histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

squamous cell carcinoma - histological features, site

A

histological features:
- keratin production
- intracellular bridges (appears as little prickles on edge of cells)
- do NOT form glands

site:
- skin
- head and enck
- oesophagus (upper and middle 1/3)
- anus
- cervix
- vagina

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2
Q

adenocarcinomas - histological features, site

A

histological features:
- from glandular epithelium
- forms glands that can secrete substances (e.g., mucin)

site:
- lung
- breast
- stomach
- colon
- pancreas

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3
Q

transitional cell carcinoma - sites

A

urinary tract
kidney
ureters
bladder

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4
Q

histochemical stains - fontana, congo red, prussian blue

A

fontanta: +ve for melanin
congo red: +ve for amyloid (apple green birefringence)
prussian blue: +ve for iron (haemochromatosis)

NB: go-to stain for most histological samples is Haemotoxylin and Eosin (H&E)

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5
Q

immunohistochemical stains

A

involves antibodies directed against a specific antigen. you can then use either immunofluorescence (fluorescently tagged antibody) or immunoperoxidase (visualisation due to chemical reaction) to detect resulting complexes

  • CD45: lymphoid cell marker
  • cytokeratin: epithelial marker
  • chromogranin: neuroendocrine marker (e.g., insulinomas or phaeochromocytoma)
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6
Q

define atherosclerosis

A

chronic inflammation in tunica intima (innermost layer) of large arteries characterised by intimal thickening and lipid accumulation

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7
Q

steps of atherosclerosis

A
  1. endothelial injury causes accumulation of LDL
  2. LDL enters intima and is trapped in sub-intimal space
  3. LDL is converted into modified and oxidised LDL causing inflammation
  4. macrophages take up ox/modLDL via scavenger receptors and become foam cells
  5. apoptosis of foam cells causes inflammation and cholesterol core of plaque
  6. increase in adhesion molecules on endothelium due to inflammation results in more macrophages and T cells entering the plaque
  7. vascular smooth muscle cells form the fibrous cap, segregating thrombogenic core from lumen
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8
Q

3 principal components of atherosclerotic plaques

A
  1. cells - including SMC, macrophages and other leukocytes
  2. ECM including collagen
  3. intracellular and extracellular lipid
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9
Q

risk factors for atherosclerosis

A

modifiable: type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, smoking

non-modifiable: gender (M>F), increasing age, family history

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10
Q

what is ischaemic heart disease?

A

group of conditions that occur when oxygen supply < demands of the myocardium due to narrowed coronary vessels. includes stable/unstable angina, MI

  • stable angina: 70% vessel occlusion, pain on exertion
  • unstable angina: >90% vessel occlusion, pain at rest also. high likelihood of impending infarction
  • prinzmetal angina: rare, due to coronary artery spasm rather than atherosclerosis

NB: no muscle death in angina

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11
Q

pathogenesis of MI

A

coronary atherosclerosis - plaque rupture - superimposed platelet activation - thrombosis and vasospasm - occlusive intracoronary thrombus overlying disrupted plaque.

this results in myocardial necrosis secondary to ischaemia.
severe ischaemia lasting >20-40 mins results in irreversible injury and myocyte death

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12
Q

complications of MI

A

mechanical
- contractile dysfunction loss of muscle, cardiogenic shock
- congestive cardiac failure; due to ventricular dysfunction
- LV infarct; papillary muscle dysfunction/necrosis/rupture -> MR
- cardiac rupture of ventricular wall, septum (left to right shunt, VSD), papillary muscle (MR)
- ventricular aneurysm; develops >4 weeks post-MI (persistent ST elevation)

arrhythmia
- VF; usually occurs in the first 24hrs, common cause of sudden death
- 90% of patients develop an arrhythmia followed by an MI

pericardial
- early/peri-infarct associated pericarditis (dusky haemorrhagic tissue)
- pericardial effusion (+/- tamponade)
- Dressler’s syndrome; chest pain, fevers and effusion weeks-months after MI
- fibrinous pericarditis - occurs if infarct extends to epicardium

thrombotic
- embolisation of thrombus

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13
Q

evolution of MI - histological findings

A
  • under 6 hours - normal by histology (CK-MB also normal)
  • 6-24 hrs - loss of nuclei, homogenous cytoplasm, necrotic cell death
  • 1-4 days - infiltration of polymorphs then macrophages (clear up debris)
  • 5-10 days - removal of debris
  • 1-2 weeks - granulation tissue, new blood vessels, myofibroblasts, collagen synthesis
  • weeks-months - strengthening, decellularising scar tissue
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14
Q

what is preload and afterload

A

preload: initial stretch of cardiomyocytes before contraction due to ventricular filling. increase will increase stroke volume

afterload: pressure of vessels (aortic or pulmonary artery pressures) against which heart must contract to eject blood. increase in afterload will decrease stroke volume

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15
Q

common causes of heart failure

A
  • ischaemic heart disease
  • myocarditis
  • hypertension
  • cardiomyopathy (dilated)
  • valve disease
  • arrhythmias
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16
Q

complications of heart failure

A
  • sudden death (largely arrhythmia)
  • systemic emboli
  • arrhythmias
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17
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy - mechanisms of HF, causes, indirect myocardial dysfunction (not cardiomyopathy-induced)

A

mechanism:
- systolic dysfunction

causes:
- idiopathic, alcohol, thyroid disease, haemochromatosis, viral myocarditis

indirect myocardial dysfunction (not cardiomyopathy-induced)
- IHD, valvular heart disease, hypertension, congenital HD

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18
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - mechanisms of HF, causes, indirect myocardial dysfunction (not cardiomyopathy-induced)

A

mechanism:
- diastolic dysfunction

causes:
- genetic, storage diseases

indirect myocardial dysfunction (not cardiomyopathy-induced):
- hypertension, AS

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19
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathy - mechanisms of HF, causes, indirect myocardial dysfunction (not cardiomyopathy-induced)

A

mechanism:
- diastolic dysfunction

causes:
- sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, radiation-induced fibrosis

indirect myocardial dysfunction (not cardiomyopathy-induced):
- pericardial constriction

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20
Q

acute rheumatic fever summary

A

occurs at a peak age of 5-15 years. it is a multisystem illness affecting:
- heart: pancarditis e.g., endocarditis, myocarditis, pericarditis
- joints: arthritis and synovitis
- skin: erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules
- CNS: encephalopathy, sydenham’s chorea

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21
Q

acute rheumatic fever clinical features

A
  • develops 2-4 weeks after strep throat infection
  • diagnosis: group A strep infection + 2 major criteria or 1 major + 2 minor criteria

Jones’ Major criteria:
Major criteria:
- carditis
- arthritis
- syndenham’s chorea
- erythema marginatum
- subcutaneous nodules

Minor criteria:
- fever
- raised CRP/ESR
- migratory arthralgia
- prolonged PR
- prev. rheumatic fever
- malaise
- tachycardia

Evidence of GAS infection:
- positive throat culture
- elevate AsO
- recent scarlet fever

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22
Q

main pathogen for acute rheumatic fever

A

Lancefield group A strep

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23
Q

acute rheumatic fever - histology

A

beady fibrous vegetations (verrucae), Aschoff bodies (small giant-cell granulomas) and Anitshkov myocytes (regenerating myocytes)

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24
Q

acute rheumatic fever treatment

A

benzylpenicillin
erythromycin if penicillin-allergic

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25
Q

conditions that might cause vegetative endocarditis

A
  • rheumatic heart disease
  • infective endocarditis
  • non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis (marantic)
  • Libman-Sacks endocarditis
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26
Q

rheumatic heart disease - pathology, characteristics of vegetations

A

pathology:
- antigenic mimicry - cross reaction of anti-streptococcal antibodies with heart tissue

characteristics of vegetations:
- small, warty vegetations found along the lines of closure of valve leaflet - ‘verrucae’

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27
Q

infective endocarditis - pathology, characteristics of vegetations

A

pathology:
- colonisation or invasion of heart valves or mural endocardium by microbe

characteristics of vegetations:
- large, irregular masses on valve cusps, extending into the chordae

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28
Q

non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis (marantic) - pathology, characteristics of vegetations

A

pathology:
- DIC/hypercoagulable states

characteristics of vegetations:
- small, bland vegetations attached to lines of closure. formed of thrombi.

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29
Q

Limban-Sacks endocarditis - pathology, characteristics of vegetations

A

pathology:
- pathogenesis unknown. associated with SLE and anti-phospholipid syndrome

characteristics of vegetations:
- small (up to 2mm), warty vegetations that are sterile and platelet rich

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30
Q

infective endocarditis: bacteraemia secondary to…

A
  • poor dental hygiene (strep viridans)
  • IVDU
  • soft tissue infection
  • dental treatments
  • cannulas/lines
  • cardiac and valvular surgery/pacemakers
  • previously damaged valve e.g., post rheumatic fever
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31
Q

acute vs subacute infective endocarditis

A

causative organisms
- acute: staph aureus (35-40%), strep pyogenes
- subacute: strep viridans, staph epidermis, HACEK*, coxiella, mycoplasma, candida

virulence
- acute: high
- subacute: low

vegetation morphology
- acute: larger and more localised
- subacute: friable, soft thrombi. a few mm in size

spread
- acute: aorta
- subacute: chordae

*HACEK: a group of unusual bacterial causes of infective endocarditis. Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterum, Eikenella, Kingella

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32
Q

clinical features of endocarditis

A

constitutional:
- fever
- malaise
- rigors
- anaemia

cardiac:
- new murmur (MR/AR usually)

immune phenomena:
- roth spots
- osler’s nodes
- haematuria due to glomerulonephritis

thromboembolic phenomena:
- janeway lesions
- septic abscesses in lungs/brain/spleen/kidney
- micro emboli
- splinter haemorrhages
- splenomegaly

stereotypical patient: non-specific systemic symptoms such as fevers, weight loss, night sweats and malaise ongoing for several months. haematuria (either macroscopic or likely microscopic - very common). often treated as bacterial infections and may improve with antibiotics only to worsen again when stopped

NB: usually mitral/aortic valve unless IVDU when right-sided valves invovled

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33
Q

Duke Criteria - infective endocarditis

A

major:
- positive blood culture growing typical IE organisms or 2 positive cultures > 12 hrs apart
- evidence of vegetation/abscess on echo or new regurgitant murmur

minor:
- risk factor (e.g., prosthetic valve, IVDU, congenital valve abnormalities)
- T > 38
- thromboembolic phenomena
- immune phenomena
- positive blood cultures not meeting major criteria

diagnosis:
- 2 major
- 1 major + 3 minor
- 5 minor

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34
Q

infective endocarditis treatment

A

start with broad spectrum Abx once cultures taken. then treat according to sensitivities.

subacute:
- benzylpenicillin + gentamicin; or vancomycin for 4 weeks

acute:
- flucloxacillin for MSSA, rifampicin + vancomycin + gentamycin for MRSA (S. aureus IE is very nasty so make sure there is cover for this)

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35
Q

aortic stenosis - pathophysiology, causes, murmur

A

pathophysiology:
- narrowed aortic valve high velocity, high pressure flow

causes:
- calcification (old age)
- congenital bicuspid valve

murmur:
- crescendo-decrescendo
- radiates to carotids

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36
Q

aortic regurgitation - pathophysiology, causes, murmur

A

pathophysiology:
- incompetent aortic valve blood flows back into LV after systole

causes:
- infective endocarditis, dissecting aortic aneurysm, LV dilation, connective tissue disease e.g., Marfans, ank spon

murmur:
- early diastolic, with collapsing pulse

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37
Q

mitral stenosis - pathophysiology, causes, murmur

A

pathophysiology:
- narrowed mitral valve high velocity, high pressure flow. back pressure in left atrium dilatation

causes:
- rheumatic fever

murmur:
- mid diastolic, opening click

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38
Q

mitral regurgitation - pathophysiology, causes, murmur

A

pathophysiology:
- incompetent mitral valve blood flows back into left atrium during systole

causes:
- infective endocarditis, connective tissue disease, post-MI, rheumatic fever, LV dilation (functional MR)

murmur:
- pansystolic
- radiates to axilla

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39
Q

which valves does chronic rheumatic valve disease most commonly affect

A

left-sided, mostly mitral

mitral > aortic > tricuspid > pulmonary

there is thickening of valve leaflet, especially along lines of closure and fusion of commissures.
there is also thickening, shortening and fusion of chordae tendinae

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40
Q

how does mitral valve prolapse usually present?

A
  • clinically appears in middle-aged woman
  • short of breath with chest pains
  • clinical signs often described as mid systolic click + late systolic murmur
  • often secondary to annular dilatation due to dilated cardiomyopathy
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41
Q

causes of pericarditis

A
  • viral and idiopathic most common (90%)
  • fibrinous (MI, uraemia)
  • purulent (staphylococcus)
  • granulomatous (TB)
  • haemorrhagic tumour (tumour, TB, uraemia)
  • fibrous (a.k.a., constrictive) (arises from any of above)
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42
Q

pericardial effusion

A

serous fluid in pericardial sac

usual cause:
- chronic heart failure

exudative fluids occur secondary to inflammatory, infectious, malignant or autoimmune processes within the pericardium.
can lead to cardiac tamponade which presents with Beck’s triad (muffled heart sounds, raised JVP, hypotension)

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43
Q

haemopericardium

A

= blood in the pericardial sac
can arise due to myocardial rupture from myocardial infarction or trauma

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44
Q

chronic bronchitis - site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features, complications

A

site:
- bronchus

pathology:
- dilatation of the airways and excess mucous production

aetiology:
- tobacco smoke, air pollution

clinical features:
- cough & sputum on most days for 3 months over 2 years

histological features:
- dilatation of the airways, goblet cell hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucous glands

complications:
- recurrent infections, chronic hypoxia. pulmonary HTN

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45
Q

bronchiectasis - site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features, complications

A

site:
- bronchus

pathology:
- airway dilatation and scarring

aetiology:
- recurrent infections (CF major risk factor)

clinical features:
- cough, purulent sputum, fever

histological features:
- permanent fibrotic dilatation of the bronchi

complications:
- recurrent infections, haemoptysis, pulm HTN, amyloidosis

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46
Q

asthma - site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features, complications

A

site:
- bronchus

pathology:
- airway constriction due to mast cell degranulation

aetiology:
- immunologic: allergens, drugs, cold air, exercise

clinical features:
- episodic cough, reversible wheezing, acute dyspnoea

histological features:
- SM cell hyperplasia, excess mucus (goblet cell hypertrophy), inflammation
- whorls of shed epithelium (Curschmann spirals), eosinophils, Charcot-Leyden crystals

complications:
- chronic asthma, death

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47
Q

emphysema - site, pathology, aetiology, clinical features, histological features, complications

