Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

Which respiratory pathology is defined as persistent dilatation of the bronchial airways?

A

Bronchiectasis

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2
Q

Which is the most common genetic disease associated with bronchiectasis?

A

Cystic fibrosis

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3
Q

Which bacterial infections are common in bronchiectasis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae, pseudomonas aeruginosa, staphylococcus aureus),

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4
Q

What are the characteristic clinical features of bronchiectasis?

A
  • Cough (Productive, mucoid sputum)
  • Dyspnoea
  • Haemoptysis
  • Pleuritic chest pain
  • Wheeze
  • Bi-basal crepitations
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5
Q

What is the most common infective cause of bronchiectasis in adult patients?

A

Pertussis

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6
Q

What are the 4 common congenital cause of bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Cystic Fibrosis
  2. Primary Ciliary dyskinesia
  3. Hypogammaglobulinaemia
    4 - Young’s syndrome
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7
Q

What is Young’s syndrome?

A

Triad of Rhinosinusitis, azoospermia, and bronchiectasis.

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8
Q

What is the diagnostic test for bronchiectasis?

A

High-resolution CT

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9
Q

What are the findings associated with HRCT?

A
  • Bronchoarterial ratio >1
  • Signet Ring sign – Dilated airways
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10
Q

What are the complications associated bronchiectasis?

A

Recurrent infections, haemoptysis, cor pulmonale and amyloidosis.

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11
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

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12
Q

What is the pathogenic mutation associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

Delta F508 of the CFTR gene

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13
Q

Which test is used to diagnose CF in the newborn blood spot test?

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen

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14
Q

What is the diagnostic test for confirming CF (include threshold)?

A

Positive sweat chloride test (>60 mmol/L).

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15
Q

Decreased secretion of which ion underpins the aetiology of CF?

A

Chloride

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16
Q

Which bacteria is commonly associated with CF respiratory tract infections?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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17
Q

Which is the ABx of choice for the management of Pseudomonas aeruginosa in CF patients?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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18
Q

What is the first line mucolytic in the management of CF?

A

Dornase alfa

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19
Q

What are the three pathophysiological principles for the aetiology of asthma?

A
  1. Mucous hypersecretion
  2. Smooth muscle contraction
  3. Inflammatory cell infiltration.
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20
Q

What is the aetiology of the immediate phase of asthma?

A

Mast cell degranulation resulting in mediator release

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21
Q

Which IL is responsible for eosinophil recruitment?

A

IL-5

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22
Q

What are the four histological findings associated with asthma?

A

Hyperaemia

Eosinophils and goblet cell hyperplasia

Hypertrophic constricted muscle

Mucous plugging

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23
Q

What are Curshmann’s spiral in athma?

A

Spiral-shaped mucous plug

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24
Q

Which type of crystals are found in eosinophils and basophil granules in asthma?

A

Charcot Leyden Crystal

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25
Q

What are ‘Heart-failure’ cells?

A

Iron-laded macrophages

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26
Q

How are oxidised LDLs detected?

A

Scavenger receptors

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27
Q

What are heart failure cells?

A

Iron-laded macrophages

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28
Q
A
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29
Q

What are the three advanced disease features in Interstitial Lung Disease?

A

Digital clubbing, pulmonary hypertension (increased P2 sound), Cor pulmonale.

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30
Q

What changes on light microscopy are observed in minimal change disease?

A

None

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic disease in children?

A

Minimal change disease

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32
Q

How are OxLDLs detected?

A

Scavenger receptors

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33
Q

What are the three types of angina?

A

Stable angina
Unstable angina
Prinzmetal angina

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34
Q

What are the histological findings of cardiomyocytes 6-24 hours of myocardial infarction?

A

Loss of nuclei, homogenous cytoplasm, necrotic cell death.

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35
Q

At what stage does granulation tissue appear due to microfibroblast activity post-myocardial infarction?

A

1-2 weeks

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36
Q

Most commmon cause of sudden deeath

A

VF

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37
Q

When does Dressler’s syndrome occur?

A

~6-8 weeks post-MI

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38
Q

Persistent ST-elevation >4 weeks post-MI, cause?

A

Ventricular aneurysm

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39
Q

What is the causative organism for rheumatic fever

A

Lancefield Group A streptococcus

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40
Q

How is rheumatic fever diagnosed?

A

Jones Criteria

2 Major

OR

1 Major + 2 Minor

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41
Q

What are the minor criteria associated with Rheumatic fever?

A

Fever
Raised CRP/ESR
Migratory arthralgia
Prolonged PR
Prev. rheumatic fever
Malaise
Tachycardia

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42
Q

Which cardiac valve is predominantly affected in Rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral valve (70%)

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43
Q

What term describes cell-mediated immunity and antibodies to streptococcal antigens cross-reacting with myocardial antigens?

A

Antigenic mimicry

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44
Q

What are the three histological findings observed in rheumatic fever?

A
  • Beady fibrous vegetations (verrucae)
  • Aschoff bodies (small giant cell granulomas)
  • Anitschkov myocytes (regenerating myocytes)
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45
Q

What term describes regenerating myocytes in rheumatic fever?

A

Anitschkov myocytes

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46
Q

What is the ABx of choice for the management of rheumatic fever?

A

Benzylpenicillin

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47
Q

What term describes small warty vegetations in rheumatic heart disease?

A

Verrucae

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48
Q

What is Libman Sacks endocarditis?

A

Pathogenesis unknown. Associated with SLE and anti-phospholipid syndrome.

Small (up to 2mm) warty vegetations that are sterile and platelet rich

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49
Q

Which organism is implicated in infective endocarditis associated with poor dental hygeine?

A

Streptococcus viridians

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50
Q

Which infective endocarditis associated organism is associated with colon carcinoma?

A

Streptococcus bovis

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51
Q

What are the common causative organisms for acute infective endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (30-40%)

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

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52
Q

Which is the common causative organism associated with acute infective endocarditis associated with prosthetic valves?

A

Coagulase-negative staphylococcus

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53
Q

Which group of organisms are associated with subacute infective endocarditis?

A

HACEK Organisms:
Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterum, Eikenella, and Kingella.

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54
Q

Which two cardiac valves are predisposed to infective endocarditis?

A

Aortic valve
Mitral valve

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55
Q

Which valve is predisposed to infective endocarditis in the context of IVDU?

A

Right-sided valves e.g., Tricuspid valve

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56
Q

What are the thromboembolic symptoms associated with infective endocarditis?

A
  • Splinter haemorrhages (thin red-brown lines along fingernails)
  • Petechiae
  • Janeway lesions (Painless flat macules on the palms and soles)
  • Septic abscess in lungs/brains/spleen/kidney
  • Micro-emboli
  • Splenomegaly
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57
Q

What immune phenomena is associated with infective endocarditis?

A
  • Osler’s nodes (Tender red/purple nodules on the pads of the fingers and toes)
  • Roth spots (Retinal haemorrhages)
  • Haematuria due to glomerulonephritis
  • Finger clubbing
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58
Q

Which diagnostic criteria is used for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

A

Dukes Criteria

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59
Q

What are the minor criteria associated with infective endocarditis (TIMER)?

A

Thromboembolic phenomena

Immune phenomena

  • Risk factors (e.g., prosthetic valve, IVDU, congenital valve abnormalities).
  • Fever >38
  • Positive blood cultures not meeting major criteria.
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60
Q

What is the ABx of choice for subacute infective endocarditis?

A

Benzylpenicillin + gentamicin or vancomycin for 4 weeks.

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61
Q

What is the ABx of choice for acute infective endocarditis?

A
  • Acute: Flucloxacillin for MSSA, rifampicin + vancomycin + gentamicin for MRSA.
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62
Q

What is preload?

A

Initial stretch of cardiomyocytes before contraction – due to ventricular filling - increase  Increase stroke volume (Frank-Starling Principle).

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63
Q

What is afterload?

A
  • Afterload = Pressure of vessels (Aortic and pulmonary artery pressures) against which the heart must contract to eject blood  Increase in afterload will decrease stroke volume (Inverse relationship).
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64
Q

Causes of Heart failure?

A
  • Ischaemic heart disease
  • Myocarditis
  • Hypertension
  • Cardiomyopathy (Dilated)
  • Valve disease
  • Arrhythmias
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65
Q

Liver pathology associated with right-sided heart failure?

A

Nutmeg liver

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66
Q

What is the most common cause of right ventricular failure?

A

Left ventricular failure due to chronic severe pulmonary hypertension

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67
Q

Features of right sided heart failure?

A
  • Manifestations: Peripheral oedema, ascites, facial engorgement.

N.B: Congestion and stasis of venous blood in RHF = Nutmeg liver.

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68
Q

What type of heart failure is associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Systolic dysfunction

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69
Q

Hypertrophic and restrictive heart failure is associated with which type of heart failure?

A

Diastolic heart failure

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70
Q

What are the three most common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, radiation-induced fibrosis,

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71
Q

What are the histological findings observed in HOCM?

A

Myocyte disarray

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72
Q

What is the inheritance pattern associated with HOCM?

A

Autosomal dominant

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73
Q

Which gene is implicated in the pathology of HOCM?

A

B-myosin gene

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74
Q

What type of hypertropjhy results in outflow tract obstruction in hocm?

A

Septal hypertrophy

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75
Q

What term describes myocyte loss with fibrofatty replacement affecting the right ventricle?

A

Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy

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76
Q
A
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77
Q
A
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78
Q

What is the most common cause of AKI?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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79
Q

What is the most common pre-renal cause of acute tubular necrosis?

A

Ischaemia (sepsis, hypotension)

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80
Q

Which nephrotoxic drugs result in acute tubular necrosis?

A

Aminoglycosides, amphotericin B, iodinated contrast, sulfa drugs, acyclovir, calcineurin inhibitors, vancomycin.

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81
Q

Which type of casts are associated with acute tubular necrosis?

A

Brown muddy casts

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82
Q

Eosinophilia and drug-induced allergy is associated with what type of AKI?

A

Acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis

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83
Q

Which drugs cause AIN?

A

Beta-lactam antibiotics, penicillin, NSAIDs, PPIs, allopurinol and 5-ASA.

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84
Q

Which infections are associated with AIN?

A

Legionella, Leptospira, cytomegalovirus, Streptococcus, and mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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85
Q

Which systemic diseases are associated with AIN?

A

Sarcoidosis, Sjögren’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus

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86
Q

What are the common post-renal causes associated with AKI?

A

Obstruction to urinary flow – stones, tumours, (primary & secondary), prostatic hypertrophy, and retroperitoneal fibrosis.

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87
Q

What are the three primary causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Minimal change disease
  • Membranous glomerular disease
  • Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
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88
Q

What are the three major features of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  1. Proteinuria (>3g/24h / protein: creatinine ratio >300 mg/mmol) – frothy urine.
  2. Hypoalbuminaemia (<30 g/L)
  3. Oedema – Classically = periorbital
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89
Q

What are the secondary causes of nephrotic syndrome (3)?

A

Diabetes

Amyloidosis

SLE

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90
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease

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91
Q

What are the electron microscopy findings in minimal change disease?

A

Loss of podocyte foot processes

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92
Q

What is the first line management for minimal change disease?

A

Corticosteroids

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93
Q

Which autoantibody is implicated with membranous disease?

A

Anti-phospholipase A2 type 2 receptor (Anti-PLA2R)

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94
Q

What are light microscopy findings in membranous glomerular disease?

A

Diffuse glomerular basement membrane thickening

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95
Q

Spike and Dome appearance is associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Membranous Glomerular Disease

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96
Q

Phosplipae A2 antibodies are associated with which type of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Membranous glomerular disease

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97
Q

Which type of nephrotic syndrome is most common in Afro-Carribbean people?

A

Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis

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98
Q

Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

Light microscopy findings

A

Focal and segmental glomerular consolidation and scarring,
Hyalinosis

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99
Q

What histological nodules are associated with diabetic nephropathy?

A

Kimmelstiel Wilson nodules

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100
Q

Which stain is used in the histological evaluation of amyloidosis?

A

Congo Red Stain

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101
Q

What is the positive finding following Congo Red staining in amyloidosis?

A

Apple green birefringence

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102
Q

Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion are associated with which stage of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Stage 3

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103
Q

What is stage I of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Thickened basement membrane

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104
Q

What is stage II of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Increase in mesangial matrix, without nodules

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105
Q

What is stage 3 of diabetic nephropathy?

A

nodular lesions/Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion (KW) – round areas of sclerosis

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106
Q

Advanced glomerulosclerosis is associated with which stage of diabetes nephropathy?

A

Stage 4

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107
Q

What is azotaemia?

A

Raised urea and creatinine

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108
Q

What are the manifestations of nephritic syndrome?

A

Manifestation of glomerular inflammation e.g. glomerulonephritis – syndrome characterised by PHAROH:
* Proteinuria
* Haematuria (coke-coloured urine)
* Azotaemia – raised urea and creatinine.
* Red cell casts – In urine – red cell accumulation and leaks into the tubules.
* Oliguria
* Hypertension

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109
Q

Which nephritic syndrome cause is associated with impetigo or a sore throat?

A

Acute postinfectious (post-streptococcal) glomerulonephritis

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110
Q

Which organism is implicated in post-infectious glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Lancefield Group A alpha-haemolytic Strep e.g., strep pyogenes
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111
Q

What are the serum investigations for post-streptococcal glomerulnephritis?

A

Bloods - ASO tire - raised
Complement C3 - Low

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112
Q

What are the electron microscopy findings of post-strep glomerulonephritis?

A

Subendothelial humps

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113
Q

What is the complication of nephritic syndrome?

A

End-stage renal failure

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114
Q

When does post-strep glomerulonephritis occur post-strep A infection?

A

1-3 weeks

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115
Q

Which cell type is implicated in the formation of crescents in rapidly progressive crescenteric glomerulonephritis?

A

Proliferation of macrophages and parietal cells in the Bowman’s capsule

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116
Q

What is type 1 RPCG?

A

Anti-BM antibody (Goodpasture’s diseae)

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117
Q

Which auto-antibody is implicated in Goodpasture’s disease?

A

Anti-GBM

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118
Q

Anti-GBM antibodies are targeted against what?

A

C-terminal domain of Type IV collagen

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119
Q

What are the extra-renal manifestations of goodpature’s diseae?

A

Pulmonary haemorrhage

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120
Q

What are the characteristics findings on light microscopy for Goodpasture’s disease?

A

Crescents

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121
Q

What are type 2 causes of Rapidly Progressive Crescentic GN?

A

Immune complex mediated e.g., SLE, IgA nephropathy, post-infectious GN, HSP, Alport’s syndrome

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122
Q

What are the fluorescent microscopy findings for anti-GBM disease?

