HIV Flashcards

1
Q
  • HIV is an (…) that attackes the immune system, maining the (…) cells
  • It causes a progressive decrease in the (…) cell count
  • Once this count falls below (…), the person becomes more susceptible to (…) and (…)

1. type of virus

A
  • RNA retrovirus
  • CD4+ T-helper cells
  • CD4+ T cell count
  • 200 cells/mm^3
  • opportunistic infections and certain malignancies
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2
Q
  • HIV has 2 subtypes, what are they?
  • Which subtype causes the vast majority of infections and is the predominant subtype in the US?
  • Because HIV is a retrovirus, it is very susceptible to (…); it has a (…) replication rate and (…) transcriptase enzymes
A
  • HIV-1 and HIV-2
  • HIV-1
  • mutations; high replication rate; error-prone reverse transcriptase
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3
Q
  • Rapid mutations allow HIV to evolve and develop (…) very rapidly
  • Because mutations can develop so rapidly, (…) regiments are the standard of care
  • You never want to give (…) for HIV treatment because HIV will becomes (…) to it very quickly
A
  • drug resistance
  • multidrug regimens
  • monotherapy; resistant
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4
Q
  • HIV is spread through what?
  • What are the two most common means of HIV transmission?
  • (…) transmission may occur as well
  • How does this occur?
A
  • infected blood, semen, and vaginal secretions
  • unprotected sex and sharing needles
  • vertical transmission (from mother to child)
  • during pregnancy, at birth, or through breastfeeding
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5
Q
  • The CDC recommends routine screening for patients ages (…) in all healthcare settings
  • Pregnant women and patients initiating treatment for (…) or (…) should also be tested for HIV
  • Persons at high risk should be tested for HIV (…)
  • Who are people in these high risk groups?
A
  • 13-64
  • TB or other STIs
  • annually
  • injecting drug users, high-risk sexual behaviors (male to male sex)
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6
Q
  • An acute HIV infection is characterized by an initial burst of (…)
  • A person experiencing acute HIV infection may experience (…) symptoms
  • (…) are undetectable initially; may show positive results at (…) weeks but may take (…) months
  • If trying to detect HIV before these time frames, you can test for (…) and (…) because they will be present
A
  • viremia (virus in blood)
  • flu-like symptoms
  • anti-HIV antibodies (HIV ab); 4-8 weeks; 3-6 months
  • HIV RNA and HIV p24 antigen
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7
Q

What lab parameters are recommended for the evaluation and monitoring of HIV infections?

(there are 5)

A
  • CD4+ count
  • HIV viral load
  • drug resistnace testing
  • comprehensive metabolic panel
  • hepatitis B and C testing
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8
Q
  • The CD4+ count is the key factor for determination of need for (…)
  • The treatment goal is a normal CD4+ count which is what?
A
  • opportunistic infection prophylaxis
  • 800-1200 cells/mm^3
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9
Q
  • HIV viral load is the most important indicator of what?
  • The treatment goal is to have an (…) HIV viral load
A
  • response to antiretroviral therapy (ART)
  • undetectable HIV viral load
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10
Q

What describing genotypic testing that determines the specific mutations of the HIV virus?

