long following exposure to HIV?

19
Q

How long should post-exposure prophylaxis be given for?

20
Q

What should be done before starting anyone on HIV post-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Test for pre-established HIV infection

21
Q

Hairy leukoplakia is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 200-500. What organism is responsible for it?

22
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 200-500. What organism is responsible for it?

A

Human herpes virus 8

23
Q

Progressive multifocal encephalopathy is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 100-200. What organism is responsible for it?

24
Q

A CD4 count of less than what is an indication to start PCP prophylaxis with low-dose co-trimoxazole?

25
Which organism, a cause of meningitis in patients with HIV, stains with India ink?
Cryptococcus
26
Primary CNS lymphoma is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 50-100. What organism is responsible for it?
EBV
27
What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?
Pneumocystis pneumonia
28
What does a CXR of PCP typically show?
Bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates
29
Exercise induced desaturation is a key clinical feature of what opportunistic infection occurring in patients with HIV?
Pneumocystis pneumonia
30
What investigation is often required to demonstrate the pneumocystis organism causing pneumonia?
Bronchoalveolar lavage
31
What organism causing opportunistic infections in patients with HIV shows characteristic cysts with silver stain?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
32
How is pneumocystis pneumonia managed?
PO co-trimoxazole
33
What is the most common cause of infective diarrhoea in patients with HIV?
Cryposporidium
34
What organism accounts for 50% of all cerebral lesions in patients with HIV?
Toxoplasmosis
35
A CT showing single or multiple ring enhancing lesions +/- mass effect in an HIV positive patient is most suggestive of what infection?
Toxoplasmosis
36
Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine is the treatment for which opportunistic infection in HIV patients?
Toxoplasmosis
37
Widespread demyelination due to infection of oligodendrocytes by the JC virus describes which opportunistic infection seen in HIV positive patients?
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
38
What virus is responsible for causing AIDS dementia complex?
The HIV virus itself
39
Which HIV positive pregnant women should be offered anti-retroviral treatment?
All of them
40
Vaginal delivery is deemed safe in HIV positive women if their viral load is less than what at 36 weeks?
50 copies/ml
41
What is the recommended method of delivery in most pregnant women with HIV?
C-section
42
Should any HIV positive woman in the UK be advised to breastfeed?
No
43
Which anti-retroviral drug can be infused during a C-section and be administered orally to a neonate?
Zidovudine
44
If the maternal viral load is > 50 copies/ml, what anti-retroviral treatment should their baby receive as a neonate?
Triple therapy for 4-6 weeks