A

Linear deposition of IgG in GBM

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123
Q

A granular IgG immune complex deposition on GBM is associated with which type of nephritic syndrome?

A

Immune complex mediated

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124
Q

What is type 3 Rapidly Progressive Crescentic glomerulonephritis?

A

Pauci-immune

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125
Q

c-ANCA is associated with what renal disease?

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

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126
Q

p-ANCA is associated with which renal disease?

A

Microscopic polyangiitis

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127
Q

What is IgA nephropathy is associated with (aetiology)?

A

Upper respiratory tract infections or GI illness

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128
Q

What are the characteristic clinical manifestations of IgA nephropathy?

A
  • Macroscopic haematuria - often associated with upper respiratory tract infections or gastrointestinal illness. Haematuria is characteristically recurrent in healthy patients.
  • Loin pain
  • Proteinuria
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129
Q

What are the renal biopsy findings associated with IgA Nephropathy ?

A

Mesangial hypercellularity, mesangial matrix expansion

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130
Q

What are the rule of thirds for IgA Nephropathy ?

A

1/3rd asymptomatic

1/3rd develop CKD

1/3rd develop progressive CKD requiring dialysis

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131
Q

Which classification is used to evaluate IgA Nephropathy ?

A

Oxford Classification system (MEST-C)

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132
Q

Which monoclonal antibody attenuates the progression of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis into End-stage renal disease?

A

Rituximab

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133
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Alport syndrome?

A

X-linked dominant

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134
Q

What is the characteristic extra-renal manifestation of Alport Syndrome?

A

Sensorineural deafness + eye disorders (lens dislocation, cataracts).

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135
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Alport syndrome?

A
  • Clinical manifestation: Nephritic Syndrome + Sensorineural deafness + eye disorders (lens dislocation, cataracts).
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136
Q

Biopsy finding for Alport syndrome?

A

Lamellation of the basement membrane.

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137
Q

What is pathogenesis of benign family haematuria?

A

Diffuse thinning of the GBM (<250 nm thickness) secondary to a mutation in type IV collage alpha

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138
Q

What is the thickness threshold for benign family haematuria?

A

<250 nm

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139
Q

What are the three common causes of asymptomatic haemturia?

A

Alport syndrome
Thin basement membrane disease (benign family haematuria)
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

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140
Q

What is the cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Shiga-toxin producing E coli 0157:O7

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141
Q

What is the triad of symptoms associated with HUS?

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
  3. AKI
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142
Q

Why does thrombotic microangiopathy arise in haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Due to non-immune erythrocyte mechanical shearing and peripheral blood fragmentation secondary platelet microthrombi

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143
Q

What prodromal illness is associated with HUS?

A

~5-10-day prodromal illness marked by abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhoea (haemorrhagic).

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144
Q

How are STEC infections transmitted?

A

Following the consumption of contaminated food products e.g., undercooked beef, unpasteurised milk and petting zoos.

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145
Q

Which deficiency should be screened for in haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

ADAMTS13

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146
Q

What are the markers of haemolysis?

A

Elevated bilirubin

Raised reticulocyte count

Raised LDH

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147
Q

What are the FBC findings for HUS?

A

Thrombocytopenia (<30)

Anaemia (<8g/dL)

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148
Q

What characteristic RBC cell types are observed on a peripheral blood smear in HUS?

A

schistocytes and helmet cells

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149
Q

Which agar is used for the confirmatory test for detect shiga-toxin producing E coli?

A

sorbitol-MacConkey Agar

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150
Q

What are the non-diarrhoea associated causes for thrombotic microangiopathy?

A
  • Defects in the regulation of complement
  • ADAMTS13 deficiency
  • Drugs (Calcineurin inhibitors)
  • Radiation
  • Hypertension
  • Scleroderma
  • Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (SLE)
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151
Q

What are the pentad of symptoms associated with TTP?

A

MAHA

Thrombocytopenia

Renal failure

Fever

Neurological symptoms e..g, confusion, seizures

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152
Q

Which genetic deficiency is associated with TTP?

A

ADAMTS13 deficiency

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153
Q

What is ADAMTS13 deficiency?

A

Cleaves vWF, deficiency results in the formation of giant vWF multimers - platelet aggregation and fibrin deposition.

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154
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with lupus nephritis?

A

Type 3 hypersensitivity - marked by the formation of immune-complexes

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155
Q

Which auto-antibody is implicated in the pathogenesis of lupus nephritis?

A

Anti-dsDNA

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156
Q

Which gender is predominantly affected by lupus nephritis?

A

Female predominance (9:1)

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157
Q

What is stage 1 of Lupus Nephritis?

A

Minimal mesangial disease

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158
Q

What stage II of Lupus Nephritis?

A

Proliferative mesangial

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159
Q

What is stage III of Lupus Nephritis?

A

Focal

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160
Q

Diffuse changes is associated with which stage of Lupus Nephritis?

A

Stage 4

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161
Q

Which changes on histology are observed in stage 5 lupus nephritis?

A

Membranous (Subepithelial immune deposits) - Wire loop capillaries on histology

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162
Q

Stage 6 histology changes for lupus nephritis?

A

Advanced sclerosis

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163
Q

eGFR parameter for stage 1 CKD?

A

> 90 mL/min

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164
Q

eGFR parameter for stage 2 CKD?

A

90-60

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165
Q

eGFR parameter for stage 3a CKD?

A

60-45

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166
Q

eGFR parameter for stage 3b CKD?

A

45-30

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167
Q

eGFR parameter for stage 4 CKD?

A

30-15

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168
Q

eGFR parameter for stage 5 CKD?

A

<15 (end-stage)

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169
Q

What is the most common cause of CKD?

A

Diabetes

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170
Q

What is the management for CKD?

A

Renal replacement therapy
- haemodialysis
-Peritoneal dialysis
-Renal transplant

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171
Q

What are the light microscopy changes observed in hypertensive nephropathy?

A

Global glomerular collapse and filling of Bowman’s capsule with collagenous material.

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172
Q

What are the multisystem manifestations of adult polycystic kidney disease?

A
  • Multisystem and progressive disease with cyst formation, kidney enlargement and extrarenal organ involvement (e.g., liver, pancreas spleen, and arachnoid membranes).
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173
Q

Which gene is implicated in APKD?

A

PKD1

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174
Q

What does the PKD1 gene encode?

A

Polycystin-1

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175
Q

Why is there haematuria in PKD?

A

Cyst haemorrhage – cyst communicates with the collecting system

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176
Q

Presentation of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Microalbuminuria, proteinuria and haematuria
  • Abdominal mass
  • Infected cysts
  • Stones (Renal in 20% - uric and calcium oxalate).
  • Haematuria – Cyst haemorrhage – cyst communicates with the collecting system.
  • Aneurysms (Berry)
  • Polyuria and nocturia
  • Extra-renal cysts e.g., liver, ovaries, pancreas, seminal vesicles.
  • Prevalence of hepatic cysts increases with age.
  • Systolic murmur – due to mitral valve prolapse.
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177
Q

Why is there a systolic murmur associated with Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease?

A

Due to mitral valve prolapse

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178
Q

Which classification system is used for Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease?

A

Mayo Classification system

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179
Q

What is the most common extra-renal manifestation of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease?

A

Hepatic cysts

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180
Q

What is the most common cause of urinary calculi?

A

inadequate hydration and subsequent low urine volume

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181
Q

What is the most common type of urinary calculi?

A
  • Calcium oxalate
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182
Q

What are the common causes implicated in the development of Calcium oxalate stones?

A
  • Hyperparathyroidism, renal calcium leak, hyperoxaluria, hypomagnesemia, and ethylene glycol poisoning.
  • Associated with increased gastrointestinal calcium reabsorption.
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183
Q

What are the common causes of uric acid stones?

A
  • (pH <5, high intake of purine foods (e.g., fish, legumes, meat); associated with gout and cancer - rapid cell turnover – TLS.
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184
Q

What are struvite stones composed of?

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones

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185
Q

Which organism is implicated in the aetiology of struvite stones?

A

Gram-negative urease positive - proteus sp.

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186
Q

Staghorn calculi are associated with what type of stone?

A

Struvite stones (Magnesium Ammonium phosphate

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187
Q

What are the most common site for urinary calculi?

A

pelvic-ureteric junction, pelvic brim, Vesico-ureteric junction.

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188
Q

At which pH does calcium oxalate stones tend to form in?

A

<7.2

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189
Q

Which types of stones form in alkaline urine?

A

Calcium phosphate - associated with hyperparathyroidism and renal tubular acidosis

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190
Q

Which dermatome pattern is implicated in renal colic flank pain?

A

T10 to S4

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191
Q

What is the common microscopic finding associated with renal stones?

A

Microscopic haematuria

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192
Q

What is the investigation of choice for confirming renal stones?

A

CT Kub

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193
Q

What is the diameter threshold for a papillary adenoma?

A

<15 mm

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194
Q

Which syndrome are renal oncocytomas observed in?

A

Birt–Hogg–Dube Syndrome.

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195
Q

Describe the histology of Renal oncocytoma?

A

A benign epithelial renal tumour composed of oncocytic cells

Well-circumscribed - circular, associated with a central scar.

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196
Q

Benign mesenchymal renal tumour composed of thick-walled blood vessels, smooth muscle and fat describes which type of renal tumour?

A

Angiomyolipoma

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197
Q

Tuberous sclerosis is associated with type of benign renal neoplasms?

A

Angiomyolipoma

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198
Q

What are the macroscopic findings associated with oncocytoma?

A

Mahogany brown

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199
Q

What are the microscopic findings observed in oncocytoma?

A

Sheets of oncolytic cells, pink cytoplasm, form nests of cells

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200
Q

What is the commonest form of malignant epithelial renal tumour?

A

Clear cell renal carcinoma

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201
Q

What are the two types of a malignant epithelial renal tumour?

A
  1. Clear Cell Renal Carcinoma
  2. Papillary renal carcinoma
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202
Q

What is the macroscopic appearance of a clear cell carcinoma?

A

Golden-yellow tumour with haemorrhagic areas

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203
Q

Which chromosome is implicated in the development of a clear cell renal carcinoma?

A

Chromosome 3p

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204
Q

What is the diameter threshold for a papillary renal cell carcinoma?

A

> 15 mm in size

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205
Q

What are the genetic aetiologies implicated in papillary renal cell carcinoma?

A

Trisomy 7,17 and loss of Y.

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206
Q

A ‘fragile, friable brown tumour’ is associated with what type of renal tumour?

A

Papillary Renal Cell Carcinoma

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207
Q

What are the microscopic histology findings observed in Papillary Renal Cell Carcinoma ?

A

Papillary growth-pattern

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208
Q

Papillary Renal Cell Carcinoma is associated with what?

A

long-term dialysis

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209
Q

What are the two types of papillary renal cell carcinoma?

A

Type I: Single layer of flatter cells

Type II: More oncolytic cells (worse prognosis)

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210
Q

A well-circumscribed solid brown tumour is associated with what type of malignant renal neoplasm?

A

Chromophobe Renal Cell Carcinoma

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211
Q

What risk of progression index is implicated for clear-cell renal carcinoma?

A

Leibovich Risk model

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212
Q

What is the most common renal malignancy in tumour?

A

NEPHROBLASTOMA/WILM’S TUMOUR

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213
Q

What are the microscopic histological findings observed in nephroblastoma?

A

Small round blue cells

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214
Q

Which gene is implicated in Nephroblastoma?

A

WT1 gene

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215
Q

What is WAGR syndrome?

A

Wilm’s Tumour
Aniridia
Genitourinary anomalies
Mental retardation

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216
Q

What is the histopathology of a Wilm’s tumour?

A

Well-circumscribed and have a pseudo-capsule.
* Malignant Triphasic Pattern:

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217
Q

What pattern is observed on histology in nephroblastoma?

A

Malignant triphasic pattern

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218
Q

What is the malignant triphasic pattern observed in a Wilm’s tumour?

A
  • Blastema – Undifferentiated – small, round blue cells with active mitotic activity and overlapping nuclei.
  • Epithelial – Rosette-like structures
  • Stromal tissues – Mesenchymal cells or loose cellular myxoid areas.
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219
Q

What is the most common type of bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

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220
Q

What are the risk factors associated with urothelial carcinoma?

A

Smoking

Aromatic amines

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221
Q

What is the common presentation of bladder cancer?

A

Frank haematuria

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222
Q

What are the types of bladder cancer?

A

Non-invasive papillary urothelial carcinoma

Infiltrating urothelial carcinoma

Flat urothelial carcinoma in situ

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223
Q

Frond-like growths are associated with which type of bladder cancer?

A

Non-invasive papillary urothelial carcinoma

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224
Q

Which genes are implicated in unstable non-invasive papillary urothelial carcinoma?

A

RB and TP53 mutations

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225
Q

What are the subtypes of infiltrating urothelial carcinoma?

A

Micropapillary urothelial carcinoma

Plasmacytoid

Nested

Microcystic

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226
Q

How does a flat urothelial carcinoma appear?

A

Reddish area

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227
Q

Which bladder carcinoma is associated with a high risk of progression?

A

Flat urothelial Carcinoma

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228
Q

A reddish area (bladder cancer) is associated with what type?

A

Flat urothelial Carcinoma in Situ

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229
Q

Endemic urinary schistosomiasis causes what type of bladder cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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230
Q

What promotes BPH?

A

DHT

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231
Q

How is testosterone converted to DHT?

A

5-alpha-reductase 2

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232
Q

What are the risk factors associated with BPH?

A

Alcohol, caffeine, and high-dose supplemental Vitamin C.

Diabetes, insulin

Obesity - high levels of oestrogen

Metabolic syndrome

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233
Q

What are the protective factors for BPH?

A

beta-carotene, carotenoids, and Vitamin A.

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234
Q

What is the clinical presentation of BPH?

A
  • Frequency, nocturia
  • Urgency
  • Hesitancy
  • Poor flow
  • Terminal dribbling
  • May present with urinary retention, renal failure and UTI.
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235
Q

What is the histopathology findings for BPH?

A
  • Hyperplastic process with increased cell numbers including both glandular and stromal cellular proliferation in the transition zone.
  • Occurs in the periurethral zones – hyperplastic stromal nodules.
  • Transition zone – Glandular nodular proliferation.
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236
Q

Which zone is affected in BPH?

A

Transition zone

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237
Q

What are the two classes of drugs for the management of BPH?

A

Alpha-blockers

5-alpha reductase inhibitors

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238
Q

Name 2 alpha-blockers implicated in the management of BPH?

A

alfuzosin

tamsulosin

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239
Q

What class of drug is Finasteride?