A

site:
- acinus

pathology:
- airspace enlargement, wall destruction

aetiology:
- tobacco smoke, alpha1-AT deficiency

clinical features:
- dyspnoea, cough

histological features:
- loss of the alveolar parenchyma distal to the terminal bronchiole

complications:
- pneumothorax, resp failure, pulm HTN

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48
Q

pathophysiology of bronchiectasis

A
  • recurrent infection/inflammation
  • bronchial wall oedema and excess mucous production
  • lymphocyte recruitment and protease release
  • bronchial wall damage
  • more prone to infection and inflammation
  • cycle repeats
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49
Q

causes of bronchiectasis

A

inflammatory:
- post-infectious (e.g., pertussis) - most common cause 18% of all adult patients
- abnormal host defence; primary (hypogammaglobulinaemia) and secondary (chemotherapy, NG)
- obstruction (extrinsic/intrinsic/middle lobe syndrome), secondary to COPD
- post-inflammatory (aspiration)
- secondary to bronchiolar disease (OB) and interstitial fibrosis (CFA, sarcoidosis)
- systemic disease (connective tissue disorders)
- asthma

congenital:
- cystic fibrosis
- primary ciliary dyskinesia
- hypogammaglobulinaemia
- young’s syndrome = rhinosinusitis, azoospermia and bronchiectasis

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50
Q

what is interstitial lung disease

A

group of >200 diseases characterised by inflammation and fibrosis of the pulmonary connective tissue, accounting for 15% of respiratory distress burden

shows features of RESTRICTIVE lung disease on spirometry (reduced FEV1 and FVR but normal FEV1/FVC ratio i.e., >70%):
- decreased CO diffusion capacity
- decreased lung volume
- decreased compliance

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51
Q

interstitial lung disease - typical presentation

A
  • chronic shortness of breath
  • fine end-inspiratory crackles
  • cyanosis, pulmonary HTN and cor pulmonale

in advanced disease, interstitial lung disease will have a ground glass/honeycomb appearance on CT CAP

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52
Q

interstitial lung disease - categorisation

A
  1. fibrosing
    - cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis / idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    - pneumoconiosis
    - cryptogenic organising pneumonia
    - associated with connective tissue disease
    - drug-induced
    - radiation pneumonitis
  2. granulomatous
    - sarcoid
    - extrinsic allergic alveolitis
    - associated with vasculitides e.g., Wegener’s, Churg-Strauss, microscopic polyangiitis
  3. eosinophilic
  4. smoking related
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53
Q

cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis / idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A
  • M > F
  • causative agents unknown: risk factors include smoking and GORD

histological pattern of fibrosis = usually interstitial pneumonia, required for diagnosis (also seen in connective tissue disease, asbestosis and EAA)
- progressive patchy interstitial fibrosis with loss of normal lung architecture and honeycomb change, beginning at periphery of the lobule, usually sub-pleural
- hyperplasia of type II pneumocytes causing cyst formation - honeycomb fibrosis

can have inflammatory causes e.g., RA, SLE, systemic sclerosis

clinical presentation:
- increasing exertional dyspnoea and non-productive cough
- 40-70y at presentation with hypoxaemia -> cyanosis and pulmonary HTN +/- cor pulmonale, and clubbing. diagnosed by high-resolution CT

management:
- steroids, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, pirfenidone (not especially effective)

  • poor prognosis (2-5 yrs)
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54
Q

pneumoconiosis

A
  • occupational lung disease caused by inhalation of mineral dusts or inorganic particles
  • classically seen in coal miners
  • predilection for upper lobes

NB: asbestosis can cause benign pleural lesions (plaques, fibrosis) but can also cause malignant lesions (adenocarcinoma, mesothelioma). asbestosis (fibrosis resulting from asbestos exposure) tends to affect the lower lobe.

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55
Q

granulomatous lung diseases

A

granuloma = collection of histiocytes, macrophages +/- multi-nucleate giant cells

granulomatous infections:
- TB, fungal (histoplasma, Cryptococcus, coccidioides, aspergillus, mucor) and others (pneumocystis, parasites)

non-infectious granulomatous conditions:
- sarcoid, foreign body (aspiration or IVDU), drugs or occupational lung disease

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56
Q

extrinsic allergic alveolitis / hypersensitivity pneumonitis / cryptogenic organising pneumonia / bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia (BOOP)

A

group of immune-mediated lung disorders caused by intense/prolonged exposure to inhaled ORGANIC antigens -> widespread ALVEOLAR inflammation (NB asthma = airway inflammation)

histologically:
- presence of polypod plugs of loose connective tissue within alveoli/bronchioles - granuloma formation and organising pneumonia

acute presentation:
- inhalation of antigenic dust in SENSITISED individual -> systemic symptoms (fever, chills, chest pain, SoB, cough) within hours of exposure, usually settle by following day. progresses to chronic EAA

chronic presentation:
- progressive persistent productive cough and SoB, finger clubbing and severe weight loss

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57
Q

squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

A
  • risk factors; M>F, strongest correlation with smoking
  • highest rate of p53/c-myc mutations
  • usually proximal bronchi, local spread with late metastasis. less responsive to chemo
  • histology: keratinisation, intercellular prickles (desmosomes)
  • cytology: squamous cells
  • there are a variety of subtypes e.g., papillary, basaloid. it is associated with cavitation and hypercalcaemia due to paraneoplastic syndrome (PTHrp secretion)
  • progression: epithelium -> hyperplasia -> squamous metaplasia -> angiosquamous dysplasia -> carcinoma in situ -> invasive carcinoma
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58
Q

adenocarcinoma of the lung

A
  • most common in women and non-smokers
  • malignant epithelial tumour with glandular differentiation or mucin production
  • tumour occurs peripherally and metastasises early
  • histology: glandular differentiation (gland formation and mucin production)
  • cytology - cells containing mucin vacuoles. molecular - EGFR mutations
  • progression; atypical adenomatous hyperplasia -> non-mucinous BAC -> mixed pattern adenocarcinoma
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59
Q

small cell carcinoma of the lung

A
  • usually occurs centrally, proximal bronchi
  • arising from neuroendocrine cells. associated with ectopic ACTH secretion, Lambert-Eaton, SIADH
  • histology: small, poorly differentiated “oat cells”
  • highly malignant, metastasise early, usually by diagnosis commonly to bone, adrenal, liver, and brain
  • poor prognosis due to rapid metastases and late presentation - despite being chemo sensitive
  • it has a strong relationship to smoking. p53 and RB1 mutations are common
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60
Q

large cell carcinoma of the lung

A
  • poorly differentiated malignant epithelial tumour - large cells, large nuclei, prominent nucleoli
  • histology: no evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation
  • poor prognosis
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61
Q

paraneoplastic syndromes

A
  • ADH -> SIADH (small cell)
  • ACTH -> cushing’s (small cell)
  • PTH/PTHrP -> primary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcaemia and bone pain (squamous cell)
  • calcitonin -> hypocalcaemia
  • serotonin -> carcinoid syndrome (flushing + diarrhoea + bronchoconstriction)
  • bradykinin -> cough
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62
Q

what is mesothelioma

A

arise from either parietal or visceral pleura.
it spreads within the pleural space and usually associated with extensive pleural effusion, chest pain and dyspnoea.
there is a long latent period of 25-45 years for development of asbestos-related mesothelioma

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63
Q

what is pulmonary hypertension?

A

mean pulmonary arterial pressure > 25mmHg at rest

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64
Q

pulmonary hypertension classes

A

classified according to aetiology

class 1:
- pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic, hereditary, drugs/toxins, associated with congenital heart disease) - primary PAH most common in women aged 20-40 yrs

class 2:
- pulmonary hypertension due to left heart disease (systolic/diastolic dysfunction, valve disease)

class 3:
- pulmonary hypertension due to lung disease (e.g., ILD)

class 4:
- chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension i.e., due to many clots over time which cause fibrosis

class 5:
- pulmonary hypertension with unclear multifactorial mechanisms (metabolic disorders, systemic disorders, haematological disorders)

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65
Q

complications of pulmonary hypertension

A

RHF - venous congestion of organs (nutmeg liver), peripheral oedema

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66
Q

pulmonary oedema - main aetiology, histology, CXR findings

A

intra alveolar fluid accumulation leads to poor gas exchange

main aetiology:
- left heart failure

histology:
- acute - intra-alveolar fluid
- chronic - iron laden macrophages (“heart failure cells”)

CXR findings:
- alveolar opacification (batwing appearance), Kerley B-lines (cardiomegaly suggesting a cardiac cause), fluid in horizontal fissure

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67
Q

diffuse alveolar damage

A

= acute damage to alveoli leading to exudative inflammatory reaction, rapid onset of respiratory failure and often requiring ventilation in ITU:
- ARDS in adults (e.g., infection, drowning, burns, aspiration, trauma etc)
- HMD (hyaline membrane disease) in neonates (e.g., insufficient surfactant production in prems)
- histology: lung expanded, firm, plum-coloured, airless
- CXR: white out of all lung fields

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68
Q

reflux oesophagitis/GORD

A

commonest cause of oesophagitis

complications: ulceration, haemorrhage -> haematemesis/melaena, Barrett’s oesophagus, stricture, perforation

Los Angeles Classification of severity

Management: lifestyle changes (stop smoking, weight loss), PPI/H2 receptor antagonists

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69
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus

A

intestinal metaplasia of squamous mucosa -> columnar epithelium (have goblet cells) following chronic GORD -> upwards migration of the SCJ (squamo-columnar junction/z-line)

seen in 10% of those with symptomatic GORD

can lead to adenocarcinoma: metaplasia -> dysplasia -> Ca

NB: presence of goblet cells is intestinal metaplasia - confers even higher risk of development into Ca

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70
Q

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

associated with Barrett’s oesophagus so usually seen in distal 1/3

other risk factors including: smoking, obesity, prior radiation therapy
most common in Caucasians, M»F

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71
Q

squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma

A

associated with EtOH and smoking

other risk factors including: achalasia of cardia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, nutritional deficiencies, nitrosamines, HPV (in high prevalence areas), 6x more common in Afro-Caribbeans, M>F
usually found in middle 1/3 (50%), upper 1/3 (20%), lower 1/3 (30%)

presentation:
- progressive dysphagia (solids then fluids), odynophagia (pain), anorexia, severe weight loss

rapid growth and early spread (to LNs, liver and directly to proximal structures) -> palliative care

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72
Q

oesophageal varices

A

engorged dilated veins, usually due to portal HTN (back pressure)

Pt vomits large volumes of blood

emergency endoscopy -> sclerotherapy/banding

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73
Q

lining of stomach

A

gastric mucosa (no goblet cells), columnar epithelium (mucin secreting) and glands

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74
Q

gastritis

A

acute (neutrophils): insult e.g., aspirin, NSAIDs, corrosives (bleach), acute H. pylori, severe stress (burns)

chronic (lymphocytes and plasma cells):
- insult e.g., H. pylori tends to be antral, AI e.g., pernicious anaemia, EtOH, smoking

complications:
- if chronic, gastric ulcer formation
- chronic due to H. pylori may induce lymphoid tissue in the stomach and increase future risk of Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) lymphoma

it may also however result in intestinal metaplasia -> dysplasia -> cancer

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75
Q

gastric ulcer

A

breach through muscularis mucosa into submucosa (otherwise an erosion, not an ulcer)
epigastric pain +/- weight loss
worse with food (contrast with duodenal ulcer), relieved by antacids

RFs: H. pylori, smoking, NSAIDs, stress, delayed gastric emptying. occurs mainly in elderly

Ix: biopsy for H. pylori histology status. pucnhed out lesion with rolled margins

complications: anaemia (IDA) and perforation (erect CXR), malignancy

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76
Q

gastric cancer

A

higher incidence in Japan, China where more fermented/pickled food eaten.
>95% of tumours in stomach will be adenocarcinomas.

can be intestinal (well differentiated, goblet cells present following intestinal metaplasia)

diffuse (poorly differentiated, no gland formation - includes signet ring cell carcinoma)

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77
Q

gastric (MALT) lymphoma

A

caused by H. pylori - chronic antigen stimulation

management: remove cause (H. pylori using triple therapy - PPI, clarithromycin+amoxicillin)

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78
Q

dudoenal ulcer

A

4 times more common than gastric ulcer
- epigastric pain, worse at night
- relieved by food and milk
- occurs in younger adults

RFs: H. pylori, drugs, aspirin, NSAIDs, steroids, smoking, drugs, acid secretion

complications: anaemia (IDA) and perforation (erect CXR)

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79
Q

coeliac disease

A

T cell mediated autoimmune disease (DQ2, DQ8 HLA status)

presentation:
- young children (paeds) and irish women (EMQs)

symptoms (of malabsorption):
- steatorrhoea, abdo pain, bloating, N&V, failure to thrive, rash (dermatitis herpetiformis)
- also associated w hyposplenism so may need extra vaccines

Ddx:
- tropical sprue

serological tests:
- anti-endomysial Ab (best sen and spec), anti-tissue transglutaminase (IgA), anti-gliadin (poor marker of disease control)

gold standard Ix:
- upper GI endoscopy and duodenal biopsy (villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes) while eating gluten
NB normal villous:crypt ratio is 2:1

management:
- gluten free diet

NB: around 10% progress to duodenal T-cell lymphoma (EATL) if not treated adequately

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80
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease

A

absence of ganglion cells in myenteric plexus (80% males)
- presents with symptoms and signs of obstruction in young babies, mostly males
- failure to pass meconium within first 48 hrs
- associated with Down’s syndrome (2%)
- genetics - RET proto-oncogene Cr10+
- gold standard Ix: full thickness biopsy; hypertrophied nerve fibres, no ganglia
- treatment: resection of affected (constricted) segment and pull-through of normal functioning bowel

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81
Q

extra-GI manifestations of IBD

A
  • malabsorption & Fe def. anaemia -> angular stomatitis
  • eyes: anterior uveitis (iris & ciliary body), conjuctivitis
  • skin: erythema nodosum (tender bruise-like swellings on shins), pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema multiforme, digital clubbing
  • joints: migratory asymmetrical polyarthropathy of large joints (15%), sacroilitis, myositis, ankylosing spondylitis
  • liver: pericholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis (UC>CD), steatosis
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82
Q

Crohn’s - management

A

mild attack:
- prednisolone

severe attacks:
- IV hydrocortisone, metronidazole

additional therapies:
- azathioprine, methotrexate, infliximab

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83
Q

ulcerative colitis - management

A

mild:
- prednisolone + mesalazine (5 ASA)

moderate:
- prednisolone + 5 ASA + steroid enema bd

severe:
- admit, NBM IV fluids and IV hydrocortisone, rectal steroids

for remission:
- all 5-ASA (1st line), azathioprine (2nd line)

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84
Q

clostridium difficile - result of which antibiotics? investigations? management?