A

drug resistance testing

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11
Q
  • What is the first stage of the HIV life cycle?
  • HIV attaches with (…) to a CD4 receptor and the co-receptors (…) on the surface of the CD4+ host cell
  • The virus must bind/attach to both a (…) and a (…) in order for the next step of viral replication to occur
  • What drug classes target this stage?
A
  • binding/attachment
  • gp120; CCR5 and/or CXCR4
  • CD4 receptor and a co-receptor
  • CCR5 antagonist, CD4-directed post-attachment HIV-1 inhibitors
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12
Q
  • What is the second stage of the HIV life cycle?
  • (…) of the HIV viral envelope with the CD4+ host cell membrane allows HIV to enter the host cell, where (…) of the virus releases (…) and viral proteins and enzymes needed for HIV replication into host cell’s (…)
  • What drug classes target this stage?
A
  • fusion
  • fusion; uncoating; HIV RNA; cytoplasm
  • fusion inhibitors
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13
Q
  • What is the third stage in the HIV life cycle?
  • Once inside the cell, the single-stranded HIV RNA is converted to double-stranded HIV DNA by (…)
  • What drug classes target this stage?
A
  • reverse transcriptase
  • reverse transcriptase
  • nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs); non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
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14
Q
  • What is the fourth stage in the HIV life cycle?
  • HIV is transported across the host cell nuclear membrane and is (…) into the host cell’s (…)
  • What drug classes target this stage?
A
  • integration
  • integrated; host cell’s DNA
  • integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)
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15
Q
  • What is the fifth stage in the HIV life cycle?
  • HIV DNA is (…) and (…) into new HIV RNA as well as new viral proteins (envelope proteins and non-functional long-chain proteins)
  • What drug classes target this stage?
A
  • transcription and translation
  • transcribed and translated
  • no drugs target this stage
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16
Q
  • What is the sixth stage of the HIV life cycle?
  • New HIV RNA viral envelope proteins, and non-functional long-chain proteins migrate to the host cell surface and begin forming new, immature (…)
  • (…) enzyme is also incorporated into this newly forming HIV virus
  • What drug classes target this stage?
A
  • assembly
  • HIV virus
  • protease enzyme
  • no drugs target this stage
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17
Q
  • What is the seventh stage of the HIV life cycle?
  • Newly formed, immature HIV virus (…) from the host cell
  • During the maturation process, (…) cleaves the long-chain viral proteins into smaller, functional viral (…) and (…)
  • The mature HIV viruse is now able to move on and infect other (…) cells
  • What drug classes target this stage?
A
  • budding and maturation
  • buds off from host cell
  • protease; proteins and enzymes
  • CD4+ host cells
  • protease inhibitors (PIs)
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18
Q
  • Combination (…) has dramatically reduced HIV morbidity and mortality
  • (…) is recommended in all HIV-infected individuals
  • With this treatment, patients must have an adherence rate of (…) in order for it to be effective long-term
A
  • ART (antiretroviral therapy)
  • ART
  • 95% or higher (can’t miss more than 1 dose per month)
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19
Q

What are the primary goals of ART?

(there are 5)

A
  1. restore and preserve immune system
  2. suppress HIV viral load to undetectable levels
  3. prevent transmission
  4. reduce HIV-associated morbidity
  5. prolong survival
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20
Q
  • ART can be very (…), but there are many (…) available
  • It is important to leverage (…) and (…) to ensure patients can obtain and maintain access to ART
A
  • expensive; funding programs
  • social workers and programs
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21
Q
  • How to CCR5 antagonists work?
  • What drugs are CCR5 antagonists?
  • Patients must undergo a tropism test to determine the type of (…) present because this drug, (…), only works in (…) disease and patients may have (…), (…), or both receptors
  • In the tropic test, patients must be negative for what?
A
  • inhibits binding to the CCR5 co-receptor and prevents HIV from entering the cell
  • Maraviroc (selzentry)
  • co-receptor; maraviroc; CCR5 tropic disease; CCR5, CDCR4
  • CXCR4 or dual/mixed tropisms
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22
Q

Is maraviroc (selzentry) used often in HIV treatment? Why or why not?

A

no, there are other, more effective alternatives

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23
Q
  • What drug is a post-attachment HIV-1 inhibitor?
  • This is the first new class of (…) for HIV
  • How does this drug work?
  • How is it administered?
  • This is approved for use in (…) who are failing their current ART
  • Is this drug used often?
A
  • Ibalizumab
  • monoclonal antibody
  • binds to domain 2 of CD4 and blocks entry of HIV into host cells
  • IV
  • heavily treatment-experienced (with multidrug resistant HIV or MDR-HIV)
  • no, not used often
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24
Q
  • What do fusion inhibitors do?
  • What drug is a fusion inhibitor?
  • How is this drug given (dosage, ROA)?
  • Typically, this drug is only used in what type of patients?
  • Is this drug used often?
A
  • block fusion of the HIV virus with the CD4+ cells by blocking the conformational change in gp41 required for membrane fusion
  • enfuvirtide (fuzeon)
  • 90 mg subcutaneous injection BID
  • patients who are treatment-experiences with resistance to multiple other ARTs
  • not used often
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25
Q

Regarding the MOA of nucleoside/nucleotide transcriptase inhibitors:
- NRTIs are inhibitors of (…)
- They are analogs of (…) (nucleosides or nucleotides containing ribose) which all lack (…)
- Once they enter the cell, they are (…) by cellular enzymes, which is then encorporated into the viral DNA by (…)
- Because of the missing (…), the growing DNA chain is terminated

A
  • HIV reverse transcriptase
  • ribosides; 3’-hydroxyl group
  • phosphorylated; reverse transcriptase
  • 3’-hydroxyl group
26
Q

What drugs are NRTIs?