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitors

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240
Q

Mechanism of action of 5-alpha reductase inhibitor?

A

Inhibit intraprostatic conversion of testosterone to DHT

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241
Q

What is the most common cause of malignancy in men?

A

Prostatic adenocarcinoma

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242
Q

What is the premalignant condition for prostatic adenocarcinoma?

A

prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia

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243
Q

What is the prognostic indicator for prostatic adenocarcinoma?

A

Gleason Score

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244
Q

What marker (threshold) is indicative for prostate cancer?

A

PSA (>4 ng/mL)

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245
Q

What Gleason score is associated with high-volume tumour?

A

8-10

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246
Q

What are the risk factors for testicular germ cell?

A
  • Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) – 2-4-fold increase (Associated with right-sided),
  • LBW/SGA
  • Infections – HPV, EBV, CMV.
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247
Q

What is the common presentation for testicular cancer?

A

Painless lump

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248
Q

What is the most common histological subtype for testicular germ cell cancer?

A

Seminoma

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249
Q

What is the histological appearance of a seminoma?

A

Transformed germ cells, and lymphocytes infiltrate with clear polygonal cells.

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250
Q

What are the biologic cell markers associated with post-pubertal testicular cancer?

A

AFP, HCG, LDH

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251
Q

What are the 6 histological subtypes associated with testicular germ cell cancer?

A

Seminoma

Embryonal carcinoma

Post-pubertal

Yolk sac tumour

Choriocarcinoma

Teratoma

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252
Q

Which serum markers are raised in testicular germ cells cancers?

A

AFP, hCH, LDH

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253
Q

Trans-scrotal ultrasound scan findings for testicular germ cell cancer?

A

Hypoechoic, solid, vascularised tumour

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254
Q

What is the therapeutic intervention for testicular cancer?

A

Radical inguinal orchiectomy.

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255
Q

What is the risk associated with a trans-scrotal biopsy?

A
  • Risk of local dissemination
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256
Q

Which type of chemotherapy agents is testicular cancer sensitive to?

A

Platinum-based chemotherapy agents

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257
Q

What are the three types of non-germ cell testicular cancers?

A

Lymphoma

Leydig cell tumour

Sertoli cell t umour

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258
Q

What drug therapy is used for the management of testicular cancer (name 3)?

A

Bleomycin

Etoposide

Cistplatin

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259
Q

What is the most common causative organism for epididymitis?

A

C. Trachomatis, N. Gonorrhoea

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260
Q

What is the common causative organism for Epididymitis in >39 years of age?

A

E coli

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261
Q

Which HPV strain causes condylomas?

A

6 and 11

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262
Q

Which penile disease can predispose to penile carcinoma?

A

chronic lichen sclerosus

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263
Q

Persistent erythematous plaque on the glans penis is associated with which penile disease?

A

Zoon’s Balanitis

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264
Q

What are the histological features observed in chronic bronchitis?

A

Goblet cell hyperplasia

Hypertrophy of mucous glands

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265
Q

What are the causes of upper lobe fibrosis?

A

C - Cystic fibrosis, coal worker’s pneumococcus
H - Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation therapy
T - Tuberculosis
S - Sarcoidosis, silicosis

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266
Q

What is the pathophysiology of cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis?

A

Respiratory alveolar epithelial injury  Activation of fibroblasts  Dysregulated repair of the alveolar epithelium.
Histology:
* Interstitial inflammation
* Honeycomb change beginning at the periphery of the lobule, usually sub-pleural.
- Hyperplasia of type II pneumocytes causing cyst formation, and honeycomb fibrosis.
* Presence of foci of fibroblasts
* Patchy involvement of the lung by fibrosis.

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267
Q

Hyperplasia of which type of pneumocytes is associated with cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis?

A

Type II

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268
Q

What are the risk factors for IPF?

A

Tobacco exposure, metal, wood dust, and GORD.

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269
Q

What types of crackles are observed in IPF?

A

Velcro crackles

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270
Q

What class of drug is pirfenidone ?

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitors

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271
Q

What is the main cause of Pneumoconiosis?

A

An accumulation of fine inhaled particles e.g., silica, asbestos fibres, beryllium, talc and coal dust  Inflammatory reaction within the lung.

  • has an upper lobe predilection
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272
Q

Pneumoconiosis typically affects which part of the lung zones?

A

Upper lobe

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273
Q

What is the term for dust-laden macrophages?

A

Anthrocytes

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274
Q

What is the histology of Pneumoconiosis ?

A
  • Dust-laden macrophages (anthrocytes) with reticulin fibrosis.
  • Halo of focal emphysema surrounding the macules.
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275
Q

What lung cancer is associated with Pneumoconiosis?

A

Mesothelioma
Adenocarcinoma

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276
Q

What is the histology of granulomatous lung disease?

A

Mature macrophages, histiocytes and multi-nucleate giant cells.

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277
Q

What are the infectious causes of granulomatous lung disease?

A

TB, schistosomiasis, aspergillus, cryptococcus, coccidioides, mucor, pneumocystis, parasites.

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278
Q

What histological finding is observed in extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

Polypoid plugs

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279
Q

What types of bodies are associated with cryptogenic organising pneumonia?

A

Masson bodies

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280
Q

What is the cause of Farmer’s lung?

A

Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula.

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281
Q

What is the cause of humidifier’s lung?

A

thermactinomyces spp

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282
Q

What is the cause of Malt-Worker’s lung?

A

Aspergillus

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283
Q

What stage of lobar pneumonia does Red hepatisation occur?

A

Stage 2

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284
Q

What is Red hepatisation?

A

Infiltration of RBCs, neutrophils, and fibrin into the alveolar fluid (appear red and firm (similar to the liver)

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285
Q

What follows Red hepatisation in lobar pnuemonia?

A

Gray hepatisation

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286
Q

What is Gray hepatisation?

A

RBC. Break down and is associated with fibrosis (red to gray colour transformation).

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287
Q

Which organisms are implicated in lobar pnuemonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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288
Q

What are the common atypical causes of pneumonia?

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Chlamydophila pneumoniae
  • Legionella pnuemophila
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289
Q

Which ethnicity is a demographic risk factor for sarcoidosis?

A

Afro-Caribbean ethnicity

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290
Q

What are the dermatologic manifestations associated with sarcoidosis?

A

Erythema nodosum
Lupus pernio

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291
Q

What are the common sites of erythema nodosum?

A

Bilateral subcutaneous nodules of the shins

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292
Q

Define lupus pernio

A

Indurated violaceous lesions on the nose, lips, ears, and cheeks. It is a predictive indicator of a poor prognosis.

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293
Q

Which dermatologic manifestation is a poor prognostic indicator for sarcoidosis?

A

Lupus pernio

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294
Q

Which pulmonary radiology finding is seen in sarcoidosis?

A

Hilar lymphadenopathy

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295
Q

What are the cardiac conduction abnormalities associated with sarcoidosis?

A

Complete heart block, first degree AV block (prolonged PR interval >200 ms)

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296
Q

Define lofgren syndrome (triad)?

A

Arthritis

Erythema nodosum

Bilateral adenopathy

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297
Q

Which serum marker is raised in sarcoidosis?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme

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298
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is observed in sarcoidosis?

A

Hypercalcaemia

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299
Q

Why does hypercalcaemia occur in sarcoidosis?

A

Activated macrophages synthesis ectopic 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin-D3

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300
Q

Which enzyme is secreted by macrophages in sarcoidosis resulting in hypercalcaemia?

A

1-alpha-hydroxylase

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301
Q

Which scoring system is used to assess and stage sarcoidosis?

A

Muers scoring system

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302
Q

What is the management for sarcoidosis?

A

Low-dose oral glucocorticoid therapy (moderate 20 mg OD prednisolone)

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303
Q

What autosomal dominant condition is associated with emphysema?

A

Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency

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304
Q

What is the most common type of emphysema?

A

Centrilobular - associated with smoking

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305
Q

Centrilobular emphysema is associated with what risk factor?

A

Smoking

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306
Q

Panacinar loss in emphysema is associated with which cause?

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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307
Q

Which 2 enzymes is inhibited in Alpa-1 AT deficiency?

A

Neutrophil elastase and trypsinize

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308
Q

Which interleukin factor is released by activated macrophages in emphysema?

A

IL-8

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309
Q

Which protein is deteriorated in emphysema?

A

Elastin

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310
Q

What are the two patterns of alveolar parenchyma loss in emphysema?

A

Centrilobular - loss centred on bronchiole

Panacinar - Diffuse loss of alevolae

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311
Q

Which lung cancer is associated with smokers?

A

Squamous cell cancer
Small cell lung cancer

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312
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with squamous cell lung carcinoma?

A

PTHrP - hypercalcaemia of malignancy

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313
Q

Squamous cell lung carcinoma (central or peripheral)?

A

Central pattern

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314
Q

Which type of lung cancer is associated with non-smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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315
Q

What are the five types of lung cancer?

A

Small cell lung cancer
Squamous cel cancer
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Mesothelioma

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316
Q

Which type of lung cancer is associated with a poor prognosis?

A

Large cell

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317
Q

What is the major risk factor for small cell lung cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking

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318
Q

Which two genetic associations are implicated in small-cell lung cancer?

A

TP53 and RB1

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319
Q

Which histological cell type is observed in small cell lung cancer?

A

Oat cell carcinoma

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320
Q

Which epithelial cell marker is associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

Cytokeratin - differentiates from lymphoma

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321
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with which type of lung cancer?

A

Small cell lung cancer

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322
Q

Which neoplastic syndromes are associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

SIADH

Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome

Lambert–Eaton syndrome

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323
Q

Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in small cell lung cancer is associated with the production of what?

A

Ectopic ACTH

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324
Q

Presentation of Lambert–Eaton Myasthenic syndrome?

A

Weakness of proximal arms and legs

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325
Q

Which hormone is implicated in carcinoid syndrome?

A

Serotonin

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326
Q

What are the histology findings observed in squamous cell lung carcinoma?

A

Keratinisation

Intracellular bridges (desmosomes)

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327
Q

Which mutation is associated with squamous cell lung carcinoma?

A

Myc overexpression

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328
Q

What two features are associated with adenocarcinoma?

A

Glandular differentiation
Mucin production

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329
Q

What is the precursor lesion for adenocarcinoma?

A

Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia

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330
Q

Which mutation is implicated in the pathogenesis of adenocarcinoma?

A

Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)

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331
Q

Which type of treatment does EGFR respond to?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

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332
Q

What extra-thoracic manifestations are associated with adenocarcinoma?

A

Superior vena cava obstruction

Phrenic nerve palsy

Horner syndrome

Pericardial effusion

Compression of the brachial plexus

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333
Q

What is the histology of large cell lung carcinoma?

A

Large cell, large nuclei, prominent nucleoli

(Undifferentiated neoplasm)

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334
Q

KRAS is associated with which types of lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

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335
Q

EGFR mutation is associated with which type of lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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336
Q

Which pulmonary malignancy is associated with affecting the parietal/visceral pleura?

A

Mesothelioma

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337
Q

What is MAP threshold for pulmonary hypertension?

A

> 25 mmHg at rest

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338
Q

Class 1 pulmonary hypertension is associated with what cause?

A

idiopathic, hereditary, drugs/toxins, associated with congenital heart disease

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339
Q

Left heart disease is associated with which class of pulmonary hypertension?

A

Class II

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340
Q

What is the main cause of class III pulmonary hypertension?

A

Lung disease (ILD)

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341
Q

What cell type lines the oesophagus?

A

Squamous stratified epithelium (absent goblet cells)

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342
Q

What cell type is present in acute oesophagitis?

A

Neutrophils

Neutrophilia

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343
Q

Which classification of severity is used to evaluate reflux oesopahgitis?

A

Los Angeles Classification of severity

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344
Q

Which layers are affected in an ulcer?

A

Past muscularis mucosa (into the submucosa)

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345
Q

Which layers are affected in an erosion?

A

Before muscularis mucosa

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346
Q

Which histological change is observed in Barett’s oesophagus?

A

Metaplasia of squamous mucosa to columnar epithelium

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347
Q

Which malignant change can arise in Barret’s oesophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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348
Q

The presence of which cell type is associated with intestinal metaplasia?

A

Goblet cells

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349
Q

Which type of metaplasia confers an increases malignancy risk?

A

Intestinal metaplasia (With goblet cells)

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350
Q

Which type is the most common oesophageal cancer?

A

Oesophageal Adenocarcinoma

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351
Q

What are the risk factors for a squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma

A

Achalasia of cardia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, nutritional deficiencies, nitrosamines, HPV

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352
Q

Cause of oesophageal varices?

A

Portal hypertension

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353
Q

Parietal cells secrete what two factors?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

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354
Q

Pepsinogen is produced by which type of gastric cell?

A

Chief cells

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355
Q

What are the most common causes of acute gastritis?

A

Aspirin
NSAIDs
Corrosives
Acute H.pylori
Severe stress (burns)

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356
Q

Which immune cell type predominates in acute gastritis?

A

Neutrophils

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357
Q

Which immune cell type predominates chronic gastritis?

A

Lymphocytes and plasma cells

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358
Q

H pylori affects which part of the stomach (predominantly)?

A

Antrum

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359
Q

Autoimmune (atrophic) gastritis is associated with which autoantibody?

A

Anti-parietal antibodies

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360
Q

H pylori is associated with which type of lymphoma?

A

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma

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361
Q

Which type of ulcer is relieved by food?

A

Duodenal ulcer

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362
Q

Which type of ulcer is worse with food?

A

Gastric ulcer

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363
Q

Incidence of gastric cancer is higher in which demographic?

A

Japanese

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364
Q

Commonest subtype of gastric cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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365
Q

Diffuse gastric cancer is associated with what type of carcinoma?

A

Poorly differentiated signet ring cell carcinoma

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366
Q

What are the two types of gastric cancer?

A

Intestinal

Diffuse

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367
Q

Which type of gastric cancer is poorly differentiated?

A

Diffuse

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368
Q

Gastric intestinal metaplasia is associated with which cell type?

A

Goblet cells

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369
Q

Which enzyme is secreted by h pylori?

A

Urease

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370
Q

What two toxins are produced by H pylori?

A

CagA
VacA

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371
Q

Body-predominant atrophic gastritis is associated with which type of dysplasia?

A

Flat metaplasia-dysplasia

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372
Q

Most common cause of a duodenal ulcer?

A

H. pylori - antral-predominant strain

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373
Q

What are the histological features associated with Coeliac disease?

A

Partial villous atrophy

Crypt hyperplasia

Increased intra-epithelial lymphocytes

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374
Q

What is the infective differential diagnosis for coeliac disease?