A

4Cs: ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins, co-amoxiclav, clindamycin

Ix: stool culture/toxin assay

Mx: vancomycin PO
- also put into side room, can use metronidazole

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85
Q

diverticular disease

A
  • low fibre diet
  • high intraluminal pressure results in outpouchings at ‘weak points’ in wall of bowel (seen on barium enema CT or endoscopy)
  • 90% occur in L colon
  • presence of diverticula = diverticulosis
  • often asymptomatic, sometimes PR bleed
  • complications: diverticulitis, fever & peritonism, gross perforation, fistula, obstruction (due to fibrosis)
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86
Q

carcinoid syndrome

A
  • diverse group of tumours of enterochromaffin cell origin, produce 5-HT (serotonin)
  • commonly found in the bowel (but also lung, ovaries, testes)
  • usually slow growing

carcinoid syndrome:
- bronchoconstriction
- flushing
- diarrhoea

carcinoid crisis:
- life threatening vasodilation, hypotension, tachycardia, bronchoconstriction, hyperglycaemia

Ix: 24hr urine 5-HIAA (main metabolite of serotonin)

Mx: ocreotide (somatostatin analogue)

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87
Q

adenomas (neoplastic polyps) in colon and rectum

A
  • benign dysplastic lesions that are the precursor lesion to most adenocarcinomas (although most remain benign)
  • found in 50% >50yrs in Western world (very common)
  • mostly asymptomatic so need regular surveillance if over 3.4cm 45% malignant change
  • classified based on architecture as tubular, tubovillous or villous
  • villous adenoma (rare) -> hypoproteinaemic hypokalaemia because they leak large amounts of protein and K
  • large size is most important risk factor for malignancy, in addition to degree of dysplasia and increased villous component
  • adenoma -> carcinoma progression ‘classical chromosomal instability sequence:
    a. normal colon -> at risk mucosa after “first hit” mutation in 1st copy of APC gene
    b. at risk -> adenoma after “second hit” mutation to remaining APC gene
    c. progression to carcinoma follows activation of KRAS, LOF mutations of p53
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88
Q

hamartomatous polyp (non-neoplastic)

A
  • found sporadically in some genetic/acquired syndromes
  • juvenile polyps are focal malformations of mucosa and lamina propria, vast majority in those <5yrs old, mostly in rectum -> bleeding
  • usually solitary, but up to 100 found in juvenile polyposis (AD) that may require colectomy to stop haemorrhage
  • also seen in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (AD-LKB1) = multiple polyps, mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation, freckles around mouth, palms and soles
  • have increased risk of intussusception and of malignancy -> regular surveillance of GI tract, pelvis and gonads
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89
Q

Duke’s staging for colorectal cancer

A

A: confined to mucosa
- 5yr survival > 95%

B1: extending into muscularis propria
- 5yr survival 67%

B2: transmural invasion, no LN involved
- 5yr survival 54%

C1: extending to muscularis propria, with LN metastases
- 5yr survival 43%

C2: transmural invasion, with LN metastases
- 5yr survival 23%

D: distant metastases
- 5yr survival <10%

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90
Q

management of colorectal cancer

A

surgery

rectal cancer/low sigmoid cancer:
- <1-2cm above anal sphincter (lower third of rectum) -> abdomino-perineal resection
- >1-2cm above anal sphincter -> anterior resection

sigmoid cancer -> sigmoid colectomy

descending colon and distal transverse -> left hemicolectomy

caecum, ascending colon and proximal transverse -> right hemicolectomy

transverse colon -> extended right hemicolectomy

radiotherapy: post-op to decrease local recurrence

chemotherapy in palliation: 5-FU (fluorouracil)

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91
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A
  1. 70% AD mutation in APC tumour suppressor gene (C5q1), 30% AR mutation in DNA mismatch repair genes
  2. present 10-15yrs -> 100 adenomatous polyps required for diagnosis, usually 100-1000s seen. ALL will -> adenocarcinoma if left untreated by 30yrs therefore most have prophylactic colectomy
  3. increased risk of neoplasia elsewhere e.g.: ampulla of Vater and stomach
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92
Q

what is Gardners syndrome?

A

subtype of FAP with extraintestinal features e.g., osteoma of the skull, dental caries

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93
Q

hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer/Lynch syndrome (HNPCC)

A
  • AD mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes
  • carcinomas usually in right colon, few polyps but fast progression to malignancy therefore present usually <50yrs
  • associated with extra-colonic cancers also: endometrial, ovarian, small bowel, transitional cell and stomach carcinoma

these patients will need regular monitoring and likely a total colectomy eventually

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94
Q

metabolic syndrome

A

collection of conditions that increase risk of IHD
- fasting hyperglycaemia > 6mmol/l
- BP > 140/90
- central obesity (>94cm in M, >80cm F)
- dyslipidaemia: decreased HDL cholesterol <1mmol/l & increased TGs>2mmol/l
- microalbuminaemia

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95
Q

thesholds to diagnose DM

A

fasting plasma glucose > 7mmol/L or random plasma glucose > 11.1 mmol/L or HbA1c > 48 mmol/L

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96
Q

complications of diabetes

A

macrovascular
- cardiac - IHD
- PVD - claudication, change in colour/temp, poor healing ulcers
- cerebral - CVA

microvascular
- glomerulonephritis - renal
- ulcers - peripheral neuropathy
- ocular - diabetic retinopathy

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97
Q

causes of acute pancreatitis

A

‘I GET SMASHED’
- I - idiopathic
- G - gallstones
- E - ethanol
- T - trauma
- S - steroids
- M - mumps
- A - autoimmune
- S - scorpion venom
- H - hyperlipidaemia
- E - ERCP
- D - drugs e.g., thiazides

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98
Q

acute pancreatitis presentation

A

severe epigastric (or central) pain radiating to back, relieved by sitting forward, vomiting prominent
NB: amylase only transiently increased. serum lipase is more sensitive

can result in formation of pseudocyst (a pathological collection of fluid), associated with alcoholic pancreatitis or abscess

histology - coagulative necrosis

patterns of damage:
- periductal: necrosis of acinar cells near ducts, obstructive causes
- perilobular - necroses of edges of lobules, ischaemic causes
- panlobular - combination o f both

other complications can include shock, hypoglycaemia and hypocalcaemia as digestive enzymes react with visceral fat causing precipitation of calcium soaps (fat necrosis)

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99
Q

chronic pancreatitis - causes, presentation, histology

A

causes:
- alcoholism (most common), cystic fibrosis, hereditary, pancreatic duct obstruction e.g., stones/tumour, autoimmune (IgG4 produced by plasma cells)

presentation:
- epigastric pain radiating to back, malabsorption (weight loss and steatorrhoea) and secondary DM (malabsorption due to lack of enzymes to digest food)

histology:
- very similar to Ca pancreas
- fibrosis and loss of exocrine tissue parenchyma, duct dilatation with thick secretions, calcification

complications:
- pseudocysts, diabetes, pancreatic cancer

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100
Q

risk factors for gallstones

A
  • increasing age
  • F>M
  • OCP
  • disorders of bile metabolism
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101
Q

most common pancreatic malignancy

A

ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

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102
Q

ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas - site, RFs, clinical features, Ix, Mx

A

site:
- head of pancreas

RFs:
- smoking, diet, genetics e.g., FAP, HNPCC

clinical features:
- weight loss (cachexia) and anorexia
- upper abdo and back pain (chronic, persistent and severe)
- jaundice (painless), pruritis, steatorrhoea
- DM
- trousseau’s syndrome (25%) - recurrent superficial thrombophlebitis
- ascites
- abdominal mass
- Virchow’s node
- Courvoisier’s sign

Ix:
- bloods: low Hb, raised BR, raised Ca
- CT/MRI/ERCP
- CA19.9 > 70Iu/mL

Mx:
- palliative chemo (5-FU)
- surgery (15% of cases): Whipple’s procedure - surgical resection
- prognosis v poor: 5yr survival rate < 5%

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103
Q

multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)

A

a group of genetic syndromes where there are functioning hormone-producing tumours in multiple organs e.g.,
- MEN 1= ‘PPP’, parathyroid hyperplasia/adenoma, Pancreatic endocrine tumour (often phaeochromocytoma), pituitary adenoma
- MEN 2A = parathyroid, thyroid, phaeochromocytoma
- MEN 2B = medullary thyroid, phaeochromocytoma, acoustic neuroma, marfanoid phenotype

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104
Q

pancreas - acinar cell carcinoma

A

rare, older adults

presentation:
- non-specific symptoms, abdo pain, weight loss, nausea & diarrhoea
- about 10% get multifocal fat necrosis and polyarthralgia due to lipase secretion

histopathology:
- neoplastic epithelial cells with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm
- positive immunoreactivity for lipase, trypsin and chymotrypsin

prognosis:
- median survival is 18 months from diagnosis
- 5yr survival <10%

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105
Q

pancreatic malformations

A

ectopic pancreas - esp. stomach, small intestine

pancreas divisum - failure of fusion of dorsal and ventral buds, increased risk of pancreatitis

annular pancreas - can present with duodenal obstruction approx. 1yo

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106
Q

3 zones of liver cells

A

zone 1 (closest to the portal triad)
- periportal hepatocytes receive more oxygen and affected first in viral hepatitis

zone 2
- mid zone

zone 3 (close to terminal hepatic vein)
- perivenular hepatocytes are the most mature and metabolically active. zone 3 has most liver enzymes and so most sensitive to metabolic toxins and ischaemia

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107
Q

functions of the liver

A
  1. metabolism
    - involved in glycolysis, glycogen storage, glucose synthesis, amino acid synthesis, fatty acid synthesis and lipoprotein metabolism
    - drug metabolism
  2. protein synthesis
    - makes all circulating proteins (except gamma globulins) including albumin, fibrinogen and coagulation factors
  3. storage
    - glycogen, vitamins A, D and B12 in large amounts, small amounts of vitamin K, folate, iron and copper
  4. hormone metabolism
    - activates vitamin D
    - conjugation and excretion of steroid hormones (oestrogen/glucocorticoids)
    - peptide hormone metabolism (insulin, GH, PTH)
  5. bile synthesis
    - 600-1000ml daily
  6. immune function
    - antigens from gut reach liver via portal circulation
    - phagocytosis by Kupffer cells
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108
Q

histopathology of acute hepatitis

A

spotty necrosis (small foci of inflammation and infiltrates)

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109
Q

histopathology of chronic hepatitis

A
  1. portal inflammation
  2. interface hepatitis (piecemeal necrosis) - cannot see the border between the portal tract and parenchyma
  3. lobular inflammation
  4. bridge formed from the portal vein to central vein (critical stage in the evolution of hepatitis to cirrhosis). this causes blood to bypass hepatocytes and reduced function of liver (intrahepatic shunting) - loss of liver detoxification and development of hepatic encephalopathy
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110
Q

histopathology of a cirrhotic liver

A
  • hepatocyte necrosis
  • fibrosis
  • nodules of regenerating hepatocytes
  • disturbance of vascular architecture
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111
Q

consequences of fibrosis in the liver (cirrhosis)

A

loss of functional tissue
- reduced detoxification: encephalopathy
- decreased synthesis: bleeding, hypogonadism, osteodystrophy, ascites

increased resistance:
- portal hypertension: oesophageal varices, caput medusae, anorectal varices

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112
Q

major causes of cirrhosis

A
  1. alcoholic liver disease
  2. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
  3. chronic viral hepatitis (hep B/C/D)
  4. autoimmune hepatitis
  5. biliary causes: primary biliary cirrhosis & primary sclerosing cholangitis
  6. genetic causes:
    a. haemochromatosis - HFE gene Chr 6
    b. Wilson’s disease - ATP7B Chr 13
    c. alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency (A1AT)
    d. galactosaemia
    e. glycogen storage disease
  7. drugs e.g., methotrexate
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113
Q

micronodular vs macronodular liver cirrhosis

A

micronodular (nodules < 3mm) - uniform liver involvement
- caused by: alcoholic hepatitis, biliary tract disease

macronodular (nodules > 3mm) - variable nodule size:
- caused by: viral hepatitis, Wilson’s disease, alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency

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114
Q

modified Child’s Pugh Score (ABCDE)

A

indicates prognosis in liver cirrhosis and takes into account albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin times, presence of ascites and encephalopathy

  • total score <7 = Child’s Pugh A (45% 5yr survival)
  • total score 7-9 = Child’s Pugh B (20% 5yr survival)
  • total score 10+ = Child Pugh C (<20% 5yr survival)
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115
Q

hepatic steatosis (fatty liver) - macroscopic, microscopic characteristics

A

macroscopic:
- larger, pale, yellow and greasy liver

microscopic:
- accumulation of fat droplets in hepatocytes (=steatosis)
- chronic exposure -> fibrosis (late stage)
- fully reversible if alcohol avoided

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116
Q

alcoholic hepatitis - macroscopic, microscopic features

A

macroscopic:
- large, fibrotic liver

microscopic:
- hepatocyte ballooning (they get bigger like balloons) and necrosis due to accumulation of fat, water and proteins
- Mallory Denk Bodies (clumped cytoskeleton)
- fibrosis
- seen acutely after night of heavy drinking. ranges from asymptomatic to fulminant liver failure. each episode has 10-20% mortality

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117
Q

alcoholic cirrhosis - macroscopic, microscopic features

A

macroscopic:
- yellow-tan, fatty, enlarged
- transforms into shrunken, non-fatty, brown organ

microscopic:
- micronodular cirrhosis. i.e.g, small nodules + bands of fibrous tissue

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118
Q

non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

A
  • = hepatic steatosis in non-alcoholics. histologically looks very similar to alcoholic hepatitis
  • most common cause of chronic liver disease in West
  • mainly in obese individuals with hyperlipidaemia/metabolic syndrome. diabetes is also a risk factor
  • NAFLD includes:
    a. simple steatosis: fatty infiltration, relatively benign
    b. non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH):
  • steatosis + hepatitis (fatty infiltration + inflammation)
  • can progress to cirrhosis
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119
Q

autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • common with other autoimmune diseases e.g, coeliac, SLE, RA, thyroiditis, Sjogren’s, IC
  • 78% female - young and postmenopausal
  • associated with HLA-DR3
  • cells present in histology are plasma cells
  • type 1: ANA (antinuclear Ig), anti-Sm (anti-smooth muscle Ig), anti-actin Ig, anti-soluble liver antigen Ig
  • type 2: anti-LKM Ig (anti liver-kidney-microsomal Ig)
  • treatment: immune suppression with steroids until transplant, BUT disease returns it up to 40%
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120
Q

primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

A
  • autoimmune inflammatory destruction of small/medium sized intrahepatic bile ducts -> cholestasis -> SLOW development of cirrhosis over many years
  • F>M 10:1
  • peak incidence at 40-50 yrs
  • increased serum ALP, increased cholesterol, increased IgM, hyperbilirubinaemia (late)
  • anti-mitochondrial antibodies in >90% (high yield)
  • US scan shows no bile duct dilatation
  • histology: bile duct loss with granulomas (high yield)
  • presents with fatigue, pruritus and abdominal discomfort
  • secondary symptoms inc. skin pigmentation, xanthelasma, steatorrhoea, vit D malabsorption, inflammatory arthropathy
  • can treat with ursodeoxycholic acid in early phase -> remission in 25%
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121
Q

primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

A
  • inflammation and obliterative fibrosis of extrahepatic and intrahepatic bile ducts -> multi-focal stricture formation with dilation of preserved segments
  • M>F
  • peak incidence at 40-50 yrs
  • associated with IBD (esp UC)
  • increased serum ALP, several associated auto-Ig, particularly p-ANCA
  • US scan: bile duct dilatation
  • ERCP: shows beading of bile ducts
  • strictures along the bile duct look like necklace beads on ERCP
  • histology: onion skinning fibrosis - concentric fibrosis (high yield)
  • increased incidence of cholangiocarcinoma
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122
Q

name 3 genetic causes of cirrhosis

A
  • haemochromatosis
  • wilson’s
  • alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
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123
Q

haemochromatosis - age, pathophysiology, histology, signs/symptoms, investigations, treatment