A
  • abacavir
  • lamivudine
  • emtricitabine
  • tenofovir

(bold are most common)

27
Q
  • All NRTIs are administered (…)
  • Tenofovir has two salt forms, what are they?
  • Which achieves better anti-HIV activity at lower dose, and has a lower side effect profile
  • All NRTIs are (…) excreted, except (…)
A
  • orally
  • tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) and tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)
  • tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)
  • renally excreted except for abacavir
28
Q
  • What are the boxed warnings for all NRTIs?
  • Abacavir is associated with (…), so patients must test negative for (…) allele to safely take
  • Tenofovir (TDF or TAF) is associated with (…) and (…)
  • What can Tenofovir cause?
  • What is the preferred NRTI?
A
  • lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis (fat accumulation)
  • hypersensitivity reaction; HLA-B*5701 allele
  • kidney damage and decreased bone density
  • AKI, CKD, proximal tubular injury (Fanconi syndrome)
  • TAF
29
Q

What drugs are non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)?

(“-vir-“)

A
  • nevirapine
  • efavirenz
  • etravirine
  • relpivirine
  • doravirine
30
Q
  • What is the MOA of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)?
  • Most NNRTIs are (…) inducers, so there are many (…)
  • Efavirenz is safe to use in which patients? Why?
  • What does Rilpivirine require in order to be absorbed? What should you avoid taking this with?
A
  • noncompetitive inhibitors of HIV reverse transcriptase
  • CYP450 inducers; drug interactions
  • patients coinfected with TB because lower potential for drug interaction (lower CYP induction compared to others)
  • acidic stomach; avoid proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)
31
Q

What are the adverse effects of NNRTIs?

A
  • serious psychiatric symptoms (suicidal ideation, depression)
  • CNS symptoms (usually resolve 2-4 weeks; includes impaired concentration, dizziness, vivid dreams)
32
Q

What drugs are integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTI)?

(“-tegravir”)

A
  • raltegravir
  • elvitegravir
  • dolutegravir
  • bictegravir
  • cabotegravir
33
Q
  • What is the MOA of integrase strand transfer inhibitors?
  • Oral INSTIs are subject to (…)
  • What should you avoid taking oral INSTIs with?
  • Elvitegravir has a short half life of (…) and is often given with (…) to “boost” its half-life to allow once daily dosing
  • What is a CYP3A4 inhibitor that has no retrovial activity by itself?
A
  • blocks integrase; inhibits the insertion of viral DNA into the host genome
  • chelation with cations
  • avoid antacids
  • 3 hours; cobicistat
  • cobicistat (Tybost)
34
Q

What are the mainstay of initial treatment for HIV?

A

INSTIs

35
Q
  • How can resistance occur with INSTIs?
  • Which drugs have cross resistance?
  • Which drugs have limited cross-resistance to other INSTIs?
A
  • mutations within the inetrase gene
  • cross-resistance between raltegravir and elvitegravir
  • dolutegravir and bictegravir
36
Q
  • What is the mainstay for initial HIV therapy (general combo)?
  • What is the best initial option (actual drugs)?
A
  • INSTI + 2 NRTIs (dual NRTI backbone)
  • biktarvy (bictegravir + emtricitabine, TAF)
37
Q
  • What is a long-acting injection approved for the treatment of HIV?
  • What is the general combo for this?
A
  • Cabenuva (cabotegravir, rilpivirine)
  • INSTI + NNRTI
38
Q

What drugs are protease inhibitors?

(“-navir”)

A
  • atazanavir
  • durunavir
  • lopinavir/r (boosted)
  • nelfinavir
  • saquinavir
  • tipranavir
39
Q
  • What is the MOA of protease inhibitors?
  • It is recommended that all PAs be (…)
A
  • inhibit HIV protease; prevents assembly of viral proteins and maturation of virus
  • boosted
40
Q
  • What are the different boosting agents for HIV drugs?
  • Where are all PIs metabolized in?
  • PIs are (…) substrates
  • Most PIs are also (…) inhibitors
  • Therefore, there are many (…)
A
  • ritonavir and cobicistat
  • liver
  • CYP3A4 substrates
  • CYP3A4 inhibitors
  • drug interactions
41
Q

What are the different drugs that protease inhibitors may have drug interactions with?

