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Pathology BB quizzes > Histopathology > Flashcards

Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

renal carcinoma

macroscopically - solid brown

histo - sheets of large cells with distinct cell borders and a thick walled vasculature

A

chromophobe

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2
Q

osteoblastic bone met suggests which primary?

A

prostate CA

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3
Q

‘small round blue cells’ in bone tumour…

A

Ewing Sarcoma

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4
Q

when does fibrous dysplasia become problematic?

A

cosmetic

shepard’s crook deformity involving acetabulum, weak bone and microfractures

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5
Q

Can occur in hypothyroidism due to raised TRH

A

galactorrhoea

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6
Q

testicular pathology: very aggressive tumour producing HCG and AFP; neoplastic cells are anaplastic

A

embryonal carcinoma

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7
Q

This type of bone is immature and usually pathological.

A

woven

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8
Q

where does osteosarcoma most frequently occur?

A

femur

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9
Q

osteochondroma is benign or malignant?

A

benigin

malignant potential

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10
Q

ovarian biopsy shows malignant signet ring cells containing mucin

A

Krukenberg tumour

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11
Q

A 45 year old lady is referred to the breast clinic with nipple retraction

A

breast invastive carcinoma

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12
Q

osteosarcoma is benign or malignant?

A

malignant

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13
Q

where do you get osteoid osteoma?

A

diaphysis/cortex of long bone

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14
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia sometimes associated with ? (syndrome)

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

polyendocrinopathy, precocious puberty etc..

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15
Q

what disorder is associated wit multiple renal clear cell carcinoma?

A

von hippl lindau

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16
Q

what are the complications of Paget’s disease?

A
  1. hearing loss/tinnitus
  2. transformation to osterosarcoma
  3. high-output cardiac failure
  4. spinal stenosis/nerve impingement
  5. arthritis/pathological fractures
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17
Q

soap-bubble osteolysis in many bones…

A

fibrous dysplasia

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18
Q

what bone tumour is Gardner syndrome associated with?

A

osteoma

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19
Q

what is the cytogenetic marker of Ewing Sarcoma?

A

t(11;22)

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20
Q

what are the two subtypes of TCC?

A

non-invasive, papillary carcinoma (note the odd nomeclature)

invasive/infiltrative carcinoma

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21
Q

what are the three renal carcinoma subtypes?

A

clear cell

papillary renal cell

chromophobe renal call

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22
Q

A 56-year old female presents with a palpable mass in her left breast. Radiology shows microcalcification

A

DCIS

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23
Q

58-year-old woman presents to her GP with a painful lump in her right breast. On examination there is also evidence of peau d’orange.

A

infiltrative/invasive ductal carcinoma

note: can become ulcerative and painful

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24
Q

where in the body do you get osteoblastoma usually?

A

vertebra

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25
Q

An 18 year old student presents to his GP with focal pain in his left fore-arm which is tender to touch and worsens at night. The pain is relieved with aspirin. An X-ray shows a 1cm are of radio-lucency in the tibia surrounded by dense bone

A

osteoid osteoma

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26
Q

An 8 year old boy is brought to his GP by his parents with pain in his hips and a fever. Blood results demonstrate a raised ESR and biopsy histology shows droplets of glycogen in the cytoplasm of small round cells in the pelvic bones.

A

Ewing sarcoma

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27
Q

where do giat cell tumours occur?

are they benign or malignant?

A

long bone epiphysis (lytic lesion)

borderline malignant - can spread to lung haematogenously

locally aggresive - composed mostly of osteoclasts

28
Q

what is the preferred method for diagnosis of bone tumour?

A

needle biopsy under radiological guidance

Jamshidi needle

can be an open biopsy for a sclerotic or inaccessible lesion

29
Q

Germ cell tumour originating in testis that is radiosensitive and classically presents in the 4th decade.

A

seminoma

30
Q

A 47 year-old woman visits her GP after having noticed a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. The lump is fixed and is not painful on palpation. She is also complaining of back pain.

A

invasive breast CA

31
Q

where do you get Ewing sarcoma?

A

diaphysis, metaphysis of long bones & pelvis

32
Q

is osteoid osteoma benign or malignant?