A

age:
- 40-50 yrs

pathophysiology:
- autosomal recessive
- mutated HFE gene at 6p21.3 -> increased Fe gut absorption which deposits in liver, heart, pancreas, adrenals, pituitary, joints, skin -> fibrosis

histology:
- Fe deposits in liver - stains with Prussian blue stain

signs/symptoms:
- skin bronzing (melanin deposition)
- diabetes
- hepatomegaly with micronodular cirrhosis
- cardiomyopathy
- hypogonadism
- pseudogout

investigations:
- increased Fe & ferritin
- transferrin saturation > 45%
- low TIBC

treatment:
- venesection
- desferrioxamine
- 30% with cirrhosis -> HCC

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124
Q

wilson’s disease - age, pathophysiology, histology, signs/symptoms, investigations, treatment

A

age:
- 11-14 yrs

pathophysiology:
- autosomal recessive
- mutated gene ATP7B: encodes copper transporting ATPase expressed on canalicular membrane therefore -> reduced biliary Cu excretion and depositions in liver, CNS, iris

histology:
- copper stains with rhodanine stain
- mallory bodies and fibrosis on microscopy

signs/symptoms:
- liver disease: acute hepatitis, fulminant liver failure or cirrhosis
- neuro disease: parkinsonism, psychosis, dementia (basal ganglia involvement)
- Kayser Fleisher rings: copper deposits in Descemet’s membrane in cornea

investigations:
- low serum caeruloplasmin
- low serum copper
- increased urinary copper

treatment:
- lifelong penicillamine
- good prognosis with early treatment but any neuro damage is permanent and may require liver transplant

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125
Q

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

pathophysiology:
- autosomal dominant
- failure to secrete A1AT in blood -> A1AT accumulates in hepatocytes -> intracytoplasmic inclusions -> hepatitis
- lack of A1AT in lungs -> emphysema

histology:
- intracytoplasmic globules of A1AT which stain with Periodic acid Schiff

signs/symptoms:
- Kids: neonatal jaundice
- Adults: emphysema and chronic liver disease

investigations:
- low serum A1AT
- absent alpha-globulin band on electrophoresis

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126
Q

benign liver tumours

A

hepatic adenoma
- associated with OCP
- present with abdo pain/intraperitoneal bleeding
- resection if symptomatic, >5cm or if no shrinkage when stopping OCP

haemangioma:
- most common benign lesion
- no Rx

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127
Q

malignant liver tumours

A
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
  • cholangiocarcinoma
  • haemangiosarcoma
  • hepatoblastoma
  • secondary tumours
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128
Q

liver: hepatocellular carcinoma

A

causes: most commonly occurs in patients with chronic liver disease - closely linked with viral hepatitis, alcoholic cirrhosis, haemochromatosis, NAFLD, alfatoxin-B1, androgenic steroids

screening in cirrhotic patients with 6 monthly USS

inv: alpha fetoprotein, USS

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129
Q

liver: cholangiocarcinoma

A
  • adenocarcinomas arising from bile ducts
  • 10% of liver tumours
  • can be intra or extrahepatic
  • poor prognosis
  • 90% associated with gallstones

causes: primary sclerosing cholangitis, parasitic liver disease, chronic liver disease, congenital liver abnormalities, Lynch syndrome type II

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130
Q

haemangiosarcoma - liver

A

= cancer of the vascular epithelium
highly invasive

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131
Q

hepatoblastoma

A

occurs in children/infants - presents with abdominal mass
originates from immature liver precursor cells

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132
Q

secondary tumours - liver

A
  • most common malignant liver lesion
  • usually from GI tract, breast or bronchus
  • usually multiple
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133
Q

main types of renal stones

A

calcium oxalate (75%)
- too much calcium absorption from the gut
- intrinsic renal problems - impaired calcium absorption from proximal tubule

magnesium ammonium phosphate (15%)
- triple stones
- commonly due to urease producing organisms which alkanise urine promoting precipitation of magnesium ammonium phosphate salts
- often form ‘staghorn calculi’ - very large and painful

uric acid (5%)
- in patients with hyperuricaemia (gout/rapid cell turnover)

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134
Q

management of renal stones

A
  • small stones may pass spontaneously
  • large stones may be removed by endoscopic or percutaneous methods or using lithotripsy
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135
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A
  • dihydrotestosterone-mediated hyperplasia of prostatic stromal and epithelial cells, resulting in formation of large nodules
  • nodule formation compresses prostatic urethra leading to outflow tract obstruction
  • symptoms: difficulty urinating, retention, frequency, nocturia, overflow dribbling
  • histology: nodule formation, prostatic epithelial ducts with duct spaces
  • management: TURP, 5alpha-reductase inhibitors, alpha blocker (tamsulosin, aware of BP effects)
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136
Q

prostate cancer

A
  • adenocarcinoma is the commonest form in men over 50y
  • arises from precursor lesion PIN (prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia)
  • risk factors: age, race, family history, and hormonal and environmental influences
  • classically arises in peripheral zone of gland and neoplastic tissue is firm
  • local spread to the bladder and haematogenous spread to bone (pathological fractures)
  • grading: gleason system, based on degree of differentiation and glandular patterns
  • diagnosis: history, examination, PSA (over 4ng/ml is indicative)
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137
Q

prostate cancer - Gleason scoring

A
  • 1-5 based on differentiation (5 is worst - least differentiated and most aggressive)
  • take a biopsy and classify the most common pattern seen and the worst pattern seen
  • add these 2 numbers together to get a result out of 10
  • expressed as X+Y=Z
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138
Q

testicular tumours

A

most arise from a precursor lesion - intratubular germ cell neoplasia

  • seminoma - most common type of germinal tumour. peak age: 30s. radiosensitive
  • teratoma - occur at any age from infancy to adult life. regarded as malignant when occurs in the post-pubertal male. chemo sensitive. biologic markers for germ cell tumours: AFP, HCG and LDH
  • embryonal carcinoma - resembles embryonic tissue
  • yolk sac tumour
  • choriocarcinoma
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139
Q

germ cell testicular tumour types

A
  • seminoma
  • spermatocytic seminoma
  • embryonal carcinoma
  • yolk sac tumour
  • choriocarcinoma
  • teratoma
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140
Q

non germ cell testicular tumour

A
  • leydig cell tumour (derived from stroma)
  • sertoli cell tumour (derived from sex cord)
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141
Q

testicular tumours management

A
  • orchidectomy +/- lymph node dissection
  • for grade I (locally invasive) and above - Bleomycin, Eoposide and cisPlatin (BEP)
  • good prognosis even with metastatic disease (90% 5-year survival)
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142
Q

benign renal tumours

A

papillary adenoma
- renal epithelial tumour with a papillary architecture
- often incidental
- <15mm
- histology: bland epithelial cells growing in a papillary or tubopapilliary pattern
- well circumscribed cortical nodules

oncocytoma
- oncocytic renal epithelial neoplasm
- often incidental
- macroscopic - mahogany brown
- microscopic - sheets of oncolytic cells, pink cytoplasm, form nests of cells

angiomyolipoma
- mesenchymal tumour composed of fat, bloods, vessels and muscle
- histology: fat spaces, thick blood vessels and spindle cell components

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143
Q

malignant renal tumours

A
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • nephroblastoma/wilm’s tumour
  • transitional cell carcinoma
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144
Q

renal cell carcinoma

A

most common - epithelial tumour
RFs - smoking, HTN, obesity, long-term dialysis, genetics (Von Hippel Lindau syndrome)
presents with painless haematuria

clear cell (70%)
- macroscopic - golden yellow with haemorrhagic areas
- microscopic - nests of epithelium with clear cytoplasm

papillary (15%)
- macroscopic - fragile, friable brown tumour
- microscopic - papillary/tubopapillary growth pattern >15mm

chromophobe (5%)
- macroscopic - well circumscribed, solid brown tumour
- microscopic - sheets of large cells, distinct cell borders

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145
Q

nephroblastoma / wilm’s tumour

A

childhood renal neoplasm, presenting as abdominal mass
2nd most common childhood malignancy

microscopic:
1. small round blue cells (very undifferentiated)
2. epithelial component - cells trying to differentiate and form primitive renal tubules

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146
Q

transitional cell carcinoma (renal tumour)

A

epithelial neoplasm arising from the urothelial tract (anywhere from renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra)

most commonly in the bladder and associated with smoking.
most present with painless haematuria.

  • non-invasive papillary urothelial carcinoma
  • frond like growths projecting from bladder wall, often multifocal
  • microscopic - papillary fronds lined by urothelium
  • can either be low grade or high grade (higher risk of progression to invasive)
  • invasive urothelial carcinoma. tumour with invasive behaviour. usually grow as solid masses, fixed to tissue
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147
Q

bladder tumours

A

transitional cell (urothelial) tumours
- 90% of all bladder tumours
- male:female = 3:1
- 80% occur between 50-80 yrs

squamous cell carcinoma
- more frequent in countries with endemic urinary schistosomiasis

adenocarcinoma
- rare, arising from extensive intestinal metaplasia or from urachal remnant

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148
Q

diseases affecting the glomerulus of the kidney

A

nephrotic syndrome:
primary
- minimal change disease
- membranous glomerular disease
- focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

secondary
- e.g., diabetes, amyloidosis, SLE

nephritic syndrome:
- acute post-infectious (aka Post-streptococcal)
- IgA nephropathy (aka Berger disease)
- rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
- Alport’s syndrome (aka hereditary nephritis)
- thin basement membrane disease (aka Benign familial haeematuria)

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149
Q

diseases affecting tubules & interstitium of kidneys

A
  • acute tubular necrosis - can be caused by hypoperfusion, toxins (e.g., NSAIDs and aminoglycosides) and haem or myoglobin
  • tubulointerstitial nephritis
150
Q

diseases affecting renal blood vessels

A

thrombotic microangiopathies (haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP))

151
Q

what is nephrotic syndrome

A

nephrotic syndrome is not a single disease but a constellation of features that can be caused by several renal diseases. it is characterised by the following triad:
1. proteinuria (>3g/24h/protein:creatinine ratio > 300mg/mmol)
2. hypoalbuminaemia (<30 g/L)
3. oedema

other features: hyperlipidaemia, thrombotic disease

key words in SBAs:
- swelling (classically periorbital in children)
- frothy urine (occurs due to proteinuria)

152
Q

primary causes of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • minimal change disease
  • membranous glomerular disease
  • focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
153
Q

minimal change disease - epidemiology, light microscopy, electron microscopy, immunofluorescence, response to steroids, prognosis, miscellaneous, management

A

epidemiology:
- most common in children (75% cases) with second peak in elderly

light microscopy:
- no changes

electron microscopy:
- loss of podocyte foot processes

immunofluorescence:
- no immune deposits

response to steroids:
- 90% respond

prognosis:
- <5% ESRF

miscellaneous:
- possible trigger - recent allergic reaction
- associations: eczema, asthma

management:
- 1st line: steroids
- 2nd line: cyclosporin

154
Q

membranous glomerular disease - epidemiology, light microscopy, electron microscopy, immunofluorescence, response to steroids, prognosis, miscellaneous, management

A

epidemiology:
- common in adults (30%)

light microscopy:
- diffuse glomerular basement membrane thickening

electron microscopy:
- loss of podocyte foot processes, subepithelial deposits = “spikey”

immunofluorescence:
- immune complex deposits along entire GBM

response to steroids:
- poor

prognosis:
- 40% ESRF after 2-20 yrs

miscellaneous:
- can be primary or secondary to SLE, infection, drugs and malignancy
- antibodies against phospholipase A2 are present in 75%

management:
- steroids
- ACEi/ARB to control BP

155
Q

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) - epidemiology, light microscopy, electron microscopy, immunofluorescence, response to steroids, prognosis, miscellaneous, management

A

epidemiology:
- common in adults (30%)
- most common in Afro-Caribbean people

light microscopy:
- focal and segmental glomerular consolidation and scarring, hyalinosis

electron microscopy:
- loss of podocyte foot processes

immunofluorescence:
- no immune deposits

response to steroids:
- 50% respond

prognosis:
- 50% ESRF in 10yrs

miscellaneous:
- primary but can be secondary to obesity, HIV, drugs (lithium, heroin), lymphoma

management:
- steroids
- ACEi/ARB to control BP
- calcineurin inhibitors = 2nd line

156
Q

secondary causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

diabetes
amyloidosis

157
Q

nephrotic syndrome secondary to diabetes histology

A
  • diffuse glomerular basement membrane thickening
  • mesangial matrix nodules - aka Kimmelstiel Wilson nodules

[classically found in Asians, first presents with microalbuminuria]

158
Q

nephrotic syndrome secondary to amyloidosis histology

A

apple green birefringence with Congo red stain

NB:
- AA (acute phase protein) amyloidosis: associated with chronic inflammation e.g., RA, chronic infections (TB)
- AL (light chain) amyloidosis: most common from multiple myeloma
- clinical cues of amyloidosis - macroglossia, heart failure, hepatomegaly

159
Q

diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • urine dip - proteinuria, NO haematuria
  • urine PCR. >300mg/mmol
  • serum albumin - low
  • total cholesterol - high
  • immunoglobulins - low
  • renal biopsy - diagnostic investigation of choice in adults (avoided in children)
160
Q

symptoms of nephritic syndrome

A

a manifestation of glomerular inflammation (i.e., glomerulonephritis (GN))

syndrome characterised by PHAROH
- proteinuria (less than nephrotic syndrome)
- haematuria (coke-coloured urine)
- azootemia - (high urea and creatinine)
- red cell casts (in urine - these are red cells that have clumped together & have leaked out into the tubules)
- oliguria
- hypertension

161
Q

causes of nephritic syndrome

A
  • acute postinfectious (post streptococcal) glomerulonephritis
  • IgA nephropathy (berger disease)
  • rapidly progressive (crescentic) GN - more severe
162
Q

acute postinfectious (post streptococcal) glomerulonephritis

A
  • occur 1-3 weeks after streptococcal throat infection or impetigo (usually Lancefield group A alpha-haemolytic strep = strep pyogenes)
  • glomerular damage thought to be due to immune complex deposition
  • haematuria (red cells casts), proteinuria, oedema, HTN
  • bloods: high ASOT titre, low C3
    biopsy:
  • light microscope (LM): increased cellularity of glomeruli
  • fluorescence microscope (FM): granular deposits of IgG and C3 in GBM
  • electron microscope (EM): subendothelial humps

management: supportive

163
Q

IgA nephropathy (berger disease)

A
  • commonest GN worldwide
  • more common in patients of East/South Asian descent
  • deposition of IgA immune complexes in glomeruli
  • presents 1-2 days (earlier than Acute postinfectious GN!)
    after an URTI with frank haematuria
  • main symptoms are persistent or recurrent frank haematuria, or asymptomatic microscopic haematuria. other symptoms of nephritic syndrome are not prominent
  • can present with an associated vasculitic rash
  • can progress to ESRF
  • bloods: increased IgA
  • biopsy: immunofluorescence shows granular deposition of IgA and C3 in mesangium
  • rule of thirds: 1/3rd are asymptomatic, 1/3rd develop CKD, 1/3rd develop progressive CKD requiring dialysis/transplantation
164
Q

rapidly progressive (crescentic) GN - more severe

A

most aggressive form of GN - can cause ESRF within weeks
- presents as nephritic syndrome, but oliguria and renal failure are more pronounced
classification based on immunological findings:
- type 1: anti-GBM antibody (aka Goodpasture’s disease)
- type 2: immune complex mediated
- type 3: pauci-immune/ANCA-associated

regardless of cause, all are characterised by presence of crescents in glomeruli.
NB: crescents = proliferation of macrophages & parietal cells in Bowman’s space which pushes glomerulus to one side