A
  • CYP3A4 inhibitors (rifampin, St. Johns Wort)
  • antiarrhythmics (dronedarone, amiodarone)
  • anticoagulants/antiplatelets (apixaban, edoxaban, rivaroxaban, ticagrelor, warfarin)
  • hormonal conraceptives
  • methadone
  • PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil)
  • statins (lovastatin, simvastatin)
42
Q

Because of long list of contraindicated or dose-adjustments required, PIs are not typically recommended at what?

A

first line agent for HIV treatment

43
Q

What are the adverse effects of protease inhibitors?

A
  • hepatotoxicity
  • metabolic abnormalities (hyperlipidemia, lipohypertrophy, insulin resistance/hyperglycemia)
  • GI upset (N/V/D)
  • fat redistribution (buffalo hump)
44
Q

Which protease inhibitor has the highest risk for hepatotoxicity?

A

tipranavir

45
Q
  • What agents can act as boosters for HIV drugs?
  • Do they have antiviral activity?
  • Which one is difficult to co-formlate with other ARVs?
A
  • ritonavir, cobicistat
  • ritonavir does (protease inhibitor), cobicistat does not
  • ritonavir
46
Q
  • INSTI-based regimens are recommended as (…) therapy for most patients
  • An INSTI-based regimen is an (…)
  • What can the 2 NRTIs be referred to as?
A
  • initial therapy
  • an INSTI + 2 NRTIs
  • dual NRTI backbone
47
Q
  • What drugs make up truvada?
  • What is truvada given with?
A
  • emtricitabine/TDF
  • dolutegravir (tivicay)
48
Q
  • What drugs make up descovy?
  • What is descovy given with?
  • What patients can this combo be used in?
A
  • emtricitabine/TAF
  • dolutegravir (tivicay)
  • pregnant patients
49
Q
  • What is the most popular INSTI+2NRTI regiment at this time?
  • What does the use of abacavir require?
  • What drug should be used with caution in patients with renal insufficiency?
  • Single tablet regimens offer no flexibility in (…)
A
  • biktarvy
  • testing pts for HLA-B*5701 allele
  • tenofovir disproxil fumarate (TDF)
  • renal dosing
50
Q
  • What is an HIV prevention method in people who do not have HIV in high-risk groups?
  • What types of individuals would be in this group?
A
  • Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)
  • men who have sex with men (MSM), sex with an HIV positive partner, persons who inject drugs
51
Q

What are the principles of PrEP?

A
  • must be HIV negative
  • no documented hepatitis B virus
  • normal renal function
52
Q

What is the surveillance during PrEP use?

A
  • must have follow up visit every 3 months
  • this includes: HIV test, renal funtion test, evaluation for bacterial STDs
53
Q

What are the different PrEP regimens and their ROA?

A

truvada
- emtricitabine/tenofovir disproxil fumarate
- oral - 1 tablet daily
descovy
- emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide
- oral - 1 tablet daily
apretude
- cabotegravir
- long-acting injection (1 month)

(truvada mostly used, better efficacy and cheaper)

54
Q
  • What is PEP?
  • When must a patient start PEP to prevent HIV?
  • What is the length of PEP treatment?
A
  • post exposure prophylaxis - taking ART to prevent HIV after possible exposure
  • within 72 hours
  • 28 days
55
Q

What are the recommended PEP regimens?

A
  • biktarvy (bictegravir/emtricitabine/TAF)
  • dolutegravir + TDF or TAF
  • raltegravir + TDF or TAF
56
Q
  • Which PEP regimen is usually what is prescribed?
  • Which PEP regimen is not recommended due to twice daily dosing?
A
  • Biktarvy
  • Raltegravir
57
Q

What are some complications of ART?

A
  • lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis
  • immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
58
Q
  • Lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis is a complication most common with (…)
  • If this happens, (…) treatment
A
  • NRTIs
  • stop treatment
59
Q
  • What is the paradoxical worsening of a pre-existing opportunistic infection or malignany once ART is initiated?
  • What common pathogens are associated with this?
A
  • immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
  • M. tuberculosis, M. avium, Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), herpes viruses
60
Q

How is IRIS managed?

A
  • treat underlying opportunistic pathogen
  • continue ART