A

Tropical sprue

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375
Q

Which antibodies are associated with Coeliac disease?

A

Anti-endomysial Ab (best sen and spec), anti-tissue transglutaminase (IgA), anti-gliadin

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376
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for Coeliac disease?

A

Duodenal/Jejunal biopsy

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377
Q

Pathophysiology of Hirschsprung’s Disease (absence of what type of cell)?

A

Ganglion cell in the myenteric plexus

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378
Q

Hirschsprung’s Disease is associated with which chromosomal disorder?

A

Down’s syndrome

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379
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation to confirm Hirschsprung’s Disease?

A

Full-thickness biopsy

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380
Q

What is the first line management for Hirschsprung’s Disease?

A

Bowel irrigation

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381
Q

What is the definitive management for Hirschsprung’s Disease?

A

Resection of constricted segment

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382
Q

Which area of the colon is susceptible to ischaemic colitis?

A

Splenic flexure

Rectosigmoid

(Watershed areas)

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383
Q

Type of inflammation in Crohn’s disease?

A

Non-caseating transmural inflammation - full-thickness of the bowel wall (mucosa to the serosa)

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384
Q

Smoking worsens which type of IBD?

A

Crohn’s diseae

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385
Q

Crohn’s disease affects which bowel segment predominantly?

A

Terminal ileum

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386
Q

What type of lesions is observed in Crohn’s disease?

A

Skip lesions

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387
Q

What endoscopic feature is observed in Crohn’s disease?

A

Cobblestone appearance

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388
Q

What is the first lesion observed in Crohn’s disease?

A

Aphthous ulcer - deep rose thorn ulcer

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389
Q

Deep rose thorn ulcers forms which type of ulcers in Crohns disease?

A

Serpentine ulcers

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390
Q

Which hypothesis is implicated in Crohn’s disease?

A

Hygiene hypothesis – Less food contamination –> Less enteric infection –>Inadequate development of processes that regulate mucosal immune response –> Exaggerated immune response to pathogens.

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391
Q

What extra-intestinal manifestation (ocular) is associated with Crohn’s disease?

A

Anterior uveitis

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392
Q

What extra-intestinal manifestation (skin) is associated with Crohn’s disease?

A

Erythema nodosum

Pyoderma gangrenosum

Erythema multiform

Digital clubbing

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393
Q

Complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

Strictures

Fistulae

Abscess formation

Perforation

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394
Q

Which is the management of mild flares of Crohn’s disease?

A

Prednisolone

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395
Q

What is the management for severe flares of Crohn’s disease?

A

IV hydrocortisone, metronidazole

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396
Q

What are the additional therapies for Crohn’s disease?

A

Azathioprine, methotrexate, Infliximab

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397
Q

Infliximab target (class)

A

Anti-TNF-Alpha

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398
Q

Ulcerative colitis originates from which part of the colon?

A

Rectum

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399
Q

Relationship between smoking and UC?

A

Improves symptoms

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400
Q

What is the histopathology of ulcerative colitis?

A

Goblet cell depletion, ulcerations, and mucosal crypt arophy

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401
Q

What is a histological marker of active disease in ulcerative colitis?

A

Crypt abscesses

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402
Q

Which hepatic extraintestinal manifestation is associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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403
Q

What severe intestinal complication is associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Toxic megacolon

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404
Q

What is the risk associated with toxic megacolon?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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405
Q

What is the first-line management for mild flares of ulcerative colitis?

A

Prednisolone and mesalazine

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406
Q

What is the remission management for ulcerative colitis?

A

5-ASA, azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine

Consider anti-TNF alpha drugs

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407
Q

What types of antibiotics cause a clostridium difficle infection?

A

Clindamycin, cephalosporins, ciprofloxacin + co-amoxiclav

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408
Q

Colonic complication of C difficile infection?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

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409
Q

What are the two toxins produced by c difficile?

A

Toxin A - Endotoxin

Toxin B - Cytotoxic

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410
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for C difficle infection?

A

Vancomycin

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411
Q

Diverticular side predominantly affects which colon?

A

Left colon/sigmoid colon

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412
Q

What is symptomatic diverticular disease?

A

Diverticulitis - diverticular bleeding

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413
Q

What are the risk factors associated with diverticular disease?

A

Low fibre diet

Obesity

Smokers

Drugs -NSAIDs, opiates, steroids

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414
Q

What are the complications associated with diverticular disease?

A

Fever, peritonism, gross perforation , fistula, obstruction

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415
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome?

A

Neuroendocrine tumour of the midgut - metastasises of the liver

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416
Q

Cell type of carcinoid syndrome?

A

Enterochromaffin cells

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417
Q

enterochromaffin cells in carcinoid syndrome produce what?

A

Serotonin

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418
Q

What are the three main symptoms of carcinoid syndrome?

A

Bronchoconstriction

Flushing

Diarrhoea

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419
Q

What is the presentation of a carcinoid crisis?

A

Life-threatening vasodilation, hypotension, tachycardia, bronchoconstriction, hyperglycaemia.

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420
Q

What is the investigation for carcinoid syndrome?

A

24-hour urine 5-HIAA

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421
Q

What is the pharmacological management for carcinoid syndrome?

A

Octreotride (somatostatin analogue)

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422
Q

Juvenile polyps affect which layer?

A

Lamina propria

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423
Q

Juvenile polyps predominantly affects which site of the colon?

A

Rectosigmoid colon

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424
Q

What is the presentation of juvenile polyps?

A

Lower gastrointestinal bleeding

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425
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for junvenile polyposis syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant

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426
Q

Peutsz Jeghers polyps affect which type of epithelium?

A

Glandular epithelium, contiguous with the muscularis mucosa

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427
Q

Risk associated with Peutz–Jeghers Polyps?

A
  • Increased risk of intussusception and of malignancy
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428
Q

What type of pattern is observed in hyperplastic polyps?

A

Serrated saw-tooth pattern

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429
Q

What type of polyps are observed in IBD?

A

Pseudopolyps

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430
Q

What are the three types of adenomatous polyps?

A

Tubular

Tubulovillous

Villous

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431
Q

What is the rare complication and laboratory finding observed in adenomatous polyps?

A

Hypoproteinaemia Hypokalaemia

432
Q

What type of adenomatous polyp is dark on histology due to an increased nucleocytoplasmic ratio?

A

Tubular

433
Q

What is the risk associated with adenomatous polyps?

A

Adenocarcinoma (5%)

434
Q

Which type of adenomatous polyps confers for a worse prognosis and increased risk of adenocarcinoma?

A

Villous adenoma

435
Q

Which gene is implicated in the pathogenesis of adenomatous polyps?

A

APC gene

436
Q

Which genetic inherited syndromes are associated with colorectal cancer?

A
  1. Familial adenomatous polyposis
  2. Lynch syndrome – DNA mismatch repair/microsatellite instability.
437
Q

Which is the 2nd commonest cause of cancer deaths in the UK?

A

Colorectal cancer

438
Q

Which tumour marker is raised in colorectal cancer?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

439
Q

Which two genes are implicated in Lynch syndrome?

A

MLH1
MSH2

440
Q

Which staging criteria is used for colorectal cancer?

A

Duke’s staging

441
Q

What is the function of the APC protein (FAP)?

A

Promotes apoptosis in colonic epithelial cells - mutation results in uncontrolled cell growth = adenomas.

442
Q

What is the characteristic presentation of familial adenomatous polyposis in young children?

A

Epidermoid cysts on the face, extremities and scalp

443
Q

What is the diagnostic threshold for determining FAP?

A

Visualisation of >100 adenomatous polyps on colonoscopy.

444
Q

What is the lifetime risk of FAP?

A

increased risk of adenocarcinoma (colorectal cancer)

445
Q

Inheritance pattern for FAP?

A

Autosomal dominant

446
Q

What is the prophylactic management for FAP?

A

Colectomy

447
Q

What is the subtype of FAP, marked by osteomas of the mandible and skull, and dental caries?

A

Gardner syndrome

448
Q

What three structures form the portal triad?

A
  • Indices of the hexagon = Portal triad:
    a. Hepatic artery
    b. Bile ducts
    c. Portal vein
449
Q

What term describes the resident macrophages in the liver?

A

Kupffer cell

450
Q

Which cell stores vitamin A in the liver?

A

Stellate cells

451
Q

Where do Stellate cells reside in the liver?

A

Within the Space of Disse

452
Q

Activation of stellate cells form what?

A

Myofibroblasts - constrict sinusoids and increased vascular resistance

453
Q

Which zone is closest to the portal triad?

A

Zone 1

454
Q

Which zone is susceptible to ALP rise post-damage?

A

Zone 1

455
Q

Which zone is closest to the central vein and is associated with metabolic active hepatocytes?

A

Zone 3

456
Q

Which zone is prone to ischaemia and metabolic toxins?

A

Zone 3

457
Q

Which reaction measures split bilirubin?

A

Van der Bergh reaction

458
Q

Direct bilirubin measures what type?

A

Conjugated

459
Q

What histological liver finding is seen in acute hepatitis?

A

Spotty necrosis

460
Q

Spotty necrosis is associated with what?

A

Acute hepatitis

461
Q

Interface hepatitis is characterised by what type of histological finding?

A

Piecemeal necrosis

462
Q

What are the four features of chronic hepatitis?

A

Portal inflammation + fibrosis

Interface hepatitis (necrosis)

Nodules of regenerating hepatocytes

Disturbance of vascular architecture

463
Q

What type of shunting causes a loss of liver detoxification and the development of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Intra-hepatic shunting (fibrous bridge connecting the portal vein with the central vein)

464
Q

Which type of hepatic shunting causes portal hypertension?

A

Extra-hepatic shunting

465
Q

What are the 3 major complications associated with portal hypertension?

A

Oesophageal varices

Caput medusae

Anorectal varices

466
Q

What are the two classifications of cirrhosis?

A

Micronodular (nodules <3mm)

Macronodular (nodules >3 mm)

467
Q

Micronodular cirrhosis is associated with which cause?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

468
Q

Macronodular cirrhosis is associated with which causes (3)?

A

viral hepatitis, Wilson’s disease, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.

469
Q

What are the genetic causes of cirrhosis?

A
  • Haemochromatosis – HFE gene Chr6
  • Wilson’s disease – ATP7B gene CHr 13
  • Alpha-1-antitrypsine deficiency (A1AT)
  • Galactosaemia
  • Glycogen storage disease
470
Q

What are the two biliary causes of cirrhosis?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis & primary sclerosing cholangitis

471
Q

Which scoring criteria is used to indicate the prognosis of cirrhosis?

A

Modified Child’s Pugh Score

472
Q

What are the five criteria used in the Child’s Pugh Score?

A

Albumin

Bilirubin

Clotting prothrombin time

Distension - ascites

Encephalopathy

473
Q

What are the microscopic characteristics associated with hepatic steatosis?

A

Accumulation of fat droplets in hepatocytes - reversible

474
Q

What microscopic histology findings are observed in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Hepatocyte ballooning and necrosis

Mallory Denk bodies associated with megamitochondria and fibrosis

475
Q

What type of bodies (clumped cytoskeleton) are associated with alcoohlic hepatitis on histology?

A

Mallory Denk Bodies

476
Q

B1 Deficiency name?

A

Beri-beri - thiamine

477
Q

Niacin deficiency causes what?

A

Pellagra

478
Q

What are the features of chronic stable alcoholic liver disease (name 4)?

A
  • Palmar erythema
  • Spider naevi (>5)
  • Gynaecomastia (failure of liver to break oestradiol down)
  • Dupuytren’s contracture
479
Q

What are the three principal features associated with portal hypertension?

A
  1. Caput medusae on umbilicus + varices
  2. Splenomegaly
  3. Ascites e.g., scrotal oedema and shifting dullness
480
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with what type of metabolic disorders and syndromes?

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Hyperlipidaemia
Obesity

481
Q

What is the commonest cause of liver disease worldwide?

A

Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis

482
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Haemochromatosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

483
Q

A mutation in which protein is associated with Haemochromatosis?

A

HFE protein

484
Q

Retained iron deposition in parenchymal cells as what, in Haemochromatosis?

A

Hemosiderin

485
Q

HFE gen regulates the production of which iron regulatory protein?

A

Hepicdin

486
Q

What are the main complications associated with Haemochromatosis?

A

Cirrhosis

Diabetes

Arthropathy

Cardiomyopathy

Hypogonadism

Skin pigmentation

487
Q

Cirrhosis increases the incidence of what type of cancer?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

488
Q

What type of gout is associated with Haemochromatosis?

A

Pseudogout due to calcium pyrophosphate crystals

489
Q

Iron overload of macrophages in Haemochromatosis can predispose to infection to which organisms?

A

Listeria, Yersinia enterocolitica and vibrio vulnificus.

490
Q

What is the serum transferrin saturation in haemochromatosis?

A

> 45%

491
Q

What is the ferritin and serum Fe values in haemochromatosis?

A

Raised

492
Q

TIBC low or high in haemochromatosis?

A

Low

493
Q

What staining is used for the histological diagnosis of haemochromatosis?

A

Perls Prussian Blue staining

494
Q

What is the conventional therapy for haemochromatosis?

A

Venesection + deferoxamine

495
Q

What intravenous iron-chelating agent is prescribed in haemochromatosis?

A

Deferoxamine

496
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Wilson’s Disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

497
Q

Which electrolyte accumulation is associated with Wilson’s Disease?

A

Copper

498
Q

A mutation on which chromosome is implicated in Wilson’s Disease?

A

Chromsoome 13

499
Q

Which Wilson’s Disease protein is implicated?

A

ATP7B - Alters the copper-transporting ATP gene in the liver - responsible for excreting excess copper into bile and out of the body.

500
Q

Copper is bound to what plasma protein?

A

Ceruloplasmin

501
Q

Ceruloplasmin levels in Wilson’s Disease?

A

Reduced

502
Q

What is the first decade presentation of Wilson’s Disease?

A

Hepatic dysfunction

503
Q

Copper deposits in which specific regions of the brain in Wilson’s Disease?

A

Subthalamus

Putamen

Cortex

504
Q

Which characteristic ocular finding is observed in Wilson’s Disease?

A

Kayser Fleisher rings

505
Q

What type of metal is copper?

A

A transition metal - resulting in oxidative stress due to hydroxyl group (Fenton chemistry)

506
Q

On light microscopy of the liver, what findings are observed in Wilson’s disease?

A

Mallory bodies + moderate fatty infiltration and glycogen deposition in hepatocytes

507
Q

What stain is used in Wilson’s Disease?

A

Rhodamine stain

508
Q

What term describes the bluish discolouration at the base of the fingernails in Wilson’s disease?