165
Q

type 1 rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis - pathogenesis, causes, light microscopy, fluorescence microscopy, additional organ involvement

A

pathogenesis:
- anti-GBM antibody against COL4-A3 (collagen type IV)

causes:
- goodpasture’s syndrome
- HLA-DRB1 association

light microscopy:
- crescents

fluorescence microscopy:
- linear deposition of IgG in GBM

additional organ involvement:
- lungs - pulmonary haemorrhage

166
Q

type 2 rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis - pathogenesis, causes, light microscopy, fluorescence microscopy, additional organ involvement

A

pathogenesis:
- immune complex mediated

causes:
- SLE, IgA nephropathy, post infectious GN, HSP, Alport’s syndrome

light microscopy:
- crescents

fluorescence microscopy:
- granular (lumpy bumpy) IgG immune complex deposition on GBM/mesangium

additional organ involvement:
- often limited (except in SLE)

167
Q

type 3 rapidly progressive (crescentic) GN - pathogenesis, causes, light microscopy, fluorescence microscopy, additional organ involvement

A

pathogenesis:
- pauci-immune i.e., lack of anti-GBM or immune complex

causes:
c-ANCA:
- Wegener’s granulomatosis
p-ANCA:
- microscopic polyangiitis

light microscopy:
- crescents

fluorescence microscopy:
- lack of/scanty immune complex deposition

additional organ involvement:
- vasculitis - particularly presenting as skin rashes or pulmonary haemorrhage

168
Q

hereditary nephritis (alport’s syndrome)

A
  • hereditary glomerular disease caused by mutation in type IV collagen alpha 5 chain X linked
  • nephritic syndrome + sensorineural deafness + eye disorders (lens dislocation, cataracts)
  • presents at 5-20yrs with nephritic syndrome progressing to ESRF
169
Q

thin basement membrane disease (benign familial haematuria)

A
  • very rarely a cause of nephritic syndrome - normally exclusively causes an asymptomatic haematuria rather than nephritic sundrome
  • diffuse thinning of GBM caused by mutation in type IV collagen alpha 4 chain
  • autosomal dominant
  • quite common - prevalence is 5%
  • usually asymptomatic - incidentally diagnosed with microscopic haematuria
  • renal function usually normal
  • excellent prognosis
170
Q

differentials for asymptomatic haematuria

A
  1. thin basement membrane disease (benign familial haematuria)
  2. IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
  3. alport syndrome
171
Q

acute tubular injury (ATI)/acute tubular necrosis (ATN)

A

damage to tubular epithelial cells -> cells shed and block of tubules as casts -> reduced flow and increased haemodynamic pressure in nephron -> reduced pressure gradient across BM -> acute renal failure -> tubular glomerular feedback reduces blood supply to kidneys further

most common cause of acute renal failure

causes:
- hypovolaemia -> pre-renal ARF -> ischaemia of nephrons (EMQ: cured hypovolaemia but persistent ARF)
- nephrotoxins - drugs (aminoglycosides, NSAIDs), radiographic contarst agents, myoglobin (e.g., secondary to rhabdomyolysis), heavy metals

histopathology: necrosis of short segments of tubules

172
Q

tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

= a group of renal inflammatory disorders that involve the tubules and interstitium

  • acute pyelonephritis
  • chronic pyelonephritis and reflux nephropathy
  • acute interstitial nephritis
  • chronic interstitial nephritis / analgesic nephropathy
173
Q

acute pyelonephritis

A
  • bacterial infection of the kidney, usually a result of ascending infection, most commonly caused by e. coli
  • presents with fever, chills, sweats, flank pain, renal angle tenderness and leukocytosis +/- frequency, dysuria and haematuria
  • leukocytic casts are seen in the urine
174
Q

chronic pyelonephritis and reflux nephropathy

A
  • chronic inflammation and scarring of the parenchyma caused by recurrent and persistent bacterial infection

can be due to:
- chronic obstruction - posterior urethral valves, renal calculi
- urine reflux (= reflux nephropathy)

175
Q

acute interstitial nephritis

A
  • a hypersensitivity reaction, usually to a drug (abx, NSAIDs, diuretics)
  • usually begins days after drug exposure
  • presents with: fever, skin rash, haematuria, proteinuria, eosinophilia
  • histology: inflammatory infiltrate with tubular injury, eosinophils & granulomas
176
Q

chronic interstitial nephritis / analgesic nephropathy

A
  • seen in elderly with long-term analgesic consumption (NSAIDs/paracetamol)
  • symptoms only occur late in disease: HTN, anaemia, proteinuria and haematuria
177
Q

name 2 thrombotic microangiopathies

A
  • haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
  • thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
178
Q

haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) - epidemiology, pathophysiology, signs/symptoms, diagnosis

A

epidemiology:
- usually affects children

triad:
- MAHA
- thrombocytopenia
- renal failure

pathophysiology:
- usually associated with diarrhoea caused by E. coli O157:H7 with outbreaks caused by children visiting petting zoos/eating undercooked meat
- can be ‘non-diarrhoea associated’ due to abnormal proteins in complement pathway/endothelium - can be familial
- thrombi confined to kidneys

signs/symptoms:
- low platelets -> bleeding (petechiae, haematemesis, melena)
- MAHA -> pallor & jaundice
- usually involves renal failure

diagnosis:
- low Hb, low plt
- signs of haemolysis: raised bilirubin, raised reticulocytes, raised LDH
- fragmented RBCs (schistocytes) on blood smear as RBCs sheared as they pass through clots
- Coomb’s test negative (as not AIHA)

179
Q

thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) -epidemiology, pathophysiology, signs/symptoms, diagnosis

A

epidemiology:
- usually affects adults

PENTAD:
- MAHA
- thrombocytopenia
- renal failure
- fever
- neurological Sx e.g., confusion, seizures

pathophysiology:
- a genetic/acquired deficiency of ADAMTS13
- thrombi occur throughout circulation, esp. in CNS

signs/symptoms:
- low plt -> bleeding (petechiae, haematemesis, melaena)
- MAHA -> pallor and jaundice
- usually no renal failure. neuro symptoms (headache, altered consciousness, seizures, coma)

diagnosis:
- low Hb, low plt
- signs of haemolysis: raised bilirubin, raised reticulocytes, raised LDH
- fragmented RBCs (schistocytes) on blood smear as RBCs sheared as they pass through clots
- Coomb’s test negative (as not AIHA)

180
Q

what is acute renal failure? causes?

A

= a rapid loss of renal function manifesting as increased serum creatinine and urea. complications include metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, fluid overload, HTN, low calcium and uraemia

pre-renal
- most common cause of acute renal failure
- caused by renal hypo-perfusion e.g., hypovolaemia, sepsis, burns, acute pancreatitis, and renal artery stenosis

renal
- acute tubular necrosis (ATN): commonest renal cause of ARF
- acute glomerulonephritis
- thrombotic microangiopathy

post-renal
- obstruction to urine flow as a result of stones, tumours (primary & secondary), prostatic hypertrophy and retroperitoneal fibrosis

181
Q

what is chronic renal failure? causes?

A

= progressive, irreversible loss of renal function characterised by prolonged symptoms and signs of uraemia (fatigue, itching, anorexia and if severe eventually confusion)

most common causes in the UK:
- diabetes (20%)
- glomerulonephritis (15%)
- hypertension & vascular disease (15%)
- reflux nephropathy (chronic pyelonephritis) (10%)
- polycystic kidney disease (9%)

182
Q

renal failure classification by GFR

A

1 - GFR > 90
- kidney damage with normal renal function (often proteinuria)

2 - 60-89
- mildly impaired

3 - 30-59
- moderately impaired

4 - 15-29
- severely impaired

5 - <15 (or if being treated with renal replacement therapy)
- renal failure (generally requires replacement therapy)

183
Q

adult polycystic kidney disease (APCKD)

A

PKD is a part of a heterogenous group of disorders characterised by renal cysts and numerous systemic extra-renal manifestations

autosomal dominant inheritance
- 85% due to mutations in PKD1 on chromosome 16
- 15% due to mutations in PKD2 on chromosome 4

accounts for 10% of cases of CKD; 2/3rds require renal replcament therapy

pathological features:
- large multicystic kidneys with destroyed renal parenchyma, liver cysts (in PKD1) and berry aneurysms (berry aneurysms -> SAH + hypertension)

clinical features: MISHAPES
- abdominal mass
- infected cysts & increased BP
- stones
- haematuria
- aneurysms (berry)
- polyuria & nocturia
- extra-renal cysts e.g., liver, ovaries, pancreas, seminal vesicles
- systolic murmur - due to mitral valve prolapse

diagnostic criteria via USS of kidney is age-specific:
- 15-39 - 3 or more cysts
- 40-59 - >2 cysts in each kidney
- >60 - 4 cysts in each kidney

RRT is the mainstay of treatment. will eventually require transplantation

184
Q

lupus nephritis

A

depending on site and intensity of immune complex deposition clinical presentation may be: isolated urinary abnormalities, acute renal failure, nephrotic syndrome or progressive renal failure

renal histology: immune complex deposition in capillaries -> ‘wire loop capillaries’ , deposition of immune complexes & complement in the GBM in a lumpy-bumpy granular fashion

class 1
- minimal mesangial disease, looks near normal on light microscopy

class 2
- mesangial proliferative disease

class 3
- focal subendothelial deposits

class 4
- diffuse subendothelial deposits

class 5
- subepithelial immune deposits (membranous disease)

class 6
- advanced sclerosis (>90%)

185
Q

renal cell carcinoma - types, risk factors, clinical features, paraneoplastic syndrome

A

types:
- clear cell carcinoma - well differentiated
- papillary carcinoma - commonest in dialysis-associated cystic disease
- chromophobe renal carcinoma - pale, eosinophilic cells

risk factors:
- smoking, obesity, HTN, unopposed oestrogen, heavy metals, CKD

clinical features:
- costovertebral palsy, palpable mass, haematuria

paraneoplastic syndrome:
- polycythaemia, hypercalcaemia, HTN, Cushing’s syndrome, amyloidosis

186
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

infection ascending from vagina and cervix up to uterus and Fallopian tubes, leading to inflammation (endometritis, salpingitis) and the formation of adhesions
- ascending bacteria from lower genital tract - Neisseria gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis, enteric bacteria
- secondary to abortion/termination of pregnancy - S. aureus, Streptococcus, C. perfringens, Coliforms

NB: C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoea are most common in the UK. TB and schistosomiasis are common causes in other parts of the world.

clinically:
- bilateral lower abdo pain, deep dyspareunia, vaginal bleeding/discharge, fever, adnexal tenderness, and cervical excitation

187
Q

complications of PID

A
  • 10% have Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome - formation of scar tissue along liver capsule - RUQ pain from peri-hepatitis + “violin-string” peri-hepatic adhesions
  • infertility
  • increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
  • bacteraemia -> sepsis
  • tubo-ovarian abscess
  • chronic PID
  • peritonitis
  • plical fusion - fimbrial ends of fallopian tubes adhere together
188
Q

what is endometriosis? + clinically, macroscopically, microscopically

A

= presence of endometrial glands or stroma in abnormal locations outisde the uterus e.g., ovaries, uterine ligaments, rectovaginal septum, Pouch of Douglas, pelvic peritoneum

clinically:
- cyclical pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, reduced fertility
- cyclical PR bleeding, haematuria, bleeding from umbilicus (depending on site of endometrial deposits)
- nodules/tenderness in vagina, posterior fornix and uterus; immobile and retroverted uterus in advanced disease

macroscopically:
- red-blue to brown vesicles: “powder burn”
- endometriomas = blood-filled “chocolate cysts” on ovaries

microscopically:
- endometrial glands and stroma

189
Q

adenomyosis (+ complications)

A

presence of endometrial tissue deep within the myometrium

clinically:
- heavy menstrual bleeding, dysmenorrhoea, and deep dyspareunia
“bulky uterus”, “subendothelial linear striations”, “globular uterus”

complications:
- malignant transformation
- red degeneration during pregnancy

190
Q

fibroids (leiomyoma)

A

= a benign tumour of smooth muscle origin.
- most common tumour of female genital tract - occuring in 20% of women > 35
- can occur intramural, submucosal or subserosal
- oeestrogen stimulation important: enlarge during pregnancy, regress post-menopause

macroscopically:
- sharply circumscribed, discrete, round, firm, grey-white tumours. size variable

microscopically:
- bundles of smooth muscle cells

clinically:
- heavy menstrual bleeding, dysmenorrhoea, pressure effects (urinary frequency, tenesmus)
- subfertility
- in pregnancy: red degeneration of fibroids (haemorrhagic infarction -> severe abdo pain), post-partum torsion

benign to malignant transformation is rare (leiomyosarcoma)
NB: leiomyosarcomas likely arise de novo, usually occuring in post-menopausal women

191
Q

endometrial carcinoma - subdivided into

A

adenocarcinomas (85%), squamous cell carcinoma (15%)

endometrioid - 80%
- types: secretory, endometrioid (PTEN mutation in >50%), mucinous
- pathophysiology: related to oestrogen excess - usually in peri-menopausal women
- risk factors:
E2 excess: obesity, anovulatory amenorrhoea (e.g., PCOS), nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, tamoxifen
- DM, HTN

non-endometrioid - 20%
- types: papillary, serous (P53 mut. in 90%) and clear cell (PTEN mut., P53 mut., HER-2 amplifications)
- pathophysiology: unrelated to oestrogen excess; usually in elderly women with endometrial atrophy

192
Q

endometrial carcinoma - staging

A

FIGO system

stage 1
- cancer only in uterus

stage 2
- spread to cervix

stage 3
- spread to pelvic area

stage 4
- metastasis to rectum/bladder/distal organs

193
Q

normal vulval histology

A

squamous epithelium (95%)

194
Q

vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) and vulval carcinoma

A

normal vulvar histology: squamous epithelium (95%)

VIN (similar to CIN):
- dysplasia of the epithelium
graded as VIN I, II and III
- usual type - associated with HPV16/18, smoking and immunosuppression
- warty, basaloid, mixed
- women aged 35-55
differentiated type: associated with lichen sclerosis and more common progression to cancer:
- keratinised squamous cells
- older women

vulval carcinoma:
- mainly squamous cell carcinoma
- clear cell adenocarcinoma; teenagers, rare, associated w Diethyltilbestrol
- primary vaginal carcinoma; older women usual squamous cell carcinoma

195
Q

ovarian cysts - follicular, corpus luteal

A

follicular cyst - most common
- due to non-rupture of the dominant follicle/failure of atresia in a non-dominant follicle
- commonly regress after several menstrual cycles

corpus luteal - common in early pregnancy
- during the menstrual cycle if fertilisation doesn’t occur the corpus luteum breaks down and disappears. if this doesn’t happen the corpus luteum may become filled with blood or fluid and become a corpus luteal cyst
- may present with intraperitoneal bleeds

