Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

renal carcinoma

macroscopically - solid brown

histo - sheets of large cells with distinct cell borders and a thick walled vasculature

A

chromophobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

osteoblastic bone met suggests which primary?

A

prostate CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

‘small round blue cells’ in bone tumour…

A

Ewing Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when does fibrous dysplasia become problematic?

A

cosmetic

shepard’s crook deformity involving acetabulum, weak bone and microfractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can occur in hypothyroidism due to raised TRH

A

galactorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

testicular pathology: very aggressive tumour producing HCG and AFP; neoplastic cells are anaplastic

A

embryonal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This type of bone is immature and usually pathological.

A

woven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where does osteosarcoma most frequently occur?

A

femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

osteochondroma is benign or malignant?

A

benigin

malignant potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ovarian biopsy shows malignant signet ring cells containing mucin

A

Krukenberg tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 45 year old lady is referred to the breast clinic with nipple retraction

A

breast invastive carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

osteosarcoma is benign or malignant?

A

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where do you get osteoid osteoma?

A

diaphysis/cortex of long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia sometimes associated with ? (syndrome)

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

polyendocrinopathy, precocious puberty etc..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what disorder is associated wit multiple renal clear cell carcinoma?

A

von hippl lindau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the complications of Paget’s disease?

A
  1. hearing loss/tinnitus
  2. transformation to osterosarcoma
  3. high-output cardiac failure
  4. spinal stenosis/nerve impingement
  5. arthritis/pathological fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

soap-bubble osteolysis in many bones…

A

fibrous dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what bone tumour is Gardner syndrome associated with?

A

osteoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the cytogenetic marker of Ewing Sarcoma?

A

t(11;22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the two subtypes of TCC?

A

non-invasive, papillary carcinoma (note the odd nomeclature)

invasive/infiltrative carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the three renal carcinoma subtypes?

A

clear cell

papillary renal cell

chromophobe renal call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 56-year old female presents with a palpable mass in her left breast. Radiology shows microcalcification

A

DCIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

58-year-old woman presents to her GP with a painful lump in her right breast. On examination there is also evidence of peau d’orange.

A

infiltrative/invasive ductal carcinoma

note: can become ulcerative and painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

where in the body do you get osteoblastoma usually?

A

vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
An 18 year old student presents to his GP with focal pain in his left fore-arm which is tender to touch and worsens at night. The pain is relieved with aspirin. An X-ray shows a 1cm are of radio-lucency in the tibia surrounded by dense bone
osteoid osteoma
26
An 8 year old boy is brought to his GP by his parents with pain in his hips and a fever. Blood results demonstrate a raised ESR and biopsy histology shows droplets of glycogen in the cytoplasm of small round cells in the pelvic bones.
Ewing sarcoma
27
where do giat cell tumours occur? are they benign or malignant?
long bone **epiphysis** (lytic lesion) borderline malignant - can spread to lung haematogenously locally aggresive - composed mostly of osteoclasts
28
what is the preferred method for diagnosis of bone tumour?
needle biopsy under radiological guidance Jamshidi needle can be an open biopsy for a sclerotic or inaccessible lesion
29
Germ cell tumour originating in testis that is radiosensitive and classically presents in the 4th decade.
seminoma
30
A 47 year-old woman visits her GP after having noticed a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. The lump is fixed and is not painful on palpation. She is also complaining of back pain.
invasive breast CA
31
where do you get Ewing sarcoma?
diaphysis, metaphysis of long bones & pelvis
32
is osteoid osteoma benign or malignant?
benign
33
endchondroma is benign or malignant?
malignant
34
'onion skinning of the periosteum'
Ewing sarcoma
35
on x-ray, a metaphyseal, lytic lesion with elevated periosteum in a 25 year old man tumour?
osteosarcoma regognise Codman's triangle
36
renal carcinoma macroscopically - brown, friable histopath - foamy macrophages within malignant epithelial cells with tubulopapillary growth pattern measuring \<5 mm in size
papillary renal cell carcinoma
37
what is the age range for NHS cervical screening?
25-65 years
38
Commonest malignant cause of testicular mass in those aged 60
diffuse large B cell lymphoma
39
Cystic dilatation of duct during lactation caused by obstruction
galactocele
40
when do you get osteosarcoma?
10-30 years old
41
Commonest malignant cause of testicular mass in those aged under 5.
acute lymphoblastic lymphoma
42
where in the urothelial tract do TCC most frequently arise?
bladder
43
when do you get fibrous dysplasia?
1st-3rd decades of life
44
where do you get osteosarcoma?
lower femur, upper tibia if older, can get it in the jaw
45
A 60 year old lady presents with a hard palpable mass in the right breast. The mammography shows that the lump is calcified. FNA results show that the cells in the lump have pleomorphic nuclei and that the lump has a necrotic centre
ductal carcinoma in situ remember: calcifications are commonly associated with DCIS
46
'popcorn calcification' suggests?
enchondroma
47
ovarian biopsy shows squamous epithelium mixed with intestinal epithelium
mature cystic teratoma
48
who gets chondrosarcoma? where?
40 y/o or older pelvis, axial skeleton, proximal femur
49
who is affected by osteochondroma? | (age)
10-30 years old
50
what are the two types of fibrous dysplasia?
1. monosteotic fibrous dysplasia (70% - freq femur) 2. McCune-Albright syndrome (30%, polyosteotic)
51
renal biopsy grossly - golden yellow tumour with haemorrhagic areas histo - nets of epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm set in a delicate capillary network cytogenetically - losses at chr 3p
clear cell carcinoma
52
what is enchondroma?
cartelagenous proliferation within the bone
53
the Gleason score is a prognostic indicator for what condition?
prostate carcinoma
54
on x-ray, a central lucent nidus with sclerotic opaque rim suggests...
osteoid osteoma
55
A 45 years old woman presents with multiple bilateral masses, each less than 10mm. FNA revealed serous, turbid fluid
breast cyst
56
is osteoid osteoma painless or painful?
painful
57
what are the cut offs for CKD?
classified into stages by eGFR 60-90 - mild 30-60 - moderate 15-30 - severe \<15 - renal failure (required replacement therapy)
58
what patient group get papillary renal cell carcinoma?
pts on dialysis
59
what is the most common presenting complaint for Wilms tumour?
abdominal mass
60
'globular uterus' ...diagnosis?
adenomyosis
61
is tamoxifen a risk factor or preventer of endometrial ca?
risk factor
62
what is the most sensitive and specific coeliac disease test?
anti-TTG
63
which are the serotypes of *strep pneumo* that commonly cause lobar pneumonia?
1, 2, 3, 7
64
Wilm's tumour also known as... what is the mutation causing and where is the gene? what is the tissue that the tumour derives from?
nephroblastoma *WT1* tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11 embryonic metanephros
65
what are the common bugs for viral meningitis?
**HSV-2**, coxsackie A, echovirus, poliovirus, HIV seroconversion (10%), mumps (10%) * remember that HSV-1 causes **encephalitis*** note: % refers to the proportion of these systemic viral infections that involve meningitis