A

benign

33
Q

endchondroma is benign or malignant?

A

malignant

34
Q

‘onion skinning of the periosteum’

A

Ewing sarcoma

35
Q

on x-ray, a metaphyseal, lytic lesion with elevated periosteum in a 25 year old man

tumour?

A

osteosarcoma

regognise Codman’s triangle

36
Q

renal carcinoma

macroscopically - brown, friable

histopath - foamy macrophages within malignant epithelial cells with tubulopapillary growth pattern measuring <5 mm in size

A

papillary renal cell carcinoma

37
Q

what is the age range for NHS cervical screening?

A

25-65 years

38
Q

Commonest malignant cause of testicular mass in those aged 60

A

diffuse large B cell lymphoma

39
Q

Cystic dilatation of duct during lactation caused by obstruction

A

galactocele

40
Q

when do you get osteosarcoma?

A

10-30 years old

41
Q

Commonest malignant cause of testicular mass in those aged under 5.

A

acute lymphoblastic lymphoma

42
Q

where in the urothelial tract do TCC most frequently arise?

A

bladder

43
Q

when do you get fibrous dysplasia?

A

1st-3rd decades of life

44
Q

where do you get osteosarcoma?

A

lower femur, upper tibia

if older, can get it in the jaw

45
Q

A 60 year old lady presents with a hard palpable mass in the right breast. The mammography shows that the lump is calcified. FNA results show that the cells in the lump have pleomorphic nuclei and that the lump has a necrotic centre

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

remember: calcifications are commonly associated with DCIS

46
Q

‘popcorn calcification’ suggests?

A

enchondroma

47
Q

ovarian biopsy shows squamous epithelium mixed with intestinal epithelium

A

mature cystic teratoma

48
Q

who gets chondrosarcoma?

where?

A

40 y/o or older

pelvis, axial skeleton, proximal femur

49
Q

who is affected by osteochondroma?

(age)

A

10-30 years old

50
Q

what are the two types of fibrous dysplasia?

A
  1. monosteotic fibrous dysplasia (70% - freq femur)
  2. McCune-Albright syndrome (30%, polyosteotic)
51
Q

renal biopsy

grossly - golden yellow tumour with haemorrhagic areas

histo - nets of epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm set in a delicate capillary network

cytogenetically - losses at chr 3p

A

clear cell carcinoma

52
Q

what is enchondroma?

A

cartelagenous proliferation within the bone

53
Q

the Gleason score is a prognostic indicator for what condition?

A

prostate carcinoma

54
Q

on x-ray, a central lucent nidus with sclerotic opaque rim suggests…

A

osteoid osteoma

55
Q

A 45 years old woman presents with multiple bilateral masses, each less than 10mm. FNA revealed serous, turbid fluid

A

breast cyst

56
Q

is osteoid osteoma painless or painful?

A

painful

57
Q

what are the cut offs for CKD?

A

classified into stages by eGFR

60-90 - mild

30-60 - moderate

15-30 - severe

<15 - renal failure (required replacement therapy)

58
Q

what patient group get papillary renal cell carcinoma?

A

pts on dialysis

59
Q

what is the most common presenting complaint for Wilms tumour?

A

abdominal mass

60
Q

‘globular uterus’

…diagnosis?

A

adenomyosis

61
Q

is tamoxifen a risk factor or preventer of endometrial ca?

A

risk factor

62
Q

what is the most sensitive and specific coeliac disease test?

A

anti-TTG

63
Q

which are the serotypes of strep pneumo that commonly cause lobar pneumonia?

A

1, 2, 3, 7

64
Q

Wilm’s tumour also known as…

what is the mutation causing and where is the gene?

what is the tissue that the tumour derives from?

A

nephroblastoma

WT1 tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11

embryonic metanephros

65
Q

what are the common bugs for viral meningitis?

A

HSV-2, coxsackie A, echovirus, poliovirus, HIV seroconversion (10%), mumps (10%)

  • remember that HSV-1 causes encephalitis*
    note: % refers to the proportion of these systemic viral infections that involve meningitis

Pathology BB quizzes (5 decks)

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