196
Q

ovarian carcinoma risk factors

A

nulliparity
early menarche
obesity
HRT
family Hx (BRCA1/2)

197
Q

types of ovarian carcinoma

A

epithelial (70%)
germ cell (20%)
sex cord/stroma (10%)
metastatic

198
Q

types of epithelial ovarian carcinoma

A

benign:
- serous cystadenoma
- mucinous cystadenoma

malignant:
- endometrioid
- clear cell

199
Q

serous cystadenoma - epithelial ovarian carcinoma

A
  • most common benign epithelial tumour
  • mimics tubular epithelium i.e., columnar epithelium
  • histology: columnar epithelium, psammoma bodies
  • affects women aged 30-40 yrs
200
Q

mucinous cystadenoma - epithelial benign ovarian carcinoma

A
  • 2nd most common benign epithelial tumour
  • mucin secreting cells, similar to those of endocervical mucosa
  • histology: mucin secreting cells
  • most common oestrogen-secreting tumour
  • affects younger women
  • K-ras mutation in 75%
  • appendix tumour -> metastasis to abdomen, peritoneum and ovaries -> pseudomyxoma peritonei (very rare complication)
201
Q

endometrioid ovarian carcinoma (malignant)

A

mimics endometrium - i.e., form tubular glands (therefore endometriosis is a risk factor)

histology: tubular glands
Ca125 often raised

202
Q

clear cell ovarian carcinoma (malignant) histology

A

histology: clear cells, clear cytoplasm, Hobnail appearance

NB: strong association with endometriosis

203
Q

ovarian tumours: dysgerminoma

A

usually benign in adults (95%) and malignant in children

female counterpart of testicular seminoma

rare, but the most common ovarian malignancy in young women
sensitive to radiotherapy

204
Q

ovarian tumours: teratoma

A

most common ovarian tumours in younger women (15-21 yo)

shows differentiation toward somatic structures
- mature teratomas (dermoid cyst)
- 95% of teratomas: benign; usually cystic

differentiation of germ cells into mature tissues (e.g., skin, hair, teeth, bone, cartilage); usually bilateral and asymptomatic

immature teratomas:
malignant, usually solid; contains immature, embryonal tissues
secrete AFP

205
Q

ovarian tumours: choriocarcinoma

A

secrete hCG
malignant

206
Q

sex cord/stroma ovarian tumours

A

fibroma (from cells of ovarian stroma):
- can differentiate toward female (granulosa and theca cells) or male (Sertoli and Leydig cells) structures
- no hormone production
- 50% associated with Meig’s syndrome (triad of fibroma, ascites + right-sided pleural effusion)

granulosa-theca cell tumour
- produce E2
- look for oestrogenic effects; irregular menstrual cycles, breast enlargement, endometrial/breast cancer
- histology: Call-Exner bodies

sertoli-leydig cell tumour:
- secrete androgens
- look for defeminisation (breast atrophy) and virilisation (hirsutism, deepened voice, enlarged clitoris)

207
Q

Krukenberg tumour

A

= malignancy of the ovary that has metastasised from usually gastric/colonic cancer

histology: mucin producing signet ring cells

208
Q

FIGO staging for ovarian cancer

A

stage I
- only in ovaries

stage II
- spread to pelvis

stage III
- spread to abdomen (including regional LN mets)

stage IV
- mets outside abdominal cavity

209
Q

ovarian cancer - risk of malignancy index (RMI)

A

scoring system to estimate the likelihood of a malignant cyst - cut-off score 200:

RMI = U x M x Ca-125

U = ultrasound
- 1 point for each feature: multilocular, evidence of solid areas, evidence of mets, ascited and bilateral lesions
- overall ultrasound score summarised between 0 and 3 with 0=no USS features, 1=1 USS feature and 3=2-5 USS features

M=menopause
- 1 point for premenopausal
- 3 points for post-menopausal

Ca-125
- measured in iu/ml

210
Q

normal cervical histology

A

outer cervix (continuous with vagina) covered by squamous epithelium

endocervical canal lined by columnar glandular epithelium

the squamoucolumnar junction (SCJ) separates them

211
Q

cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN): what is the transformation zone? clinical relevance?

A

= the area where columnar epithelium transforms into squamous cells (=squamous metaplasia).
this is a normal physiological process. this area is susceptible to malignant change due to high rates of cell turnover.

CIN: dysplasia at the TZ as a result of infection by HPV 16&18

212
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) grading based on histology (from biopsy)

A

CIN 1
- dysplasia confined to the deepest 1/3 of epithelium

CIN 2
- lower 2/3

CIN 3
- full thickness, but basement membrane intact

60-90% of CIN 1 reverts to normal over 10-23 months
30% of CIN 3 progress to cervical cancer over 10 years if left untreated

213
Q

risk factors for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

A
  • early age at 1st intercourse
  • multiple partners
  • multiparity
  • smoking
  • HIV/immunosuppression
214
Q

what is the treatment for cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN)?

A

excision of entire endocervix

(can compromise fertility)

215
Q

types of cervical carcinomas

A

adenocarcinomas - 80%
squamous cell carcinomas - 20%

216
Q

risk factors for cervical carcinoma

A
  • early exposure to HPV (early 1st sexual experience, multiple partners, non-barrier contraceptive)
  • COCP
  • high parity
  • smoking (dose-response effect)
  • immunosuppression
217
Q

2 biological states of HPV infection

A
  1. non-productive/latent
  2. productive -> cytological and histological changes
218
Q

pathophysiology of HPV causing cervical carcinoma

A
  • HPV virus encodes E6 and E7 proteins which inactivate 2 tumour suppressor genes (TSGs)
  • E6 inactivates P53 -> proliferation
  • E7 inactivates retinoblastoma (Rb) gene -> proliferation
219
Q

clinical presentation of cervical carcinoma

A

post-coital bleeding
intermenstrual bleeding
postmenopausal bleeding
discharge
pain

220
Q

FIGO system for staging of cervical cancer

A

stage 0
- CIN

stage I
- cervix only

stage II
- spread into upper 1/3rd vagina

stage III
- spread into pelvic side wall and/or lower 1/3rd vagina

stage IV
- metastasis beyond pelvis to bladder/bowel

221
Q

breast: what is triple assessment?

A
  1. clinical examination
  2. imaging
    USS/mammography - decision based on breast tissue
    dense = USS, less dense = mammography
    general age cut-off: 35
  3. cytology and histology
    - cytopathology (obtained via fine needle aspiration (FNA)) - cells spread across a slide, stained and coded from C1 (inadequate sample), C2 (benign), C3 (atypia), C4 (suspicious of malignancy) to C5 (malignant)
    - histopathology (obtained via core biopsy) - intact tissues removed showing architectural and cellular detail and coded B1 (normal), B2 (benign), B3 (uncertain), B4 (suspicious) to B5 (malignant)
    B5a=DCIS, B5b=invasive carcinoma
222
Q

normal breast histology

A

ductal-lobular system lined by inner glandular epithelium

223
Q

acute mastitis - presentation, FNA cytology, management

A

presentation:
- painful, red breast, hot to touch and fever
- either lactational (more common) or non-lactational
- lactational is usually secondary to S. aureus infection (often polymicrobial) via cracks in the nipple & due to stasis of milk

FNA cytology:
- abundance of neutrophils

management:
- continued expression of milk
- antibiotics +/- surgical drainage

NB: non-lactational - keratinising squamous metaplasia block lactiferous ducts leading to peri-ductal inflammation and rupture

224
Q

breast: fat necrosis - presentation, causes, cytology

A

= inflammatory reaction to damaged adipose tissue (typically obese, middle-aged women)

presents as painless breast mass/skin thickening/mammographic lesion (may mimic carcinoma displaying skin tethering/nipple retraction)

causes:
- trauma, radiotherapy, surgery, nodular panniculitis

cytology:
- empty fat spaces, histiocytes and giant cells

225
Q

benign neoplastic conditions of breast

A
  • fibroadenoma
  • breast cyst
  • duct ectasia
226
Q

breast fibroadenoma - definition, epidemiology, site/size, colour/consistency, tender/transilluminable, fluctuance/fixed, cytology

A

= benign neoplasm of a lobule; arising from fibro (stromal) and glandular (adenomal)

most common lump in women 20-40 yrs

  • single unilateral 1-5cm
  • may be bilateral and multiple (rare)
  • vary in size during pregnancy & menstrual cycles as they are oestrogen driven
  • well demarcated, spherical, firm, smooth, rubbery
  • painless
  • mobile “breast mouse”

FNA cytology - branching sheets of epithelium, bare bipolar nuclei and stroma

histology:
- multinodular mass of expanded intralobular stroma

227
Q

breast cyst - definition, epidemiology, site/size, colour/consistency, tender/transilluminable, fluctuance/fixed, cytology

A

fluid filled sacs in the breast
peri-menopausal (50yrs)

  • single or multiple
  • unilateral or bilateral
  • pain correlates with menstrual cycle
  • well demarcated, clear nipple discharge
  • painless, transilluminable
  • fluctuant/mobile
228
Q

breast duct ectasia

A

dilatation of milk ducts due to blockage
peri/post-menopausal
RFs: smoking, multiparity

  • sub-areolar mass
  • nipple inversion
  • firm, thick yellow-green white nipple discharge
  • may lead to local infection if ducts get infected -> inflammatory symptoms and abscess formation
  • tender
  • fixed

nipple discharge - proteinaceous material and macrophages

histology:
- duct dilatation, periductal inflammation, proteinaceous material inside the duct

229
Q

breast - intraductal papilloma

A

benign papillary tumour arising within the duct system of the breast
- small terminal ductules -> peripheral papillomas -> clinically silent

  • clinically presents with a sub-areolar mass +/- bloody nipple discharge
  • not seen on mammogram

cytology of nipple discharge:
- branching papillary groups of epithelium

histology:
- papillary mass within a dilated duct lined by epithelium

230
Q

breast - radial scar

A
  • benign sclerosing lesion - central scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue in stellate pattern
  • usually presents as a stellate mass on mammography, closely mimicking carcinoma
  • lesions >1cm are sometimes called “complex sclerosing lesions”

histology:
- central, fibrous, stellate area

231
Q

breast - phyllodes tumour

A
  • arise from interlobular stroma (like fibroadenomas - can arise within existing fibroadenomas) with increased cellularity and mitoses
  • present >50yrs as palpable mass
  • low grade or high grade lesions. mostly relatively benign, but can be aggressive therefore exciseed with wide local excision/mastectomy to limit local recurrence
  • mets very rare
  • histology: “branching/leaf-like fronds”/”artichoke appearance”
232
Q

breast - fibrocystic disease

A

presentation: changes according to menstrual cycle (hormone responsive), lumpiness in breasts
- occurs in 1/3rd of pre-menopausal women

histology:
- dilated large ducts which may become calcified

233
Q

breast proliferative conditions

A

usual epithelial hyperplasia
- not formally considered a precursor lesion to invasive breast carcinoma although slightly 1-2% increased risk of carcinoma
- histology: growth of glandular tissue and epithelial cells forming fronds

flat epithelial atypia a.k.a., atypical ductal carcinoma
- 4x risk of developing carcinoma
- histology: multiple layers of epithelial cells and lumens more regular and round with punched out areas

in situ lobular neoplasia
- 7-12x risk for developing breast carcinoma
- histology: solid proliferation of aplastic cells with little space with small residue areas where you can still see lumen

234
Q

risk factors for breast carcinoma

A
  • gender
  • susceptibility genes (BRCA1/BRCA2)
  • hormone exposure (early menarche, late menopause, late 1st live birth, OCP, HRT)
  • advancing age
  • family history
  • race (caucasian > afro-carribean > asian > hispanic)
  • obesity
  • tobacco, alcohol
  • radiation exposure
235
Q

types of breast cancer

A

non-invasive:
- ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

invasive:
- invasive ductal carcinoma
- invasive lobular carcinoma
- Paget’s disease of the breast

236
Q

breast: carcinoma in situ

A

neoplastic epithelial proliferation limited to ducts/lobules by basement membrane

lobular (LCIS)
- always incidental finding on biopsy as no microcalcifications or stromal reactions
- 20-40% bilateral
- cells lack adhesion protein E-cadherin
- RF for subsequent invasive breast carcinoma

ductal (DCIS)
- incidence increased dramatically since development of mammography
- appear as areas of microcalcification
- 10% present with clinical symptoms
- much increased risk of progressing to invasive breast Ca
- high, intermediate and low grade

histology:
- ducts filled with atypical epithelial cells

  • inherent but not evitable risk of progression to invasive breast carcinoma
237
Q

invasive breast carcinoma

A

malignant epithelial tumours which infiltrate within breast, capacity to spread to distant sites
- they can be histologically subcategorised into ductal, lobular, tubular and mucinous

invasive ductal:
- carcinoma that cannot be subclassified into another group
- most common
- big, pleiomorphic cells; invasive cells move into stroma

invasive lobular:
- cells aligned in single fine chains/strands

tubular carcinomas:
- well-formed tubules with low grade nuclei
- rarely palpable as <1cm

mucinous carcinoma:
- cells produce abundant quantities of extracellular mucin which dissects into surrounding stroma

238
Q

3 criteria used to grade breast carcinomas after core biopsy

A
  • nuclear pleomorphism
  • tubule formation
  • mitotic activity

grade 1= well differentiated <5/9
grade 2= moderately differentiated 6-7/9
grade 3= poorly differentiated 8-9/9

239
Q

relevance of oestrogen/progesterone/HER2 receptors in breast cancer prognosis

A

good: ER/PR receptor - predicts response to tamoxifen

HER2 positive is a bad prognostic factor

240
Q

most important prognostic factor for breast cancer

A

status of axillary lymph nodes

241
Q

stroke vs TIA

A

stroke = clinical syndrome characterised by rapidly developing focal/global neurological deficit lasting > 24 hrs

a TIA lasts < 24 hrs with complete resolution of symptoms (most TIAs last 1-5mins and 1/3 TIAs lead to strokes after 5 yrs if left untreated)

242
Q

stroke syndromes according to vascular territory

A

ACA: contralateral leg paresis, sensory loss, cognitive deficits (e.g., apathy, confusion, and poro judgement)

MCA: proximal occlusion involves:
- contralateral weakness and sensory loss of face and arm
- cortical sensory loss
- may have contralateral homonymous hemianopia or quadrantanopia
- if dominant (usually left) hemisphere: aphasia
- if non-dominant (usually right) hemisphere: neglect
- eye deviation towards the side of the lesion and away from the weak side

PCA:
- contralateral hemianopia or quadrantopia
- midbrain findings: CN III and IV palsy/pupillary changes, hemiparesis
- thalamic findings: sensory loss, amnesia, decreased level of consciousness
- if bilateral: cortical blindness or prosopagnosia
- hemiballismus

lacunar infarcts
(deep hemispheric white matter; involving deep penetrating arteries of MCA, circle of Willis, basilar and vertebral arteries)
- pure motor hemiparesis (posterior limb of internal capsule): contralateral arm, leg and face
- pure sensory loss (ventral thalamic): hemisensory loss
- ataxic hemiparesis (ventral pons or internal capsule): ipsilateral ataxia and leg paresis
- dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome (ventral pons or genu of internal capsule): dysarthria, facial weakness, dysphagia, mild hand weakness and clumsiness

243
Q

causes of non-traumatic brain haemorrhage

A

intraparenchymal haemorrhage:
- 50% due to HTN
- onset is abrupt
- can cause Charcot-bouchard microaneurysms
- common site = basal ganglia

244
Q

extradural haemorrhage

A
  • skull fracture TRAUMA
  • most common site - ruptured middle meningeal artery
  • rapid arterial bleed, lucid interval then LoC
  • “lemon” shape
245
Q

subdural haemorrhage

A
  • previous history of minor head trauma
  • damaged bridging veins with slow venous bleed
  • often elderly/alcoholic on anti-coagulation
  • associated with gradual headache, fluctuating consciousness and behaviour changes
  • “banana” shape
246
Q

brain: traumatic parenchymal injury

A
  • in skull fractures look out for otorrhoea or rhinorrhoea - “straw-coloured fluid” in CSF + Battle’s sign (haemorrhage on mastoid process)
  • concussion: transient LoC and paralysis, recovery in hours or days
  • diffuse axonal injury (occurs at moment of injury due to shear tensile forces breaking axons apart) -> commonest cause of Coma, midline structures like Corpus Callosum, rostral brainstem and septum pellucidum affected -> vegetative state, post traumatic dementia
  • contusions = collisions between the brain and skull
  • coup = where impact occurs
  • contracoup = opposite to region of impact
  • can lead to post-traumatic epilepsy, endocrine changes and neuropsychiatric issues
247
Q

complication of increased ICP

A

brain herniation

248
Q

3 main types of brain herniation

A

subfalcine
- herniation of singular cortex beneath the falx (midline fold of the dura)

transtentorial/uncal
- herniation of medial temporal lobe under tentorium (horizontal dura mater between parietal lobes and cerebelllum)

tonsillar herniation
- herniation of cerebellum through foramen magnum. this compresses the brainstem leading to cardiorespiratory arrest and death (risk of doing a LP if raised ICP)

249
Q

2 main types of brain oedema

A

vasogenic
- disruption of the blood-brain-barrier permeability

cytotoxin
- secondary to cellular injury (e.g., ischaemic or hypoxic)

250
Q

what is hydrocephalus?