A

Lunulae ceruleae

509
Q

What neuropsychiatric manifestations are associated with Wilson’s disease?

A
  • Asymmetrical tremors, drooling, ataxia, personality changes, mask-like facies, and clumsiness.
  • Parkinsonism
  • Dementia (basal ganglia involvement)

Personality change

510
Q

Which movement disorders are associated with Wilson’s disease?

A
  • Movement disorder chorea
  • Hemiballismus
511
Q

What are the hepatic manifestations of Wilson’s disease?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Jaundice
  • Cirrhosis and stigmata of chronic liver disease.
512
Q

What are the investigations performed for Wilson’s disease?

A

Circulatory ceruloplasmin level – Low (<20 mg/dL)

Urinary copper levels - >100 mcg/dL

Serum copper – low.

513
Q

Which copper investigation finding is raised in Wilson’s disease?

A

Urinary copper levels

514
Q

What is the mainstay management for Wilson’s disease?

A

Copper chelation therapy with penicillamine and trientine (lifelong)

515
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Autosomal dominant

516
Q

Alpha-1 anti-trypsin is protective against which enzyme?

A

Neutrophil Elastase

517
Q

What mutation is implicated in Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

SERPINA1 mutation on the chromosome 14.

518
Q

What stain is used to Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Periodic acid Schiff

519
Q

What pulmonary complication is associated with Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Emphysema

520
Q

What are the hepatic manifestations of Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Chronic liver disease

521
Q

What CXR findings are observed in Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Basilar predominant emphysematous bullae

522
Q

What serum investigation in Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Serum A1AT - low (<11 micromoles/L)

523
Q

What is the management for Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

IV infusion or pooled human alpha-1 antitrypsin

524
Q

Which autoantibody is associated PBC?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

525
Q

What disorder is characterised by T-celled mediated inflammation of the small-medium intralobular bile duct epithelium?

A

Primary Biliary Cholangitis

526
Q

Destruction of which type of bile ducts causes PBC?

A

Bile ductular cells and small interlobular bile ducts

527
Q

What is the presentation of PBC?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Pruritus
  • Fatigue
  • RUQ pain
528
Q

What are the secondary symptoms of PBC?

A
  • Dry skin, hyperpigmentation, xanthelasma, xanthomas, jaundice and fungal infection of the feet
  • Vitamin D malabsorption
  • Steatorrhea
  • Inflammatory arthropathy
529
Q

Which LFT parameter is raised in PBC?

A

ALP

530
Q

What is the management for PBC?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

531
Q

What type of fibrosis pattern is associated with PSC?

A

Onion skin fibrosis due to concentric pattern

532
Q

What is the female to male ratio for PBC?

A

Female predominant 9:1

533
Q

Which autoantibody is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

p-ANCA

534
Q

What diagnostic radiological modality is implicated in PSC diagnosis?

A

Cholangiography

535
Q

What is the characteristic cholangiographic appearance in PSC?

A

Beads on a string appearance

536
Q

What is the complication associated with PSC?

A

Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma

537
Q

Which benign hepatic cancer is associated with OCP?

A

Hepatic adenoma

538
Q

What is the most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Chronic liver disease

539
Q

Which marker is raised in hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

540
Q

What inflammatory breast disease is associated with inflammation and dilatation of the large breast ducts due to obstruction of milk ducts?

A

Duct ectasia

541
Q

What are the risk factors for duct ectasia?

A

Peri/post-menopausal, smoking, Mulitparity.

542
Q

What are the symptoms of duct ectasia?

A

nipple discharge, breast pain, breast mass and nipple retraction.

543
Q

What cytology findings are associated with duct ectasia?

A

Proteinaceous and neutrophils only

544
Q

What is the histology of duct ectasia?

A

Duct distension with proteinaceous material in it + foamy macrophages.

545
Q

Proteinaceous material and foamy macrophages is associated with what type of inflammatory breast disease?

A

Duct ectasia

546
Q

What type of discharge consistency is associated with duct ectasia?

A

Thick yellow-green discharge

547
Q

What is the most common causative organism implicated in acute mastitis?

A

Staphylococci

548
Q

On fine need aspiration, what type of immune cell is abundant in acute masttiis?

A

Neutrophil

549
Q

What response arises in the breast following trauma and adipose tissue damage?

A

Fat necrosis

550
Q

Which benign condition is characterised by painful (tender), red breast associated with fever and is hot to touch?

A

Acute mastitis

551
Q

What is a non-lactational cause of acute mastitis?

A

keratinising squamous metaplasia

552
Q

What are the causes of fat necrosis?

A

Trauma, surgery, radiotherapy, nodular panniculitis

553
Q

On cytology what findings are associated with fat necrosis?

A

Fat cells surrounded by macrophages (empty fat spaces)

Histiocytes and giant cells

554
Q

Which two cell types are associated with fat necrosis?

A

Histiocytes and giant cells

555
Q

What is a common benign breast disease that occurs in pre-menopausal women and has a hormonal infulence?

A

Fibrocystic breast disease

556
Q

What type of benign breast disease exhibits a pattern of presentation associated with the menstrual cycle?

A

Fibrocystic disease

557
Q

What histological findings are associated with benign breast disease?

A

Dilated ducts a+ calcifications

558
Q

What type of benign breast disease is characterised by a mobile breast mouse?

A

Fibroadenoma

559
Q

What is the most common mobile breast lump in women?

A

Fibroadenoma

560
Q

What two tissue types form a fibroadenoma?

A

Arising from the stromal and glandular tissue

561
Q

What type of benign breast disease is characterised as a leaf-like tumour?

A

Phyllodes tumour

562
Q

What is a common benign enlarging mass in women >50 years?

A

Phyllodes tumour

563
Q

What is the histology appearance in a Phyllodes tumour?

A

Overlapping cell layers, cellularity (branching/ leaf-like fronds/ artichoke appearance).

564
Q

What determines the level of malignancy in a Phyllodes tumour?

A

Cellularity

565
Q

Which type of intraductal papilloma is associated with bloody nipple discharge?

A

Central papilloma

566
Q

Which type of intraductal papilloma is associated with a clinically silent presentation?

A

Peripheral papilloma

567
Q

What type of ductules are associated with a central papilloma?

A

Large lactiferous ductules

568
Q

What is the definitive management for an intraductal papilloma?

A

Excision of the duct

569
Q

What is the histology finding associated with an intraductal papilloma?

A

Polypoid mass
Papillary mass within a dilated duct - fibrovascular core

570
Q

Which benign breast disease is associated with a stellate mass?

A

Radial scar

571
Q

What is the histological appearance of a radial scar?

A

Two distinct areas:
- Central stellate area
- Peripheral proliferation of ducts and acini.

572
Q

Which proliferative breast disease is associated with aplastic cells and a 7-12x risk of developing invasive breast carcinoma?

A

In situ lobular neoplasia

573
Q

What are the three types of proliferative breast disease?

A

Usual epithelial hyperplasia

Flat epithelial atypia

In situ lobular neoplasia

574
Q

What is the most common breast carcinoma in women?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

575
Q

What is the lifetime risk of breast carcinoma?

A

1 in 8

576
Q

Which Susceptibility genes are associated with breast carcinoma?

A

BRCA1/2

577
Q

Which class of drug is associated with an increased risk of breast carcinoma?

A

OCP/HRT

578
Q

When does 3-yearly mammography occur begin and ed in women?

A

47-73 year-old

579
Q

What is the non-invasive form of breast carcinoma?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

580
Q

How does a ductal carcinoma in situ appear on mammography?

A

Microcalcification

581
Q

What is the histological appearance of a low-grade ductal carcinoma in situ?

A

Cribriform/punched-out DCIS

582
Q

What molecule is positive in a high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ?

A

E-cadherin

583
Q

What type of cells is observed in histology in ductal carcinoma in situ?

A

pleiomorphic cells

584
Q

Cells lack which adhesive protein in lobular carcinoma in situ?

A
  • Cells lack adhesion protein E-cadherin
585
Q

On histology, how does invasive lobular carcinoma appear?

A

Indian file

586
Q

Indian file on histology is observed in which type of invasive carcinoma?

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma

587
Q

What histology finding is seen in invasive ductal carcinoma?

A

Large, pleomorphic cells (with E-cadherin +ve)

588
Q

Well-formed tubules on histology are associated with which type of invasive breast carcinoma?

A

Invasive tubular carcinoma

589
Q

Which type of invasive breast carcinoma is associated with increased secretion of extracellular mucin?

A

Mucinous carcinoma

590
Q

What type of carcinoma is BRCA gene mutation and positive for basal cytokeratin CK5/6 and CK14?

A

Basal-like Carcinoma

591
Q

Basal-like Carcinoma is positive for what CK immunohistochemistry molecules? (2)

A

CK5/6 and CK14.

592
Q

What type of histological grading is associated with invasive breast carcinoma?

A

Nottingham Modification of Bloom-Richardson System

593
Q

What are the three categories assessed for histological grading for invasive breast carcinoma?

A
  1. Tubule formation (1-3)
  2. Nuclear pleomorphism (1-3)
  3. Mitotic activity (1-3)
594
Q

What are the three types of receptors in invasive breast carcinoma?

A

Oestrogen receptor (ER)
Progesterone receptor (PR)
Her2 receptor

595
Q

Which receptor/mutation is associated with a high grade poor prognosis in invasive breast carcinoma?

A

HER2 positive (ER/PR negative)

596
Q

What mutation receptor profile is associated with low-grade invasive breast carcinoma?

A

ER/PR positive and HER2 negative

597
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor to determine the severity of invasive breast carcinoma?

A

Axillary lymph nodes

598
Q

Which class of drug is used for ER/PR positive breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen

599
Q

Which monoclonal drug is implicated in the management for HER2 positive breast cancer?

A

Herceptin/Trastuzumab

600
Q

What must be monitored when using Trastuzumab?

A

Left ventricular ejection fraction

601
Q

Tamoxifen increases the risk of which cancer?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

602
Q

Difference between TIA and stroke?

A

TIA <24 hours with complete resolution of symptoms

603
Q

How many TIAs result in a stroke after 5 years if left untreated?

A

1/3RD

604
Q

How long do most TIAs last?

A

1-5 minutes

605
Q

What visual disturbance is frequently observed in patients with a TIA?

A

Amaurosis fugax

606
Q

What is the commonest vascular artery for a stroke?

A

Middle cerebral artery

607
Q

What is the management for a stroke?

A

Aspirin +/- dipyridamole

608
Q

What are the common sites affected by a stroke?

A

Carotid bifurcation or the basilar artery

609
Q

What causes focal cerebral ischaemia?

A

Insufficient blood flow to a particular vascular territory

610
Q

What causes global cerebral ischaemia?

A

Systemic circulation failure

611
Q

A stroke in the anterior cerebral artery causes a loss of sensation and weakness in which part of the body?

A

Contralateral leg

612
Q

What are the clinical manifestations associated with a stroke in the middle cerebral artery?

A

Dysphagia

Dyslexia

Weakness and loss of sensation in the contralateral arm

613
Q

Contralateral leg paresis and cognitive deficits e.g. apathy is associated with a stroke in which artery?

A

Anterior cerebral artery

614
Q

A left hemisphere stroke causes what consequence on speech?

A

Aphasia (in left-hemisphere dominant)

615
Q

A PCAa stroke affects which two cranial nerves?

A

CN III and IV

616
Q

A lacunar infract of the posterior limb of the internal capsule causes pure motor hemiparesis where?

A

Contralateral arm, leg and face

617
Q

A lacunar infarct in which part causes hemisensory loss?

A

Ventral thalamic

618
Q

A lacunar infarct in the ventral pons and internal capsule results in what clinical presentation?

A

Ipsilateral ataxia and leg paresis.

619
Q

A lacunar infarct of the ventral pons or internal capsule causes what specific manifestation?

A

Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome

620
Q

What is the most common cause of non-traumatic intra-parenchymal haemorrhage?

A

Hypertension

621
Q

Where is the commonest affected site for a non-traumatic intra-parenchymal haemorrhage?

A

Basal ganglia

622
Q

What type of microaneurysm in the lenticulostriate arteries arises in non-traumatic strokes?

A

Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms

623
Q

What is the commonest cause of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Rupture of berry aneurysm

624
Q

A ruptured berry aneurysm typically affects where?

A

Internal carotid bifurcation

625
Q

what are the associations with a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

APKD, Ehlers’s Danlos syndrome, Aortic coarctation

626
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Sudden-onset thunderclap headache, vomiting, LoC

627
Q

On CT Ix what sign is observed for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Star sign - hyperattenuation around the Circle of Willis

628
Q

What is the definitive management for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Endovascular coiling

629
Q

What is a well-defined malformation lesion comprised of densely packed vessels and occur at low pressure?

A

Cavernous angioma

630
Q

What sign is seen on a T2-weighted MRI in a Cavernous angioma ?

A

target sign – black ring around lesion.

631
Q

Which vessel is most likely to be the cause of an extradural haemorrhage?

A

Middle meningeal artery

632
Q

A lemon-shaped convex bleed is associated with what type of cerebral haemorrhage?

A

Extradural haemorrhage

633
Q

Which veins are affected in a subdural haemroarhage?

A

Cortical bridging veins

634
Q

On CT what finding is seen for a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Crescenteric

635
Q

Fissure fractures are associated with what two presentations?

A
  • Otorrhoea and rhinorrhoea (i.e. loss of CSF through ear or nose) – Strawcoloured fluid.
636
Q

What are the two signs associated with a basal skull fracture?

A

Battle sign
Rancoon eyes

637
Q

What term defines brain collision with the internal surface of the skull causing a rupture of pia mater?

A

Contusions

638
Q

What are the complications of contusions?

A

Post-traumatic epilepsy, endocrine changes, and neuropsychiatric tissues.

639
Q

What is the commonest cause of the coma?

A

Diffuse axonal injury

640
Q

Which midline structures are predominantly affected in diffuse axonal injury?

A

corpus callosum, rostral brainstem and septum pellucidum

641
Q

What are the three types of herniation?

A

Subfalcine

Transtentorial/uncal

Tonsillar

642
Q

What type of herniation is characterised by herniation of the singular cortex beneath the flax (midline fold)?

A

Subfalcine

643
Q

What type of herniation is characterised by medial/temporal lobe herniation under tentorium?

A

Transtentorial/uncal

644
Q

What type of herniation is associated with herniation of the cerebellum resulting in cardiorespiratory arrest?

A

Tonsillar

645
Q

What type of hydrocephalus is characterised as non-obstructive?

A

Communicating

646
Q

What type of hydrocephalus is caused by a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Communicating hydrocephalus - block CSF absorption at the arachnoid granulations

647
Q

What are the causes of communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage (1/3rd)

Meningitis

648
Q

What is the commonest cause of non-communicating (Obstructive) hydrocephalus?

