History Taking, Airway Flashcards

0
Q

What information do you get from the OR schedule?

A
Patient demographics (name, age, sex)
Procedure, diagnosis
Length of procedure, position
Surgeon
Type of anesthesia- requested
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1
Q

What are the 3 main questions answered by a preoperative assessment?

A
  1. Is the patient in optimal health?
  2. Could health problems/meds unexpectedly influence perioperative events?
  3. Should the patient’s physical or mental condition be improved BEFORE surgery?
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2
Q

What are the 6 purposes to the preoperative interview?

A
  1. get medical history, 2. form anesthetic care plan, 3. get informed consent, 4. patient education, 5. improve efficiency (reduce cost of perioperative care), 6. Motivate patient to more optimal health status
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3
Q

What is included in the airway physical exam?

A

Mallampati, Thyromental distance, head and neck movement, neck circumference, interincisor distance, dentition, relevant craniofacial deformities
Look for predictors of difficult airways

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4
Q

Why would you do laboratory tests on a patient preoperatively?

A

Reduce anesthetic morbidity, increase quality of perioperative care, decrease cost of perioperative care, return patient to desirable functioning
**Lab tests are NOT good disease screening tools. Think, will the results of this test change my plan of care or improve outcomes (Litmus test)?

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5
Q

Sensitivity vs. Specificity?

A

Sensitivity: positive in a patient that has a disease
Specificity: negative in a patient without a disease

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6
Q

What is the ASA status? What are the different classifications?

A

Classifies the physical condition of a patient
1: normal healthy patient, no disease
2: mild disease well controlled (ex: mild obesity, pregnancy, smoker)
3: severe systemic disease, functional limitation (chronic renal failure, old MI)
4: severe disease, life-threatening (symptomatic COPD)
5: not expected to live without a procedure (multiorgan failure, sepsis, bleeding
6: brain dead, waiting to donate organs
E: emergency operation required

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7
Q

What is the ASA status of a smoker?

A

ASA 2

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8
Q

What is the ASA status of a healthy person that needs their appendix out?

A

ASA 1E

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9
Q

What is the ASA status of a 65 year old with CAD (on meds), hypertension (on meds), PVD, with history of stroke, schedule for hip replacement?

A

ASA 3 (stroke makes it a 3)

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10
Q

What is the ASA status of a 30 year old smoker involved in MVA with bilateral open femur fractures and liver lac?

A

ASA 3 if stable vitals

ASA 4 is unstable vitals

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11
Q

How long should a patient be NPO for.. clear liquid diet, breast milk, formula/solids, and for heavy meals

A
2 hours for clears
4 hours for breast milk
6 hours for formula
8 hours for heavy meals
This is ASA guidelines, follow policy guidelines too
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12
Q

Name some patients at risk of aspirating

A

Old and young, ascites (ESLD, collagen vascular disease), metabolic disorders (DM, obesity, ESRD, hypothyroid), hernia, GERD, esophageal surgery, mechanical obstruction, prematurity, pregnancy, neuro disease

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13
Q

What is included in informed consent?

A

Explanation of planned anesthetic, explanation of available options, risks/benefits (reasonable clinician standard and prudent patient standard are legal guidelines), patient understands/cooperates
No consent is assault and battery
Signature of patient and witness

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14
Q

List indications for intubation

A
Airway protection
Maintenance of patent airway and oxygenation
Apply positive pressure
Deliver predictable FiO2
Provide PEEP
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15
Q

List indications for a mask case

A

No difficult airway, no head/neck surgery, no airway bleeding/secretions, short case, no position changes

16
Q

Which co-morbidities can effect airway management?

A

Lesions of larynx, thyroid disease, cancer, GERD, diabetes, sleep apnea, obesity, genetic disorders, rheumatoid arthritis, musculoskeletal, scleroderma
Congenital: Down, Pierre Robin, Treacher Collins, Turner

17
Q

What surgical history may effect airway management?

A

Trach/scar, neck dissection, UVPP (uvulopalatoplasty), cervical neck fusion

18
Q

What is included in the physical exam of the airway assessment?

A

Appearance (head, neck, facial hair), mouth (lips, gums, tissue), teeth (length of incisors, overbite, protrusions, dentures, bridges, missing teeth)
Mouth opens more than 2 finger-breadths (size, mobility of tongue, mandible, TMJ)
Thyromental distance 3 or more fingers
Hyoidmental distance 2 fingers
Cervical range of motion: atlanto-occipital joint
Listen to breath sounds (snoring, stridor)
Mandibular protrusion test (class A,B,C: A can protrude, C can’t)
Mallampati: 1-4

19
Q

What is included in Mallampati 1-4?

A

Class 1: see entire uvula, pillar, fauces, soft/hard palate
Class 2: uvula, fauces, soft/hard palate, when intubating you see vocal cords but small
Class 3: base of uvula, soft/hard palate, when intubating you only see epiglottis
Class 4: hard palate only

20
Q

What is in your airway set up?

A

Laryngoscope, 2 types of blades, oral/nasal airways of dif sizes, tongue depressor, ETT 2 sizes with stylets and syringe on cuff, suction, ambu-bag, LMA (#4 LMA allows ETT 6.5 through)

21
Q

What is in a difficult airway cart?

A

Different designs of laryngoscope blades, different ETT sizes and guides, supraglottic airway devices, fiberoptic intubation equipment, retrograde intubation equipment, jet ventilation equipment, Cricothyrotomy equipment, exhaled CO2 detector

22
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles of the larynx innervated by?

A

RLN except cricothyroid (SLN-ext)

23
Q

What is the innervation above the vocal cords?

What is the innervation below the vocal cords?

A

above: SLN-int
below: RLN
* SLN-ext innervates the cricothyroid

24
Q

What innervates the posterior 1/3 of the tongue and oropharynx to the vallecula?

A

Glossopharyngeal

25
Q

What do standards 1 and 3 of the AANA say?

A

1: a practitioner must perform a complete pre-anesthesia assessment
3: a practitioner must formulate a patient-specific plan for anesthesia

26
Q

What is class A/B/C tell you during the mandibular protrusion test?

A

Class A: lower incisors can be protruded anterior to the upper incisors (best)
Class B: lower incisors can be brought edge to edge with upper incisors
Class C: lower incisors can’t be brought to the upper incisors