A

an increase in CSF and enlargement of the ventricular system

communicating - obstruction in outflow of CSF
e.g., in neonates, the lateral ventricles obstruct the cerebral aqueduct causing build-up of CSF in the lateral ventricles -> enlarging brain and ventricles

non-communicating - reduced absorption of CSF into sinus veins
e.g., in meningitis the meninges can become fibrous and this reduces absorption

idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus:
- Hakim’s triad -> gait apraxia, urinary incontinence and cognitive impairment
- most commonly >65
- treated with a VP shunt

251
Q

most common sources for secondary brain tumours

A

lung
breast
malignant melanoma

252
Q

risk factors for brain tumours

A
  • previous tumours
  • radiotherapy to head/neck
  • neurofibromatosis 1&2
  • tuberous sclerosis
253
Q

brain tumours: signs & symptoms

A

raised ICP:
- headache
- vomiting
- change in mental status

SUPRAtentorial:
- focal neurological deficit
- seizures
- personality changes

INFRAtentorial:
- ataxia
- long tract signs - spasticity, hyperreflexia
- cranial nerve palsies

254
Q

neuroimaging options (e.g., for brain tumours)

A

MRI
CT
functional MRI
MR-spectroscopy
PET-SCAN

255
Q

brain tumour management

A

surgery + radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy

256
Q

astrocytic brain tumours

A

pilocytic astrocytoma (G1)
- 0-20 yrs
- histology: piloid “hairy” cells, rosenthal fibres, slow mitotic divisions
- BRAF mut in 70%
- indolent, childhood

diffuse glioma (G2-3):
- 20-40yrs
- histology: low-moderate cellularity, low mitotic activity, no vascular proliferation
- IDH mut is associated with longer survival and better response to chemo and radiotherapy

glioblastoma multiforme (G4)
- 50+ yrs
- median survival = 8 months
- most common, aggressive primary tumour in adults
- histology: high cellularity, high mitotic activity, microvascular proliferation, necrosis
- mutation: IDH wildtype
- aggressive, poor prognosis

257
Q

meningioma histology

A

psammona bodies (calcifications)
mitotic activity determines grading

258
Q

familial syndromes associated with CNS tumours

A

Von Hippel-Lindau
- hemangioblastomas of cerebellum, brainstem and spinal cord, retina; renal cysts, phaeochromocytomas

tuberous sclerosis
- giant cell astrocytoma; cortical tuber; supependymal nodules and calcifications on CT

NF 1
- optic glioma, neurofibroma, astrocytoma

NF 2
- vestibular schwannoma, meningioma, ependymoma, astrocytoma

multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1)
- pituitary adenoma

259
Q

define neurodegenerative diseases

A

progressive, irreversible conditions leading to neuronal loss

common pathogenic mechanism is accumulation of misfolded proteins which may be intra- or extracellular

260
Q

define dementia

A

a global impairment of cognitive function and personality without impairment of consciousness. this impairment goes beyond what might be expected from normal ageing. includes memory impairment and at least one of the following cognitive disturbances: aphasia, apraxia, agnosia or a disturbance in executive functioning

261
Q

alzheimer’s pathophysiology

A
  1. accumulation of beta-amyloid deposits outside neurons -> senile plaques that interfere with neuronal communication
  2. hyperphosphorylation of Tau protein -> dissociation from neuron microfilaments -> accumulate into neurofibrillary tangles -> cerebral atrophy
262
Q

alhzeimer’s: radiology findings

A

general brain atrophy, widened sulci, narrowed gyri and enlarged ventricles (most -> marked in temporal and frontal lobes with loss of cholinergic neurons)

263
Q

histology of alzheimer’s

A

senile plaques of beta-amyloid protein, neurofibrillary tangles of tau protein, cerebral amyloid angiopathy

264
Q

alzheimer’s management

A

symptomatic:
- anti-cholinesterases, nAChR agonists, glutamate antagonists

265
Q

frontotemporal dementia - histology, mutations, classical symptoms

A

histology:
- hyperphosphorylated tau

mutations:
- progranulin gene
strong FHx and often affects younger people (40-60 yrs)

classical symptoms:
- personality change, disinhibition, overeating, emotional blunting

266
Q

pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease

A

progressive depletion of dopaminergic neurons in the nigrostriatal pathway from substantia nigra in basal ganglia to striatum.
this leads to widespread motor deficits.

  • Lewy bodies present in affected neurons
  • alpha-synuclein is main component of Lewy bodies and mutations in this protein are responsible for PD
  • alpha-synuclein deposits also found in peripheral ganglia (causing motor retardation) and olfactory bulb (early loss of smell)
267
Q

cardinal signs of Parkinson’s

A

‘TRAP’
T - tremor
R - rigidity
A - akinesia
P - postural instability

268
Q

Parkinson Plus syndromes

A

Lewy body dementia
- fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations and early dementia

Progressive supranuclear palsy
- tauopathy with limited vertical gaze (downgaze more specific), early falls, axial rigidity and akinesia, dysarthria, and dysphagia

Corticobasal syndrome
- tauopathy with varied presentations but classically presents with unilateral parkinsonism, dystonia/myoconus, apraxia +/- “alien limbs” phenomenon; may also present as progressive non-fluent aphasia

Multiple system atrophy
- synucleiopathy presenting as either cerebellar predominant or parkinsonism predominant; both are associated with early autonomic dysfunction

Vascular parkinsonism
- multi-infarct presentation with gait instability and lower body parkinsonism; less likely associated with tremor

269
Q

pathological protein (misfolded) in Alzheimer’s

A

tau, beta-amyloid

270
Q

pathological protein (misfolded) in dementia with Lewy bodies

A

alpha-synuclein, ubiquitin

271
Q

pathological protein (misfolded) in corticobasal degeneration

A

tau

272
Q

pathological protein (misfolded) in frontotemporal dementia linked to Chr17

A

tau

273
Q

pathological protein (misfolded) in frontotemporal dementia

A

tau

274
Q

prion disease

A

= a series of diseases with common molecular pathology often caused by infection and transfer of proteins from organism to host (rather than DNA/RNA)

sporadic (80%): Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
(rapid <1yr decline)

acquired (<5%)”
- Kuru (cannibalism)
- variant CJD (linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy a.k.a., mad cow disease)
- iatrogenic CJD (following blood transfusions of surgical procedures)

genetic (15%):
- Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinkler syndrome (GSS)
- fatal familial insomnia

all prion diseases are histologically characterised by spongiform changes to brain and prion protein deposits

275
Q

osteoporosis aetiology

A
  • age
  • lack of oestrogen
  • childhood illness
  • low BMI
  • XS alcohol
276
Q

osteoporosis features

A
  • reduced bone mass
  • DEXA scan: T score < -2.5 (-1-(-2.5) = osteopaenia)
277
Q

osteoporosis symptoms

A

low impact fractures
pain (back)

278
Q

osteoporosis risk factors

A
  • increasing age
  • female
  • smoking
  • poor diet
  • low BMI
279
Q

osteomalacia/rickets aetiology

A

reduced dietary vit D
reduced sunlight
malabsorption of vit D (GI causes)
genetic causes

280
Q

osteomalacia/rickets features

A

reduced bone mineralisation

281
Q

osteomalacia/rickets symptoms

A

adults:
- bone pain/tenderness, proximal muscle weakness

children:
- bone pain, bowing tibia, rachitic rossary, frontal bossing, pigeon chest, delayed walking

282
Q

osteomalacia/rickets risk factors

A

poor diet
malabsorption
chronic liver disease (CLD)
chronic kidney disease (CKD)
lack of sunlight

283
Q

gout aetiology

A

hyperuricaemia
- increased intake; increased dietary purine intake, alcohol excess
- increased production; tumour lysis syndrome, inherited metabolic abnormalities
- reduced excretion - diuretics

284
Q

gout - joints affected

A

acute monoarthritis
- classicaly 1st MTP (big toe)
- precipitated by trauma/infection

chronic tophaceous gout
- polyarticular arthritis
- tophi deposits in ear lobes, fingers and elbows
- urate kidney stones

285
Q

gout management

A

acute:
- colchicine

long term:
- allopurinol

conservative:
- reduced ethanol/purine intake

286
Q

pseudogout aetiology

A
  • idiopathic
  • electrolytes; hyperPTH, hypoPO4, hypoMg
  • metabolic; DM, hypothyroid, Wilsons, haemochromatosis
287
Q

pseudogout - joints affected

A

acute monoarthritis:
- knee and shoulder
- precipitated by trauma/infection

chronic:
- polyarticular arthritis

288
Q

crystal type in pseudogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate

289
Q

management of pseudogout

A

NSAIDs or intra-articular steroids

290
Q

osteomyelitis X-ray changes

A
  • early changes include sub-periosteal new bone formation
  • 10 days post onset - lytic destruction of bone
291
Q

most common organisms involved in osteomyelitis in adults, children, sickle cell pts, immunocompromised and congenital

A

adults:
- s. aureus

children:
- haemophilus influenza, group B strep

sickle cell:
- salmonella

immunocompromised:
- TB

congenital:
- syphilis

292
Q

x-ray features of osteoarthritis

A
  • loss of joint space
  • osteophytes
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • subchondral cysts
293
Q

rheumatoid arthritis characteristic deformitis

A
  • radial deviation of wrist and ulnar deviation of fingers
  • “swan neck” and “Boutonniere” deformity of fingers
    swan neck = hyperextension of PIJP & flexion of DIPJ
    boutonniere = flexion of PIPJ & hyperextension of DIPJ
  • “z” shaped thumb
  • synovial swelling
294
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

pulmonary fibrosis
vasculitis
amyloidosis
pericarditis
subcutaneous nodules
DVT

295
Q

rheumatoid arthritis histopathology

A
  • thickening of synovial membrane
  • hyperplasia of surface synoviocytes
  • intense inflammatory cell infiltrate & fibrin deposition & necrosis
296
Q

4 malignant bone tumours

A
  • osteosarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
  • Ewing’s sarcoma
  • giant cell (borderline malignancy)
297
Q

osteosarcoma: epidemiology, bone, histology, X-ray

A

children
very rare

knee (60%)

malignant mesenchymal cells
ALP+ve
replacement of bone marrow with trabecular bone

elevated periosteum (Codman’s triangle)
sunburst appearance

298
Q

chondrosarcoma: epidemiology, bone, histology, X-ray

A

> 40 yrs

axial skeleton
femur/tibia/pelvis

malignant chondrocytes (proliferation of cartilage)

lytic lesion with fluffy calcification

299
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma: epidemiology, bone, histology, X-ray

A

<20 yrs, highly malignant

long bones, pelvis

sheets of small round cells
CD99 +ve

onion skinning of periosteum

300
Q

[bone] giant cell (borderline malignancy): epidemiology, bone, histology, X-ray

A

20-40yrs
F>M

knee-epiphysis

osteoclasts and stromal cells
“soap bubble appearance”
“giant multi-nucleate osteoclasts”

lytic/lucent lesions right up to articular surface

301
Q

5 benign bone tumours

A

osteoid osteoma
osteoma
enchondroma
osteochondroma
fibrous dysplasia

302
Q

osteoid osteoma - age, bone, special features, histology, X-ray

A

adolescent
M:F = 2:1

tibia diaphysis/proximal femur

small benign bone forming lesion, night pain relieved by aspirin

histology: normal bone, arises from osteoblasts

central nidus (luscent) with sclerotic rim (opaque)
‘Bull’s-eye’

303
Q

osteoma - age, bone, special features, histology

A

middle age

head + neck

bony outgrowths attached to normal bone
Gardner syndrome: GI polyps + multiple osteomas + epidermoid cysts

normal bone on histology

304
Q

enchondroma - age, bone, special features, histology, X-ray

A

middle age

hands 43%

benign tumour of cartilage

histology: normal cartilage, calcified matrix

X-ray:
- lytic lesion
- cotton wool calcification
- expansile, O ring sign
- popcorn calcification

305
Q

osteochondroma - age, bone, special features, histology, X-ray

A

adolescent
most common benign tumour

metaphysis of long bones near tendon attachment sites

cartilage capped bony outgrowth

cartilage capped “mushroom” bony outgrowth

well defined bony protuberance from bone

306
Q

fibrous dysplasia - age, bone, special features, histology, X-ray

A

F>M, middle age

femur & ribs

a bit of bone is replaced by fibrous tissue
McCune-Albright syndrome = polyostotic dysplasia + cafe au lait spots + precocious puberty

chinese letters (misshapen bone trabeculae)

soap bubble osteolysis
Shepherd’s crook deformity

307
Q

layers of skin (superficial - deep)

A
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum lucidum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum basale
  • basement membrane of epidermis

[Come Let’s Get Some Beers]

308
Q

psoriasis pathophysiology

A

type IV T-cell hypersensitivity reaction within the epidermis -> further T cell recruitment -> release of pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma) -> keratinocyte hyperproliferation -> epidermal thickening

309
Q

psoriasis histology

A

parakeratosis
neutrophilia
loss of granular layer
clubbing of rete ridges giving “test tubes in a rack” appearance
Munro’s microabscesses