A

Tumours

649
Q

What are the commonest sites of non-communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Foramina Monro

Aqueduct of Sylvius and the fourth ventricle

650
Q

What type of tymouurs are associated with non-communicating hydrocephalus?umo

A

Ependymoma
Astrocytoma
Choroid plexus papilloma

651
Q

What type of neonatal malformation is associated with non-communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Dandy-Walker Formation

Cerebral aqueduct stenosis

652
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

Choroid plexus

653
Q

How is CSF reabsorbed into the venous system?

A

Arachnoid granulations via the superior sagittal sinus

654
Q

CSF drains from the choroid plexus into which ventricle?

A

Third ventricle

655
Q

Which structure connects the third and fourth ventricle?

A

Cerebral aqueduct

656
Q

What is the first line management for hydrocephalus?

A

External ventricular drain

657
Q

What triad of symptoms is associated with idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Hakim’s triad - Gait apraxia, urinary incontinence, and cognitive impairment

658
Q

What age group is affected by idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

> 65 years of age

659
Q

What is the management for idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

VP shunt

660
Q

What are the two common extra-axial brain tumours?

A
  • Meningothelial cells = meningioma.
  • Schwann cells - Schwannoma
661
Q

What is the commonest form of adult brain tumours?

A

Secondary tumours (metastatic)

662
Q

What are the three commonest sources of brain mets?

A

Lung cancer

Breast cancer

Malignant melanoma

663
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for neurofibromatosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

664
Q

What are the risk factors for brain tumours?

A

Previous tumours

Radiotherapy to head/neck

  • Neurofibromatosis 1&2

Tuberous slcerosis

665
Q

What is the commonest hereditary cause of brain tumours?

A
  • Neurofibromatosis 1&2
666
Q

What are the raised ICP symptoms associated with brain tumours?

A

Headache

Vomiting

Change in mental status

667
Q

What are the three supratentorial features assoiacaited with brain tumours?

A

Focal neurological deficit

Seizures

Personality changes

668
Q

What are the infratentorial clinical features associated with brain tumours?

A

Ataxia

Cranial nerve palsies

long tract signs - spasticity and hyperreflexia

669
Q

Which brain tumour is characterised by a fried-egg appearance?

A

Oligodendrocytoma

670
Q

Which is the commonest ventricular tumour associated with the onset of hydrocephalus?

A

Ependymoma

671
Q

What are the three commonest surgical resection approaches for the management of brain tumours?

A

Surgical resection
- Craniotomy - Debulking
- Open biopsies - Inoperable but approachable tumours
- Stereotactic biopsy - Open biopsy not indicated.

672
Q

What chemotherapy agent is indicated in the management of high-grade gliomas?

A

Temozolomide

673
Q

What is the commonest class of primary CNS tumours?

A

Glial tumours

674
Q

What are the commonest glial tumours?

A

Astrocytomas

Oligodenddrocytomas

Ependymomam

675
Q

What is the commonest primary brain tumour in children?

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

676
Q

What histology findings are associated with pilocytic astrocytoma (2)

A

Rosenthal fibres

Piloid cells

677
Q

What grade is a pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

Grade 1

678
Q

What is the commonest affected site of a pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

Cerebellum

679
Q

Which mutation is commonly associated with a pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

BRAF mutation

680
Q

Which mutation is associated with longer survival and improved prognosis in a diffuse glioma?

A

IDH 1/2

681
Q

Which is the commonest aggressive primary tumour in adults?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

682
Q

What grade is a glioblastoma multiforme?

A

Grade 4 tumour

683
Q

What are the three histological findings associated with a glioblatoma multiforme?

A
  1. High mitotic index
  2. High cellularity
  3. Microvascular proliferation necrosis
684
Q

What wildetype mutation is assocaited with glioblastoma multiforme?

A

IDH wildtype

685
Q

Psammoma bodies are associated with which type of brain tumour?

A

Meningioma

686
Q

What characteristic feature is associated with a Meningioma?

A

Psammoma bodies

687
Q

Home-Wright Rosettes are associated with which type of brain tumour?

A

Medulloblastoma

688
Q

What is the second commonest primary brain tumour in children?

A

Medulloblastoma

689
Q

A Medulloblastoma is associated with what characteristic histological finding?

A

Homer-Wright Rosettes

Small round blue cells

690
Q

What is the cytology of a Oligodendroglioma?

A

Round cells with clear cytoplasm (fried egg)

691
Q

What is a positive prognostic mutation implicated in Oligodendroglioma?

A

IDH1/2

692
Q

Which familial syndrome is associated with hemangioblastoma of the cerebellum, brainstem and spinal cord, retina?

A

VHL

693
Q

Tuberous sclerosis is associated with which type of brain tumour?

A

Giant cell astrocytoma

694
Q

What DEXA scan score is associated with osteoporosis?

A

T score < -2.5

695
Q

What is the T-score range for osteopenia?

A

-1 TO - 2.5

696
Q

What is the histology of osteoporosis?

A

Loss of cancellous bone

697
Q

What is the biochemistry associated with osteoporosis?

A

Normal

698
Q

What is the main cause of osteomalacia/rickets?

A

Low dietary vitamin D, inadequate sunlight, malabsorption syndromes (e.g., colieac disease)

699
Q

Which anti-convulsant medication is associated with osteomalacia/rickets?

A

Phenytoin

700
Q

What are the symptoms associated with rickets?

A

Bone pain, bowing tibia, rachitic rosary, frontal bossing, pigeon chest, delayed walking

701
Q

On x-ray what radiological features are associated with osteomalacia?

A

Looser’s zones

702
Q

Looser’s zones are associated with what?

A

Splaying of the metaphysis - pseudofractures

703
Q

What is the histology of osteomalacia/rickets?

A

Excess of osteoids

704
Q

Which marker is raised in osteomalacia?

A

ALP

705
Q

What is the biochemistry of osteomalacia/rickets?

A

Normal to low calcium

Reduced phosphate

Raised ALP

Secondary hyperparathyroidism profile

706
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism has what effect on phosphate?

A

Low serum phosphate due to increased phosphate renal excretion

707
Q

What are the causes of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid adenoma

Hyperplasia

MEN

708
Q

What are the symptoms of hypercalcaemia?

A

Hypercalcaemia:
‘Moans, stones, bones, groans, thrones’

Depression/confusion, renal stones, bone pain and #, constipation, pancreatitis,
Polyuria, polydipsia

709
Q

What types of tumours on X-ray is associated with a collection of multinucleate giant cells in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Brown’s tumours

710
Q

What is the appearance of the skull in primary hyperparathyrodism?

A

Salt and pepper skull due to subperiosteal bone resprotion

711
Q

What is the bone histology for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (marrow fibrosis + cysts – aka Brown Tumour)

712
Q

Osteitis fibrosa cystica is associated with what?

A

Hyperparathyroidism
(primary)

713
Q

What is the biochemistry profile for primary PTHism?

A

Raised calcium
Low phosphate
Raised ALP
Raised PTH

714
Q

Paget’s disease is associated with what neurological manifestations?

A

Sensorineural deafness and sciatica

715
Q

Which metabolic bone diseases is associated with Sensorineural deafness?

A

Paget’s disease

716
Q

What is the histology appearance associated with Paget’s disease?

A

Huge osteoclasts with >100 nuclei
Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

717
Q

Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is associated with what metabolic bone disease?

A

Paget’s disease of the bone

718
Q

What biochemistry marker is significantly raised in Paget’s disease?

A

ALP

719
Q

Renal osteodystrophy is associated with what type of acidosis?

A

Metabolic acidosis

720
Q

Which enzyme is implicated in the production of uric acid from xanthine?

A

Xanthine oxidase

721
Q

What crystals are associated with gout?

A

Monosodium urate crystals

722
Q

Urate becomes insoluble at which pH?

A

7.40

723
Q

Which joint is most commonly affected in classic gout?

A

1st Metatarsalphalangeal joint (MTP) - podagra

724
Q

What are the precipitating factors for classic gout?

A

Trauma

Surgery

Starvation, bed rest

Overindulgence in certain high-purine foods and beer.

725
Q

What are the three features of chronic tophaceous gout?

A

Polyarticular arthritis

Tophi deposits in ear lobes, fingers and elbows

Urate kidney stones

726
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic investigation of classic gout?

A

Polarised microscopy of synovival fluid aspirate from the affected join

727
Q

What type of crystals are described in gout?

A

needle-shaped crystals with strong negative bifringence.

728
Q

Needle-shaped crystals with negative bifringence are associated with what type crystal arthropathy?

A

Gout

729
Q

What radiographic features are associated with gout?

A

Rat-bite erosions

730
Q

What drugs are used for the management of an acute gout flare?

A

Anti-inflammatory - NSAIDs or colchicine

731
Q

Colchicine affects which intracellular molecule?

A

Tubulin

732
Q

Allopurinol inhibits which enzyme?

A
  • Xanthine oxidase
733
Q

Which drug increases urate excretion and is indicated if GFR <50?

A
  • Probenecid
734
Q

Which two drugs should be avoided in patients on allopurinol?

A

azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine

735
Q

What is the crystal deposition for pseudogout?

A

Calcium pyrophosphates dehydrate crystals

736
Q

What is the radiological appearance of pseudogout?

A

chondrocalcinosis

737
Q

What are the risk factors associated with pseudogout?

A
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesaemia
  • Metabolic – DM, hypothyroid
  • Wilson’s disease
  • Haemochromatosis
738
Q

What does pseudogout typically affect

A

Acute monoarthritis affecting the knee, hips and shoulders.

739
Q

What are the characteristic crystals associated with pseudogout?

A

Positively birefringent rhomboid shaped.

740
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

741
Q

What are the most commonly affected sites of Osteomyelitis ?

A
  • Vertebrae
  • Jaw (Secondary to dental abscess)
  • Toe (Secondary to diabetic skin ulcer)
  • Long bones (usually metaphysis)
742
Q

What what term describes new irregular subperiosteal bone formation?

A

involucrum

743
Q

What is the cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?

A

Salmonella

744
Q

Which pathogen is the commonest congenital cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Syphillis

745
Q

What two clinical nodes are associated with osteoarthritis?

A

Heberden’s nodes

Bouchard’s nodes

746
Q

Heberden’s nodes affects which joint?

A

DIPJ

747
Q

Which nodes in osteoarthritis are associated with the PIPJ?

A

Bouchard’s nodes

748
Q

What are the four radiological features associated with osteoarthritis?

A
  • Loss of joint space
  • Osteophytes
  • Subchondral sclerosis
  • Subchondral cysts
749
Q

Which syndromes are associated with osteosarcoma?

A

Gardner Syndrome, Li-Fraumeni, NFT1, Retinoblastoma

750
Q

Which cells are implicated in the pathology of osteosarcoma?

A

Mesenchymal cells producing osteoid and immature bone

751
Q

What are the commolyn affected sites associated with osteosarcoma?

A

Common sites:
Metaphysis of long bones:
1. Distal femur
2. Proximal tibia
3. Proximal humerus
4. Middle and proximal femur

752
Q

What are the clinical features associated with osteosarcoma?

A
  • Worsening pain over weeks to months
  • More severe at rest and at night.
  • Dull, deep, boring, and relentless
  • Mass/swelling – Firm, tender and warm to the touch.
  • Decreased range of motion of the affected limb
  • Rapid metastases to the lungs.
753
Q

On plain conventional radiograph what are the 2 characteristic findings in osteosarcoma?

A

Codman’s triangle

Sunburst appearance

754
Q

In patients with an unexplained bone swelling (young children), what is the next line?

A

Urgent direct access X-ray within 48 hours

755
Q

What is the confirmatory investigation for osteosarcoma?

A

Bone biopsy

756
Q

What are the histological findings associated with osteosarcoma?

A
  • Highly pleomorphic spindle cell neoplasm with a lace-like appearance.
757
Q

What is the management for low-grade osteosarcoma?

A

Wide-grade resection and reconstruction

758
Q

A chondrosarcoma produces what?

A

Cartilage

759
Q

What is the common age group for chondrosarcoma?

A

> 40- years of age

760
Q

Which sites are commonly affected by a chondrosarcoma?

A

Axial skeleton, proximal femur, proximal tibia, pelvis

761
Q

On radiology - what appearance is evident on a chondrosarcoma?

A

Lytic with fluffy calcification

762
Q

On histology what conventional feature is associated with a chondrosarcoma?

A

myxoid – composed of clear, mucoid substance, or hyaline

763
Q

Which malignant tumour of the bone is characterised by small round blue cells?

A

Ewing Sarcoma

764
Q

Which translocation is implicated in a Ewing Sarcoma?

A

t (11:22)

765
Q

Which bone is commonly affected in a Ewing sarcoma?

A

Midshaft of the long bone

766
Q

What is the radiological feature associated with a Ewing Sarcoma?

A

Onion-skin layers of periosteal bone formation

767
Q

On biopsy what is observed in Ewing Sarcoma?

A

Small round blue cells (CD99 positive)

768
Q

Which CD marker is positive in Ewing Sarcoma?

A

CD99

769
Q

An osteoclastoma affects which type of cell?

A

Giant cell tumour

770
Q

What is the histological appearance of a Osteoclastoma?

A

Soap bubble appearance

771
Q

Which benign bone tumour is associated with a Bull’s eye appearance on X-ray?

A

Osteoid osteoma

772
Q

Which benign bone tumour is associated with cotton wool/popcorn calcifications on radiology?

A

Enchondroma

773
Q

Which benign bone tumour commonly affects the hands?

A

Enchondroma

774
Q

A Shepherd’s crook deformity on radiology is associated with which type of benign bone tumour?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

775
Q

Name 2 commonest causes of Pelvic inflammatory disease?

A
  • Neisseria gonorrhoea
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
776
Q

Right upper quadrant pain/shoulder tip pain associated with perihepatitis is associated with which complication of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Fitz-Hughs Curtis Syndrome

777
Q

On bimanual examination what are the three diagnostic findings for PID?

A
  1. Uterine tenderness
  2. Cervical motion tenderness
  3. Adnexal tenderness - A sensitive marker for endometritis.
778
Q

What type of infertility is associated with PID?

A

Tubal factor infertility

779
Q

Endometriosis predominantly affects which site?

A

uterosacral ligaments

780
Q

Which cancer is associated with endometriosis?

A

Clear cell ovarian tumour

781
Q

What theory describes the retrograde mensturation in endometriosis?

A

Sampson’s theory

782
Q

On examination, what is the common site of uterine tendernss?

A

Posterior fornix of the uterus

783
Q

Endometriomas are characterised by what morphological appearance?

