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Med Spec (Infectious Diseases) > HIV > Flashcards

HIV Flashcards

1
Q

HIV seroconversion presents very similarly to what other infection?

A

Glandular fever

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2
Q

How long after the initial infection does HIV seroconversion illness typically occur?

A

3-12 weeks

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3
Q

What is the best test to use for HIV detection at 4 weeks after possible exposure?

A

p24 antigen test

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4
Q

When should initial testing for HIV be done in asymptomatic patients?

A

4 weeks after potential exposure

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5
Q

After an initial negative result when testing an asymptomatic patient for HIV at 4 weeks, when should a repeat test be offered?

A

12 weeks after potential exposure

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6
Q

What is the most common and accurate test for HIV?

A

HIV antibody test

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7
Q

99% of patients with HIV develop antibodies by when?

A

3 months

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8
Q

HAART involves a combination of at least how many drugs from how many different classes?

A

3 drugs from at least 2 different classes

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9
Q

What is the typical combination of drugs used in HAART?

A

2 NRTIs and 1 of either a NNRTI or protease inhibitor

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10
Q

It is recommended that patients with HIV start HAART when?

A

As soon as the diagnosis is made

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11
Q

Zidovudine, abacavir, emtricitabine, tenofovir, zalcitabine, lamivudine and stavudine are all examples of which type of drug?

A

NRTIs

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12
Q

What is a side effect that can be caused by all NRTI drugs?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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13
Q

What are some side effects of tenofovir?

A

Renal impairment and osteoporosis

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14
Q

Nevirapine and efavirenz are all examples of which type of drug?

A

NNRTIs

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15
Q

Indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir and saquinavir are all examples of which type of drug?

A

Protease inhibitors

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16
Q

Raltegravir, elvitegravir and dolutegravir are all examples of which type of drug?

A

Integrase inhibitors

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17
Q

Which group of ART drugs cause side effects such as diabetes, hyperlipidaemia and central obesity?

A

Protease inhibitors

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18
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis can be used up to how long following exposure to HIV?

A

72 hours

19
Q

How long should post-exposure prophylaxis be given for?

A

4 weeks

20
Q

What should be done before starting anyone on HIV post-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Test for pre-established HIV infection

21
Q

Hairy leukoplakia is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 200-500. What organism is responsible for it?

A

EBV

22
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 200-500. What organism is responsible for it?

A

Human herpes virus 8

23
Q

Progressive multifocal encephalopathy is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 100-200. What organism is responsible for it?

A

JC virus

24
Q

A CD4 count of less than what is an indication to start PCP prophylaxis with low-dose co-trimoxazole?

A

200

25
Q

Which organism, a cause of meningitis in patients with HIV, stains with India ink?

A

Cryptococcus

26
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma is an opportunistic infection that can occur in association with a CD4 count of 50-100. What organism is responsible for it?

A

EBV

27
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

28
Q

What does a CXR of PCP typically show?

A

Bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates

29
Q

Exercise induced desaturation is a key clinical feature of what opportunistic infection occurring in patients with HIV?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

30
Q

What investigation is often required to demonstrate the pneumocystis organism causing pneumonia?

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage

31
Q

What organism causing opportunistic infections in patients with HIV shows characteristic cysts with silver stain?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

32
Q

How is pneumocystis pneumonia managed?

A

PO co-trimoxazole

33
Q

What is the most common cause of infective diarrhoea in patients with HIV?

A

Cryposporidium

34
Q

What organism accounts for 50% of all cerebral lesions in patients with HIV?

A

Toxoplasmosis

35
Q

A CT showing single or multiple ring enhancing lesions +/- mass effect in an HIV positive patient is most suggestive of what infection?

A

Toxoplasmosis

36
Q

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine is the treatment for which opportunistic infection in HIV patients?

A

Toxoplasmosis

37
Q

Widespread demyelination due to infection of oligodendrocytes by the JC virus describes which opportunistic infection seen in HIV positive patients?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

38
Q

What virus is responsible for causing AIDS dementia complex?

A

The HIV virus itself

39
Q

Which HIV positive pregnant women should be offered anti-retroviral treatment?

A

All of them

40
Q

Vaginal delivery is deemed safe in HIV positive women if their viral load is less than what at 36 weeks?

A

50 copies/ml

41
Q

What is the recommended method of delivery in most pregnant women with HIV?

A

C-section

42
Q

Should any HIV positive woman in the UK be advised to breastfeed?

A

No

43
Q

Which anti-retroviral drug can be infused during a C-section and be administered orally to a neonate?

A

Zidovudine

44
Q

If the maternal viral load is > 50 copies/ml, what anti-retroviral treatment should their baby receive as a neonate?

A

Triple therapy for 4-6 weeks

Med Spec (Infectious Diseases) (4 decks)

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