310
Q

types of psoriasis

A
  1. chronic plaque psoriasis (most common)
    - with salmon pink plaques and silver scales affecting extensor aspects of knees, elbows and scalp
  2. flexural psoriasis
    - seen later in life, usually groin, natal cleft and sub-mammary areas
  3. guttate psoriasis
    - “rain-drop” plaque distribution, often in children or trunk, usually seen 2 weeks post group A beta-haemolytic strep infection (GABHS)
  4. erythrodermic/pustular psoriasis (emergency)
    - severe widespread diseasee, often systemic symptoms, can be limited to hands and feet = palmo-plantar psoriasis
  5. Koebner phenomenon
    - plaques form at/along sites of trauma
311
Q

psoriasis: Auspitz’ sign

A

rubbing causes pin-point bleeding

312
Q

psoriasis associations

A

nail changes:
- pitting
- onycholysis
- subungual hyperkeratosis

arthritis (5-10%):
- DIP disease
- arthritis mutilans ‘telescoping’
- spondylopathy
- symmetrical polyarthritis

313
Q

lichen planus

A
  • lesions are “pruritic, purple, polygonal, papules and plaques” with a mother-of-pearl sheen, and fine white network on their surface called Wickam’s striae
  • usually on inner surfaces of wrists; can also affect oral mucous membrane where the lesions have lacy appearance
  • accumulation of T cells attacking the basement membrane
  • histology: hyperkeratosis with saw-toothing of rete ridges and basal cell degeneration
    civette bodies are dead cells which release their nucleus
314
Q

eythema multiforme presentation + causes, complication

A

classically causes annular target lesions, most commonly on extensor surfaces of hands and feet
it causes pleiomorphic lesions and there can be a combination of macules, papules, urticarial weals, vesicles, bullae and petechiae

causes:
- infections - HSV, mycoplasma
- drugs - sulphonamides, NSAIDs, allopurinol, penicillin, phenytoin

eythema multiforme -> steven johnson’s syndrome (SJS) -> toxic epidermal necrolysis
[spectrum of disease severity]
all 3 of these diseases follow the lichenoid inflammation mechanism

315
Q

Stevens Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)

A
  • dermatological emergency; sheets of skin detachment (<10% body surface area in SJS and >30% in TEN)
  • Nikolsky sign positive; mucosal involvement prominent
  • commonly caused by drugs (e.g., sulfonamide antibiotics, anticonvulsants)
316
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis - pathophysiology, clinical features, histology

A

pathophysiology:
- associated with coeliac
- IgA Abs bind to basement membrane -> supepidermal bulla

clinical features:
- itchy vesicles on extensor surfaces of elbows, buttocks

histology:
- micro abscesses which coalesce to form supepidermal bullae
- neutrophil &IgA deposits at tips of dermal papillae

317
Q

bullous pemphigoid - pathophysiology, clinical features, histology

A

pathophysiology:
- IgG Abs and C3 (complement) bind to hemidesmosomes (adhesion molecules) of basement membrane -> epidermis lifts off and fluid accumulates in the space
- subepidermal bulla

clinical features:
- large tense bullae on erythematous base
- often on flexural surfaces (forearms, groin and axillae)
- elderly
- bullae do not rupture as easily as pemphigus

histology:
- eosinophilia
- linear deposition of IgG along basement membrane

318
Q

pemphigus vulgaris - pathophysiology, clinical features, histology

A

pathophysiology:
- IgG Abs bind to desmoglein 1&3 (adhesion molecules) between keratinocytes in stratum spinosum -> acantholysis
- intraepidermal bulla

clinical features:
- bullae are easily ruptured -> raw red surface
- found on skin and mucosal membranes
- Nikosky’s sign +ve
- mucosal involvement

histology:
- intraepidermal bulla
- Netlike pattern of intercellular IgG deposits
- acantholysis

319
Q

pemphigus foliaceus pathophysiology

A

IgG against desmoglein in epidermis -> detachment of superficial keratinocytes

320
Q

seborrhoeic keratosis - characteristics, histology

A

benign

characteristics:
- rough plaques, waxy, “stuck on” appear in middle age/the elderly

histology:
- keratin horns in epidermis, orderly proliferation

321
Q

actinic (solar/senile) keratosis - characteristics, histology

A

premalignant

characteristics:
- rough, sandpaper like texture, scaly lesions on sun-exposed areas

histology:
SPAIN
- solar elastosis
- parakeratosis
- atypical cells
- inflammation
- not full thickness

322
Q

keratoacanthoma - characteristics, histology

A

premalignant

characteristics:
- rapidly growing dome shaped nodule which may develop a necrotic, crusted centre
- grows over 2-3 weeks and clears spontaneously

histology:
- similar histology to SCC - hard to differentiate

323
Q

Bowen’s disease (SCC in situ) - characteristics, histology

A

premalignant

characteristics:
- intra-epidermal squamous cell carcinoma in situ
- flat, red, scaly patches on sun-exposed areas

histology:
- full thickness atypia/dysplasia
- basement membrane intact; i.e., not invading the dermis

324
Q

squamous cell carcinoma - characteristics, histology

A

when Bowen’s has spread to involve dermis, ulcerative, crusting, hyperkeratotic +/- rolled edges
moderately growing; can metastasise and locally destructive

histology:
- atypia/dysplasia throughout epidermis, nuclear crowding and spreading through basement membrane into dermis

325
Q

basal cell carcinoma - characteristics, histology

A

aka “rodent” ulcer
slow growing tumour; rarely metastatic but locally destructive

well defined, rolled edges, pearly surface, often with telangiectasia

histology:
- mass of basal cells pushing down into dermis
- palisading (nuclei align in outermost layer)

326
Q

melanoma histology

A

atypical melanocytes; initally grow horizontally in epidermis (radial growth phase); then grow vertically into dermis (vertical growth phase); vertical growth produces “buckshot appearance” (=Pagetoid cells)

327
Q

melanoma subtypes

A
  • superficial spreading: irregular borders with variation in colour
  • nodular: can occur on all sites, more common in the younger age group
  • lentigo maligna: occurs on sun exposed areas of elderly Caucasians, flat, slowly growing back lesion
  • acral lentiginous: occurs on the palms, soles and subungual areas
328
Q

pityriasis rosea

A
  • salmon pink rash appears first (=herald patch) followed by oval macules in Christmas tree distribution
  • appears after HHV-6 and HHV-7 infections
  • remits spontaneously
329
Q

SLE HLA association

A

HLA DR3 (or 2)

330
Q

SLE autoantibody

A

ANA (95%)
- anti-dsDNA
- anti-Sm (most specific)

anti-histone (+ve if drug induced SLE)

331
Q

SLE histology

A

LE bodies
kidney = “wire loop” appearance of glomeruli

CNS - small vessel angiopathy

spleen - “onion skin” lesions

heart - libman - sack endocarditis

332
Q

scleroderma HLA association

A

HLA DR5 & DRw8

333
Q

auto-antibodies in scleroderma (limited/diffuse)

A

limited:
- anti-centromere

diffuse:
- anti-topoisomerase II (Scl-70)

334
Q

limited scleroderma (=CREST) histology

A

increased collagen in skin and organs

“onion skin” thickening of arterioles

335
Q

diffuse scleroderma histology

A

inflammation within or around muscle fibres

336
Q

polymyositis & dermatomyositis

A

skeletal muscle disorders characterised by progressive muscle weakness and inflammation on muscle biopsy

associated with underlying malignancy:
- DM - ovarian, pancreatic, NHL
- PM - lung, bladder, NHL

337
Q

autoantibody polymyositis & dermatomyositis

A

anti Jo-1
(=tRNA synthetase)

raised CK/LDH/myoglobin & abnormal EMG

338
Q

polymyositis & dermatomyositis histology

A

polymyositis:
- endomysial inflammatory infiltrate

dermatomyositis:
- “drop out” of capillaries and myofibre damage

339
Q

SLE signs & symptoms

A

4 of 11 ACR criteria (SOAP BRAIN MD)

  • serositis
  • oral ulcers
  • arthritis
  • photosensitivity
  • blood disorders (AIHA, ITP, leucopenia)
  • renal involvement
  • ANA +ve
  • immune phenomena (dsDNA, anti-Sm, antiphospholipid Ab)
  • neuro symptoms
  • malar rash
  • discoid rash
340
Q

limited scleroderma (=CREST) signs & symptoms

A

distal skin involvement only

  • calcinosis
  • raynaud’s
  • esophegaeal dysmotility
  • sclerodactyly
  • telangiectasia

rare renal and heart disease

associated with pulmonary hypertension at very old age

341
Q

diffuse scleroderma signs & symptoms

A

skin changes can occur anywhere (distal and proximal)

  • tendon friction
  • raynaud’s phenomenon

widespread organ involvement, early heart, GI and renal disease

associated with pulmonary fibrosis

342
Q

polymyositis & dermatomyositis signs & symptoms

A

proximal muscle weakness -> difficulty performing gross motor tasks (e.g., getting up from a chair, climbing steps, combing hair etc)

DM has cutaneous features:
1. heliotrope rash with eyelid oedema
2. gottron papules (erythema w knuckles w raised scaly eruption)
3. systemic V-shaped rash
4. facial rash

associated w pulmonary fibrosis

343
Q

examples of large/medium/small vessel vasculitides

A

large vessel:
- Takayasu’s arteritis
- Temporal arteritis (GCA)

medium vessel:
- polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
- Buerger’s disease

small vessel:
- granulomatosis with polyangiitis
- eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
- microscopic polyangiitis
- Henoch Schonlein Purpura

344
Q

Takayasu’s arteritis

A

large vessel
- affects branches of the aortic arch
- inflammatory phase -> FLAWS
- pulseless phase -> “pulseless”, claudication, colds hands
- more common in Japanese women

345
Q

temporal arteritis (GCA)

A

large vessel
- elderly; scalp tenderness, temporal headache, jaw claudication, blurred vision, non-palpable temporal pulse, raised ESR, age >50
- overlap with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
- investigation: ESR (1st), temporal artery biopsy (definitive)
- histology: granulomatous transmural inflammation + giant cells + skip lesions
- management: oral pred IMMEDIATELY

346
Q

polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

A

medium vessel
- renal involvement is main feature
- can involve other organs but spares lungs
- 30% have underlying Hep B
- microaneurysms on angiography (‘string of pearls/rosary bead appearance’)
- histology: fibrinoid necrosis & neutrophil infiltration

347
Q

Buerger’s disease

A

medium vessel
- heavy smokers, usually men < 35 years
- inflammation of arteries of extremities - usually tibial and radial
- pain; ulceration of toes, feet, fingers
- angiogram: corkscrew appearance from segmental occlusive lesions

348
Q

granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

small vessel
triad of:
- upper resp tract: sinusitis, epistaxis, saddle nose
- lower resp tract: cavitation, pulmonary haemorrhage
- kidneys: crescenteric glomerulonephritis -> haematuria & proteinuria

cANCA + ve

349
Q

eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

small vessel
- asthma, allergic rhinitis
- eosinophilia
- later systemic involvement

pANCA + ve

350
Q

microscopic polyangiitis

A

small vessel
- pulmonary renal syndrome:
pulmonary haemorrhage
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
pANCA +ve

351
Q

Henoch Schonlein Purpura

A

small vessel
- IgA mediated vasculitis
- in children 3-15 yrs
- preceding URTI -> glomerulonephritis
triad of:
- purpuric rash on lower limb extensors + buttocks
- abdo pain
- arthralgia

352
Q

what is amyloidosis?

A

multisystem disorder caused by abnormal folding of proteins that are deposited as amyloid fibrils in tissues, disrupting their normal function.
there are at least 20 forms but just 2 needed for path:
- beta-pleated sheet structure
- resistant to enzyme degradation

353
Q

primary amyloidosis (AL amyloidosis)

A
  • most common
  • deposition of Ig light chains
  • most associated with multiple myeloma (although most don’t have multiple myeloma)
  • most have monoclonal Ig, free light chains in serum and urine (Bence Jones) and increased bone marrow plasma cells
354
Q

secondary amyloidosis (AA amyloidosis)

A

amyloid formed from serum amyloid A = acute phase protein, therefore build up occurs secondary to chronic infections / inflammation
- e.g., autoimmune diseases (60%): RA, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD
- e.g., chronic infections: TB osteomyelitis, IVDU (skin infections)
- non-immune: renal cell carcinoma, Hodgkin’s

355
Q

haemodialysis associated amyloidosis

A

deposition of beta2-microglobulin
- usually occurs in someone with longstanding chronic renal failure esp. if they are on peritoneal dialysis
- associated with carpal tunnel syndrome

356
Q

amyloidosis clinical features

A

caused by amyloid deposits in various organs:
- kidney: nephrotic syndrome = most common presentation
- heart: restrictive cardiomyopathy, conduction defects, heart failure, cardiomegaly
- liver/spleen: hepatosplenomegaly
- tongue: macroglossia in 10%
- neuropathies: including carpal tunnel

357
Q

amyloidosis stain

A

apple green birefringence with Congo red stain under polarised light

358
Q

what is sarcoidosis?

A

a multisystem disease of unknown cause, commonly affecting young adults, characterised by non-caseating granulomas in many tissues

359
Q

sarcoidosis histology

A

non-caseating granulomas
also get Schaumann and asteroid bodies (inclusion of proteins and calcium)

360
Q

sarcoidosis extra-pulmonary manifestations

A

skin
- erythema nodosum (tender red nodules on shins), lupus pernio (red/purple lesions around nose), skin nodules

LNs
- lymphadenopathy, painless and rubbery

joints
- arthritis, bone cysts

eyes
- anterior uveitis; misting of vision and painful red eye
- posterior uveitis; progressive visual loss
- uveoparotid fever; bilateral uveitis, parotid enlargement +/- facial nerve palsy (Heerfordt’s syndrome)
- keratoconjuctivitis, lacrimal gland enlargement

liver/spleen
- hepatosplenomegaly

blood
- leukopenia/anaemia

hypercalcaemia/hypercalciuria
- renal calculi + nephrocalcinosis

heart
- dysrhythmias, cardiomyopathy, conduction defects, pericarditis, valvular lesions

CNS involvement

constitutional Sx
- malaise, fever, weight loss, night sweats

361
Q

sarcoidosis investigations

A
  • raised Ca2+
  • raised ESR
  • raised ACE
  • transbronchial biopsy -> non-caseating granuloma
  • spirometry -> restrictive
362
Q

associated pathology of fontana stain

A

+ve for melanin - melanoma

363
Q

associated pathology of congo red stain + apple green birefringence

A

+ve for amyloid - amyloidosis

364
Q

associated pathology of rhodanine stain

A

golden brown against blue counterstain
+ve for copper - Wilson’s disease

365
Q

associated pathology of prussian blue

A

+ve for iron - haemochromatosis

366
Q

associated pathology of Perl’s stain

A

+ve for iron - haemochromatosis

367
Q

associated pathology of cytokeratin stain

A

+ve for epithelial cells - carcinoma

368
Q

associated pathology of CD45 stain

A

+ve for lymphoid cells - lymphocytes

369
Q

associated pathology of Ziehl-Neelson stain

A

red against a blue background
+ve for acid-fast bacillii - TB

370
Q

associated pathology of Rhodamine-Auramine stain

A

bright yellow - TB

371
Q

associated pathology of india ink stain

A

yeast cells surrounded by halos - cryptococcus neoformans

372
Q
A