A

Endometriomas

784
Q

How do endometriotic lesions appear morphologically?

A

Red-brown nodules or power burns

785
Q

An enlarged boggy and tender uterus associated with ectopic endometrial glands and stroma deep is associated with what?

A

Adenomyosis

786
Q

A fibroid is what?

A

Benign tumour of smooth muscle

787
Q

What is the pathological appearance of a fibroid?

A
  • Whitish grey in colour
788
Q

What fibroid change arises during pregnancy due to an infarction?

A

Red degeneration

789
Q

What are the four main types of fibroids?

A

Subserosal
Intramural
Submucosal
Peunduculated

790
Q

Which two types of fibroids are associated with an increasesd risk of miscarriage

A

Submucosal and intramural

791
Q

Which mutation is most commonly associated with Endometrioid endometrial carcinomas?

A

PTEN mutations

792
Q

What is the most common type of endometrial carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma

793
Q

What are the three common type 1 endometrial carcinomas

A

Serous

Endometrioid

Mucinous

794
Q

Which type of endometrial carcinoma is associated with endometrial atrophy and tp53 mutations?

A

Serous

795
Q

Which type of endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen driven?

A

Type 1

796
Q

What are two types of type 2 endometrial carcinoma?

A

Serous carcinoma

Clear cell carcinoma

797
Q

Which mutation is associated with serous carcinoma?

A

p53

798
Q

Stage 1 FIGO endometrial carcinoma affects what?

A

Cancer ONLY in uterus

799
Q

Which FIGO classification of endometrial carcinoma affects the cervix in addition to the uterus?

A

Stage 2

800
Q

Which FIGO stage of endometrial carcinoma spreads to the pelvic area?

A

Stage 3

801
Q

What is the normal vulval histology?

A

Squamous epithelium

802
Q

Which HPV strains are assocaited with developing VIN?ia

A

HPV 16 and 18

803
Q

The differentiated type of VIN is associated with what?

A

lichen sclerosis

804
Q

What is the commonest type of vulval carcinoma?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

805
Q

What is the commonest type of functional ovarian cyst?

A

Follicular cyst

806
Q

Follicular cysts contain what type of cell?

A

Granulomas cell

807
Q

What are the two type of lutein cysts?

A

Granulomas lutein cysts

Theca lutein cysts

808
Q

What type of cyst describes functional cysts of the corpus luteum?

A
  • Granulosa lutein cysts
809
Q

Granulosa cells produce which hormone?

A

Oestrogen

810
Q

Which type of lutein cysts increase with hCG and are associated with pregnancy and hydatidform mole?

A

Theca lutein cysts

811
Q

What is the common complication assocaited with a theca lutein cyst?ia

A

Rupture resulting in a hemiperitoneum

812
Q

What is the commonest type of ovarian carcinoma?

A

Epithelial carcinoma

813
Q

What are the two common types of benign ovarian carcinoma?

A

Serous and mucinous cystadenoma

814
Q

What is the common histology of a serous cystadenoma?

A

Columnar epithelium - Psammoma bodies

815
Q

Psammoma bodies are associated with which ovarian carcinoma?

A

Serous cystadenoma

816
Q

What is the second most common epithelial ovarian cancer?

A

Mucinous cystadenoma

817
Q

What is the histology of a mucinous cystadenoma?

A

Mucin secreting cells

818
Q

Which mutation is implicated in a mucinous cystadenoma?

A

K-ras

819
Q

What peritoneal complication is associated with mucinous cystadenoma?

A

pseudomyxoma peritonei

820
Q

Which ovarian tumour is associated with tubular glands?

A

Endometrioid

821
Q

Which malignant ovarian tumour is associated with a hobnail appearance with clear cytoplasm?

A

Clear cell

822
Q

Which is the female counterpart for a testicualr seminoma?

A

Dysgerminoma

823
Q

What is the commonest ovarian tumour in younger women 15-21 years?

A

Dermoid cyst - teratoma

824
Q

Which type of teratoma is benign?

A

Mature (dermoid cysts)

825
Q

Which type of teratoma is malignant?

A

Immature teratomas

826
Q

Immature teratomas secrete what?

A

AFP

827
Q

What are the hCG secreting germ cell ovarian tumours?

A

Yolk sac and choriocarcinomas

828
Q

Which histological bodies are associated with a Yolk sac ovarian tumour?

A

Schiller Duval Bodies

829
Q

Schiller Duval Bodies are associated with which type of ovarian cancer?

A

Yolk salk

830
Q

What are the three common types of a sex-cord stromal ovarian tumour?

A

Granulosa-Theca cell tumour

Sertolli-Leydig Cell tumour

Fibroma

831
Q

Meig’s syndrome is associated with which type of sex-cord stromal ovarian tumours

A

Fibroma

832
Q

Meigs syndrome is characterised by a triad of what?

A

Fibroma

Ascites

Right-sided pleural effusion

833
Q

Granulosa-Theca cell tumour produce what?

A

Produce E2

834
Q

Call-Exner bodies are associated with whcih type of ovarian cancer?

A

Granulosa-Theca cell tumour (sex-cord)

835
Q

What are the clinical presentation of a Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour?

A

defeminisation (breast atrophy) and virilisation (hirsutism, deepened voice, enlarged clitoris)

836
Q

Which metastatic tumour is characterised by mucin producing signet ring cells?

A

Krukenberg tumour

837
Q

Which scoring system is used to estimate the likliehood of a malignant cyst in the ovaries?

A

Risk of Malignancy Index

838
Q

What three parameters are implicated in the calculation of RMI?

A

Ultrasound

Menopause status

Ca-125 iu/mL

839
Q

The ectocervix is lined by which cell type?

A

Squamous epithelium

840
Q

The endocervix is lined by which cell type?

A

Columnar epithelium

841
Q

Which zone describes the area where the columnar epithelium transforms into squamous cells?

A

Transformation zone

842
Q

CIN1 one affects which part of the epithelium?

A

Lower 1/3

843
Q

CIN2 affects which part of the epithelium?

A

Basal 2/3rd

844
Q

Which HPV strains are associated with CIN?

A

HPV 16 and 18

845
Q

Which risk factors are associated with cervical cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking, multiple sexual partners, early age of first intercourse, HIV.

846
Q

Which oncogenic proteins are produced by the HPV virus and are implicated in the pathogenesis of cervical carcinoma?

A

E6

E7

847
Q

Which tumor suppressor gene is inactivated by E6?

A

P53

848
Q

Which gene is inactivated by E7?

A

Retinoblastoma (Rb) gene

849
Q

What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?

A

Stratum corneum

850
Q

What are the five epidermal layers?

A
  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum lucidum
  3. Stratum granulosum
  4. Startum spinosum
  5. Stratum basale
851
Q

Which epidermal layers do not contain nuclei or organelles? (2)

A

Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum

852
Q

Which epidermal layer is found on the hands and soles of the feet?

A

Stratum lucidum

853
Q

Which type of cells on histology is seen in stratum corneum?

A

Squames or horny cells

854
Q

Which epidermal layer is most superficial and associated with nuclei?

A

Stratum granulosum

855
Q

Which basophilic granules are obsered in the stratum granulosum and are responsible for forming a waterproof barrier?

A

keratohyalin granules

856
Q

Which layer describes cellular proliferation in the stratum spinosum?

A

Malphigian layer

857
Q

Which antigen-presenting cells are found in the stratum spinosum?

A

Langerhans cells

858
Q

Which is the most germinal and deep epidermal layer?

A

Stratum basale

859
Q

Which epidermal layer is described as the following:

‘Mitotically active, cuboidal to low columnar cells containing basophilic cytoplasm and a large nucleus’?

A

Stratum basale

860
Q

Which cells are found in the stratum basale?

A

Melanocytes and merkel cells

861
Q

Which cells is responsible for mechanoreception and release of neuroendocrine substances?

A

Merkel cell

862
Q

What are the two dermal layers?

A

Superficial and reticular layer

863
Q

Which term describes thickening of the stratum corneum?

A

Hyperkeratosis

864
Q

Which histological phenomena is seen in psoriasis?

A

Parakeratosis

865
Q

What is parakeratosis?

A

Retained nuclei in the stratum corneum

866
Q

What term describes the thickening of the stratum spinosum?

A
  • Acanthosis
867
Q

What term describes a decreased cohesion between keratinocytes?

A
  • Acantholysis
868
Q

What is observed in contact dermatitis on a histological dermal and epidermal level?

A
  • Spongiosis with hyperparakeratosis
869
Q

What term describes fluid collection in the dermis?

A

spongiosis

870
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction is associated with contact dermatitis?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

871
Q

Acanthosis is associated with thickening of which epidermal layer?

A

Stratum spinosum

872
Q

Which yeast is implicated in seborrhoec dermatitis?

A

Malassezia furfur

873
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction is implicated in psoriasis?

A

type IV hypersensitivity

874
Q

A ‘test tube in a rack appearance’ is associated with which derm disorder (On histology)?

A

Psoriasis

875
Q

What are the histological appearances associated with psoriasis?

A

Parakeratosis, neutrophilia, loss of granular layer, clubbing of rete ridges giving ‘test tubes in a rack’ appearance; Munro’s microabscesses.

876
Q

Which monoclonal drug is implicated in the management of psoriasis?

A

secukinumab

877
Q

secukinumab is associated with which IL?

A

Anti-IL-17

878
Q

What is the most common type of Psoriasis?

A
  • Chronic plaque psoriasis
879
Q

Which type of rash is associated with a raindrop plaque distribution?

A

Guttate psoriasis

880
Q

Which bacteria is typically associated with guttate psoriasis ?

A

Group A beta-haemolytic strep infection

881
Q

Which psoriasis is associated with an emergency?

A
  • Erythrodermic/pustular psoriasis
882
Q

Plaques forming along sites of trauma in psoriasis is termed as what?

A
  • Koebner phenomenon
883
Q

Which term describes pint point bleeding in psoriasis?

A

Auspitz sign

884
Q

What hypersensitivity reaction is associated with pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Type 2

885
Q

Which proteins are IgG autoantibodies in Pemphigus Vulgaris targeted against?

A

Desmoglein types 1 and 3

886
Q

What histological phenomena underpins the pathogenesis of Pemphigus Vulgaris?

A

Acantholysis in the stratum spinosum

887
Q

A fishnet-like pattern is seen in which derm disorder on immunofluorescence?

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris

888
Q

iS Pemphigus Vulgaris deep or superficial?

A

Superficial - epidermis

889
Q

Antibodies against what is involved in Bullous Pemphigoid?

A

Hemidesmosomes

890
Q

Which immune cells secrete elastase in Bullous Pemphigoid?

A

Eosinophils - damages the anchoring proteins and results in subepidermal bullae

891
Q

Large tense bullae on is seen in which derm disorder?

A

Bullous Pemphigoid

892
Q

Which Ig antibodies are involved in dermatitis herpteiformis?

A

IgA anti-gliadin - cross reaction with tissue transglutaminase

893
Q

What is the histological appearance of Dermatitis Herpetiformis?

A

Micro-abscesses – coalesce to form subepidermal bullae; neutrophil and IgA deposits at tips of dermal papillae.

894
Q

Which term describes the fine white streaks in lichen planus?

A

Wickham striae

895
Q

Which histological bodies are seen in lichen planus?

A

Civette bodies

896
Q

Saw-toothing of rete ridges and basal cell degeneration is seen in which disorder (derm)?

A

Lichen planus

897
Q

Which drugs are implicated in Erythema Multiforme?

A

Sulphonamides, NSAIDs, allopurinol, penicillin, phenytoin.

898
Q

What are the viral and bacterial causes of erythema multiforme?

A

HSV-1, HSV-2 and mycoplasma pneumoniae.

899
Q

What are the severe disease manifestations of erythema multiforme?

A

Steven Johnson’s syndrome (SJS)

followed by toxic epidermal necrolysis

900
Q

What % BSA differentaites SJS with TES?

A

SJS - 10% TO 30%

TES >30%

901
Q

Which sign denotes the separation of the epidermis from the underlying dermis?

A

Nikolsy sign.

902
Q

Which derm condition is denoted by stuck on dull waxy appearance?

A

Seborrhoeic Keratosis

903
Q

Horn cysts are associated with which derm condition?

A

Seborrhoeic Keratosis

904
Q

What is the histology of actinic keratosis? (SPAIN)

A
  • Solar elastosis
  • Paraketosis
  • Atypical cells
  • Inflammation
  • Non-full thickness
905
Q

which derm condition is seen with chronic uv sun exposure and is rough w/a sand-paper like appearance?

A

rough, sandpaper-like, scaly lesions

906
Q

Which derm disorder is characterised by a dome-shaped skin tumour with a centralised keratinous plug on sun exposed hair baring areas?

A

Keratoacanthoma

907
Q

Which benign skin tumour is rapidly growing?

A

Keratoacanthoma

908
Q

What is the histology of Keratoacanthoma ?

A

Central keratin plug with a crateriform appearance

909
Q

What is the pre-malignant cancer for Squamous cell carcinoma in situ?

A

Bowen’s disease

910
Q

What is Bowen’s disease characterised by ?

A

Keratinocyte atypia - seen throughout the entire epidermis - full -thickness but with an intact membrane

911
Q

What HPV strains are associated with Bowen’s disease?

A

HPV 16 and 18

912
Q

What is the second most common skin cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

913
Q

What are the pre-existing conditions for SCC of the skin?

A

Bowen’s disease

914
Q

What is the tumour diameter for SCC of the skin?

A

> 2 cm

915
Q

What is the difference between Bowen’s disease and SCC, in terms of histology?

A

Atypical keratinocytes with abundant eosinphillic or glassy-pink cytoplasms invading the dermis and spreading through the basement membrane

916
Q

Which skin cancer is characterised by an ill-defined keratotic or warty nodule that easily ulcerates?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

917
Q

What is the most common form of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

918
Q

What is the appearance of a basal cell carcinoma?

A

Pearly or shiny nodule on the head and neck area + overlying telangiectasia

919
Q

What is the histological appearance for a basal cell carcinoma?

A

Palisading (nuclei align in the outermost layer)

920
Q

What are the three types of melanocytic naevi?

A

Junctional

Compound

Intradermal

921
Q

Which of the melanocytic naevi is nested in the epidermis?

A

Junctional - reside within the stratum basale

922
Q

Which melanocytic naevus is associated with the epidermis and dermis?

A

Compound

923
Q

Which melanocytic naevus is nested in the dermis?

A

Intradermal

924
Q

Which activating mutation is associated with malignant melanoma?

A

BRAF V600 protein kinase

925
Q

What are the two phases of malignant melanoma?

A

Radial growth phase - grow horizontally in the epidermis

Vertical growth phase - vertical growth into the dermis

926
Q

What type of appearance is evident on malignant melanoma during the vertical growth phase?

A

Buckshot appearance - pagetoid cells

927
Q

What is the prognostic factor for malignant melnoma?

A

Breslow thickness

928
Q

Which is the most common type of malignant melnoma?

A

Superficial spreading

929
Q

Which is the second commonest malignant melanoma + most aggressive type?

A

Nodular

930
Q

Which melanoma is typically seen in the palm or sole or under the nail?

A
  • Acral lentiginous malignant melanoma
931
Q

Which melanoma is seen on sun-damaged skin?

A
  • Lentigo Maligna
932
Q

Which freckle is obserbed in lentigo maligna?

A

Hutchinson’s melanocytic freckle

933
Q

Which viruses cause pityriasis rosea?

A

HHV-6 and -7

934
Q

What is the pattern of rash seen in Pityriasis Rosea?

A

Christmass tress pattern

935
Q

What does Pityriasis Rosea begin as?

A

Herald patch

936
Q

What is the female to male ratio for SLE?

A

9:1

937
Q

Which type of hypersensivity reaction is associated with SLE?

A

Type 3

938
Q

Which HLA types are associated with SLE?

A

HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR15

939
Q

Which is the commonest antibody associated with SLE?

A

Anti-dsDNA

940
Q

Which is the most specific autoantibody associated with SLE?

A

anti-spliceosome protein Smith (Sm)

941
Q

Which autoantibody is associated with drug-induced SLE?

A

Anti-histone

942
Q

Which complements are low in active SLE?

A

Low C3 and C4

943
Q

On renal biopsy what is the charactersitic appearance in SLE?istics

A

Wire loop appearance

944
Q

What type of histological lesion is seen in the spleen for SLE?

A

Onion skin lesion

945
Q

Which histological heart finding is seen in SLE?

A

Libman-sacks endocarditis

946
Q

Which autoantibody is associated with limited scleroderma?

A

Anti-centromere

947
Q

What is CREST in limited scleroderma?

A
  • Calcinosis (calcium deposit on tip of thumb)
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon (white  blue  red)
  • Oesophageal dysmotility
  • Sclerodactyly
  • Telangiectasia
948
Q

What is the vascular histology for limited scleroderma?

A

Onion skin appearance

949
Q

Which auto-antibody is associated with diffuse scleroderma?

A

Anti-SCL70

950
Q

A patient with puffy fingers, erythema, pruritus, accompanied by skin induration, dryness and hyperpigmentation is associated w/what?

A

Diffuse scleroderma

951
Q

Which autoantibody is associated with polymyositis?

A

Anti-Jo-1

952
Q

Which disorder is characterised by symmetric involvement of the pelvic girdle muscles - difficulty raising arms and standing up + constitutional symptoms?

A

Polymyositis

953
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for polymyositis?

A

EMG-guided biopsy

954
Q

Which viruses can precipitated the onset of dermatomyositis?

A

Coxsackie B virus, parvovirus, and enterovirus

955
Q

Which auto-antibody is associated with interstitial lung disease in dermatomyositis?

A

Anti-Jo-1

956
Q

What type of rash is associated with Dermatomyositis?

A

Heliotrope rash

957
Q

What papules are associated with Dermatomyositis?

A

Gottron’s papules

958
Q

Which blood markers are raised in Dermatomyositis?

A

Creatine kinase and ESR

959
Q

What is the management for Dermatomyositis?

A

High-dose glucocorticosteroids (e..g, oral prednislone 0.5-1 mg/kg/day)o

960
Q

What are the late-stage manifestations of Dermatomyositis?

A

Dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia

961
Q

Which large vessel vasultis is associated with pulseless disease?

A

Takayasu’s arteritis

962
Q

What is the commonest affected site in Takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Subclavian artery

963
Q

In which demographic, does Takayasu’s arteritis most likely affect?

A

Japanese women

964
Q

What is the complication associated with Takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Hypotensive retinopathy

965
Q

Commonest affected site for Giant cell arteritis?

A

Superficial temporal arteries

966
Q

HLA associated with giant cell artertis?

A

HLA-DR4

967
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for giant cell arteritis?

A

Temporal artery biopsy

968
Q

What is the first-line investigation associated with giant cell arteritis?

A

ESR (raised >50 mm/hour)

969
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa is associated with which viral infection?

A

Hepatitis B

970
Q

On angiography which medium veseel vasculitis is associated with a strings of pearls/rosary bead appearance?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

971
Q

Which medium vessel disease is associated with segmental arterial occlusions aka corkscrew appearance on contrast angiography?

A

Berger’s disease

972
Q

What is the characteristic angiographic appearance associated with Berger’s disease?

A

Corkscrew appearance

973
Q

Which medium vessel vasculitis is common in heavy smoking men <50 years?

A

Berger’s Disease (Thromboangitis Obliterans):

974
Q

What are the three pathological hallmarks with GPA?

A
  1. Granulomatous inflammation in the upper or lower respiratory tract
  2. Necrotising vasculitis
  3. Segmental glomerulonpehritis
975
Q

Which disease is associated with saddle nose deformity, pulmonary hemoarrhage ad segmental glomerulnephritis?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

976
Q

What nasal complication is associated with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis ?

A

Saddle nose deformity + subglottic stenosis

977
Q

Which auto-antibody is associated with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis ?

A

c-ANCA

978
Q

c-ANCA is targets which enzyme?

A

Proteinase-3

979
Q

Which vasculitis is associated with both asthma and eosinphillia?

A

Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

980
Q

Which auto-antibody is concerned with Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

pANCA

981
Q

pANCA targets which enzyme?

A

myeloperoxidase

982
Q

Which type of glomerulonephritis is associated with microscopic polyangitis?

A

Pauci-immune - RPGN

983
Q

What is amyloid?

A

fibrillar proteins - aggregate into insoluble cross-beta-pleated sheets

984
Q

What is THE most common type of amyloidosis?

A

Primary AL

985
Q

Primary AL amyloidosis is associated with what?

A

Multiple myleoma

986
Q

What is the cause of secondary amyloidosis?

A

Serum amyloid A - acute phase protein

987
Q

Secondary (AA) amyloidosis is associated with which autoimmune disorders?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD

988
Q

Which protein deposition is associated with haemodialysis associated amyloidosis?

A

Beta-2-microglobulin

989
Q

Haemodialysis-associated amyloidosis is associated with which clinical manifestation?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

990
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of familial mediterranean fever?

A

Autosomal recessive

991
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy is associated with amyloidosis?

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

992
Q

What is the stain implicated with amyloidosis?

A

Congo red stain

993
Q

What is the stain used to detect melanoma?

A

Fontana stain

994
Q

Which stain is used for Wilson’s disease?

A

Rhodanine stain

995
Q

Cytokeratin stain, stains positive for what?

A

Epithelial cells

996
Q

CD45 stain, stains positive for what?

A

Lymphoid cells

997
Q

Which stain is used for confirming acid-fast bacilli?

A

Zihel-Neelson stain

998
Q

Which stain is used for confirming pneumocystic jirovecci?

A

Methanamine silver stain

999
Q

Which stain is used to confirm cryptosporidium parvum?

A

Kinyoung acid fast stain

1000
Q

Which cells secrete vasoactive peptide?

A

D1 cells

1001
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gall stones

1002
Q

What is the second most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

Ethanol

1003
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is a consequence of pancreatitis?

A

Hypocalcaemia (due to saponification)

1004
Q

Periductal inflammation in acute pancreatitis is associated with necrosis of which type of cell?

A

Acinar cell

1005
Q

Which two enzymes are elevated in acute pancreatitis?

A

Lipase and amylase

1006
Q

Which enzyme marker is more sensitive for acute pancreatitis?

A

Lipase

1007
Q

What is the histology of acute pancreatitis?

A

Coagulative necrosis

1008
Q

What is the prognostic scoring system for acute pancreatitis?

A

Modified Glasgow Criteria

1009
Q

What is the most significant causative risk factor for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Ethanol

1010
Q

What is the diagnostic histological pancreatic appearance for chronic pancreattis?

A

Pancreatic calcifications

1011
Q

Which enzyme marker is associated with chronic pancreatitis?

A

Faecal elastase

1012
Q

Which is the commonest cancer of the pancreas?

A

Ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

1013
Q

Which part of the pancreas is affected most by cancer?

A

Head of the pancreas

1014
Q

Which mutation is associated the most with pancreatic carcinoma?

A

K-ras mutation

1015
Q

What host response is associated with dense fibrosis in ductal pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Desmoplastic response

1016
Q

Which glands are associated with pancreatic carcinoma on histology?

A

Abortive glands and mucin secretion

1017
Q

What clinical sign is characteristic of pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Courvoisier sign

1018
Q

What derm manifestation is associated with pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Trousseau syndrome

1019
Q

Which biomarker is raised in pancreatic carcinoma?

A

CA19-9

1020
Q

What is the surgical procedure for pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

Whipple’s procedure

1021
Q

Which rare pancreatic carcinoma is associated with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm?

A

Acinar cell carcinoma

1022
Q

What are the three types of cystic neoplasms (pancreas)?

A

Serous cystic neoplasm

Intraductal papullary neoplasm

Mucinous cystic neoplasms

1023
Q

Which pre-cancerous neoplasm is found int he tail of the pancreas and is filled with thick tenacious mucin?

A

Mucinous cystic neoplasm

1024
Q

Which cystic neoplasm is associated with the head of the pancreas?

A

Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm

1025
Q

Which pancreatic neuroendocrine tumour is associated with gastrin secretion?

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

1026
Q

Which genetic endocrine disorder predisposes the development of neuroendocrine tumours of the pancreas?

A

MEN type 1

1027
Q

What is the characteristic derm manifestation associated with a glucagonoma?

A
  • Necrolytic migratory erythema
1028
Q

Which pancreatic neuroendocrine tumour is associated with watery diarrhoea and hypokalaemia?

A

VIPoma

1029
Q

What are the non-functional peptides? (4)

A

Chromogranin A
Pancreatic polypeptide
Alpha-subunit
Beta-subunit

1030
Q

Gallstones are predominantly made out of what?

A

Cholesterol (radiolucent)

1031
Q

Which gallstones are radio-opaque?

A

Pigment stones

1032
Q

An infarct to which artery results in neglect?

A

Right Middle Cerebral artery ap

1033
Q

Which drug is palliative for colorectal cancer?

A

fluorouracil

1034
Q

Which is the most common type of cancer in men?

A

Prostate cancer

1035
Q

Second most common cancer cause of death in the UK?

A

Colorectal cancer

1036
Q

Most common cancer-related death in the UK?

A

Lung cancer

1037
Q

Most prevalent cancer in the UK for women?

A

Ovarian cancer

1038
Q

Which extracellular protein is associated with deposits in Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

Beta-amyloid deposits

1039
Q

Which protein is responsible for disrupting the cytoskeleton and forming NFTs in Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

Tau protein

1040
Q

Which pathology is associated with deposits of protein in blood vessel walls in dementia?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

1041
Q

Most common site of cerebral atrophy in Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

Hippocampus

1042
Q

Which enzyme cleaved amyloid precursor protein?

A

Beta-secretase

1043
Q

What staging is used for tau protein?

A

Braak staging

1044
Q

Physostigmine is what class of drug?

A

Anti-cholinesterase

1045
Q

Memantine is what class of drug?

A

NMDA receptor anatagonist

1046
Q

Which neurones are depleted in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dopaminergic neurone depletion

1047
Q

Which part of the brain is first affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Substantia nigra in the basal ganglia to the striatum

1048
Q

Lewy bodies are formed from what?

A

alpha-synuclein

1049
Q

Which cells are affected in mlptiple system atrophy?

A

Glial cells

1050
Q

Ataxial rigidity + tauopathy + downgaze =?

A

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

1051
Q

Which disease is assocaitiaedted with a cortical knife blade atrophy and behavioural change?

A

Pick’s disease

1052
Q

Which protein is associated with FTD?

A

TDP-43 protein

1053
Q

Most common bacterial cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Staph aureus

1054
Q

What terms describes irregular new bone formation in osteomyelitis?

A

Involucrum

1055
Q

What change describes necrotic cortex in osteomyelitis?

A

Sequestrum

1056
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in children?

A

Haemophilus influenzae, and group B strep

1057
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in immunocompromised patients?

A

Tuberculosis

1058
Q

Most common congenital cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Syphilis

1059
Q

Which is a common bone tumour associated in patients >40 years and affects the axial skeleton and proximal tibia?

A

Chondrosarcoma

1060
Q

Which benign bone tumour is associated with a sclerotic rim?

A

Osteoid osteoma

1061
Q

Which benign bone disorder is associated with a mushroom cap?

A

Osteochondroma

1062
Q

Which type of prion disease can be diagnosed with 100% specificity using a tonsillar biopsy?

A

Variant CJD

1063
Q

On histology, which marker is positive in osteosarcoma?

A

ALP positive

1064
Q

Define Beck’s triad

A

Muffled heart sounds, raised JVP and hypotension

1065
Q

What are the two major criteria (Dukes) for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

(‘BE’)

A

Blood cultures - 2 positive cultures >12 hours apart

Echocardiographic evidence of vegetation on TTE or new regurgitant murmur

1066
Q

What term describes small giant cell granulomas?

A

Aschoff bodies

1067
Q

What are the Major Criteria for Rheumatic Fever?

A

Carditis
Arthritis
Sydenham’s chorea
Erythema marginatum
Subcutaneous nodules

1068
Q

Which aortic section is predisposed to atherosclerosis?

A

Abdominal aorta (due to low shear stress)

1069
Q

Macrophage phagocytosis of OxLDLs forms what?

A

Foam cells

1070
Q

What HRCT changes are observed in Interstitial Lung Disease?

A

Honeycomb/ground-glass appearance

1071
Q

What are the occupational causes of interstitial lung disease?

A
  • Organic dust – Mould spores, aerosolised bird droppings.
  • Mineral dust – Silica, asbestos, coal mine dust, beryllium, and hard metal.
  • Inhaled gases – Methane, cyanide.
1072
Q

What spirometry finding is observed in restrictive lung disease?

A
  • Reduced FEV1 and FVR – normal ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio >70%).
1073
Q

Which disease in neonates is characterised by diffuse alveolar damage?

A

Hyaline membrane disease

1074
Q

What are the CXR findings for pulmonary oedema?

A

Alveolar opacification (batwing appearance), Kerley B-lines, cardiomegaly, fluid in horizontal fissure.

1075
Q

Macrophage phagocytosis of OxLDLs forms what?

A

Foam cells

1076
Q
A