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Histology MCBM Exam 2 > Histology Practice Questions > Flashcards

Histology Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Connective Tissue matrix refers to:
A. Cells & fibers
B. Cells, Fibers & Ground Substance
C. Cells & Ground Substance
D. Ground substance & Tissue Fluid
E. Fibers & Ground Substance
A

E. Fibers & Ground Substance

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2
Q

All of the following are true of fibroblasts EXCEPT:
A. Have lots of rough ER and store collagen
B. Produce connective tissue matrix and are important in wound healing
C. Are the most common cell type in loose connective tissue
D. Arise from mesenchymal cells and other fibroblasts
E. A & B

A

A. Have lots of rough ER and store collagen

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3
Q

Collagen:
A. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
B. Is broken down by the action of procollagen peptidases
C. Consists of polymerized molecules of tropocollagen
D. Is resistant to heat
E. All of the above

A

C. Consists of polymerized molecules of tropocollagen

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4
Q

Collagen:
A. Consists of polymerized molecules of procollagen
B. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
C. Is synthesized by a variety of cell types
D. Is broken down by the action of procollagen peptidases
E. All of the above

A

C. Is synthesized by a variety of cell types

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5
Q 
Tropocollagen:
A. Polymerizes to form procollagen
B. Requires vitamin D as a coenzyme for the hydroxylation of proline
C. Contains 3 chains of amino acids
D. Contains a registration peptide
E. All of the above
A

C. Contains 3 chains of amino acids

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of procollagen?
A. It polymerizes to form collagen microfibrils
B. In type I, it contains one alpha-1 and two alpha-2 amino acid chains
C. Requires vit. D which acts as a coenzyme for procollagen hydroxylase
D. All of the above
E. A & C

A

D. All of the above

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7
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning collagen?
A. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
B. Is broken down by the action of procollagen hydroxylase
C. Consists of polymerized molecules of procollagen
D. Is resistant to heat
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

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8
Q 
Which of the following best describes the classification of tendons?
A. Areolar connective tissue
B. Reticular connective tissue
C. Dense irregular connective tissue
D. Dense regular connective tissue
E. Hematopoietic connective tissue
F. Supportive connective tissue
A

D. Dense regular connective tissue

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9
Q 
Type II collagen is secreted by:
A. Chondroblasts
B. Fibroblasts
C. Smooth muscle cells
D. Osteoblasts
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

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10
Q

Hyaluronic acid:
A. Is a sulfated glycosaminoglycan (GAG)
B. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
C. Is secreted by certain bacteria
D. Is one of the basic molecules of collagen
E. None of the above

A

B. Increases the viscosity of ground substance

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11
Q 
Elastic fibrils:
A. Contain a central amorphous region surrounded by microfibrils
B. Are heat labile
C. Have the capacity to stretch
D. Are synthesized by elastocytes
E. A & C
A

E. A & C

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12
Q 
Cells responsible for the production of areolar connective tissue matrix are:
A. Chondroblasts
B. Mast Cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Macrophages
E. None of the above
A

C. Fibroblasts

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13
Q 
Which of the following cell types are responsible for the synthesis and storage of fat?
A. Mast cells
B. Adipocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Mesenchymal cells
E. B & C
A

B. Adipocytes

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14
Q

Which of the following is true of unilocular adipose tissue?
A. Brown in color
B. Gland-like appearance
C. Has limited distribution in body
D. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contain only one fat droplet
E. B & C

A

D. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contain only one fat droplet

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of unilocular adipose tissue?
A. Yellow in color
B. Good blood supply
C. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contains several lipid droplets
D. Has wide distribution in body
E. A & C

A

C. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contains several lipid droplets

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16
Q 
Macrophages are primarily derived from:
A. Basophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Fibroblasts
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

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17
Q 
Macrophages develop from which of the following?
A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. Lymphocytes
E. Mast cells
A

B. Monocytes

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18
Q 
Phagocytosis of bacteria is mainly a function of:
A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Fibroblasts
A

D. Neutrophils

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19
Q 
Heparin & Histamine are synthesized by which of the following?
A. Mast cells
B. Basophils
C. Plasma cells
D. All of the above
E. A & B
A

E. A & B

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20
Q 
Histamine is synthesized and released by which of the following cells?
A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Plasma cells
E. None of the above
A

C. Mast cells

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21
Q 
Humoral (circulating) antibodies are produced by:
A. Eosinophils
B. Plasma cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes
E. Mast cells
F. None of the above
A

B. Plasma cells

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22
Q 
The phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes is a function of:
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. Plasma cells
D. Fibroblasts
E. Adipocytes
F. Mast cells
G. Basophils
A

A. Eosinophils

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23
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_ is a stem cell that gives rise to many of the connective tissue cells:
A. Macrophages
B. Adipocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Mesenchymal cells
E. Satellite cells
A

D. Mesenchymal cells

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24
Q 
Which of the following is/are NOT considered to be phagocytic?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Macrophages
D. Mast cells
e. A & B
A

D. Mast cells

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25
Q 
Which of the following is/are NOT considered to be phagocytic?
A. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Neutrophils
E. A & C
A

E. A & C

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26
Q 
Loose, areolar connective tissue is more likely to be found in:
A. Ligaments
B. Superficial fascia
C. Perichondrium
D. Deep fascia
E. B & C
A

B. Superficial fascia

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27
Q 
The most common cells in loose connective tissue are:
A. Fibroblasts
B. Macrophages
C. Adipocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Plasma cells
A

A. Fibroblasts

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28
Q 
The most common leukocyte found in a normal blood smear:
A. Basophil
B. Plasma cells
C. Eosinophil
D. Neutrophils
E. Lymphocyte
A

D. Neutrophils

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29
Q 
The least common leukocyte found in a normal blood smear:
A. Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Eosinophil
D. Neutrophils
E. Monocyte
A

A. Basophil

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30
Q

The triple response of an acute injury to skin consist of changes which occur in the following order:

  1. Dilation of arterioles, dilation of capillaries, loss of fluid form vessels
  2. Appearance of bright red flare, appearance of dull red line, swelling
  3. Appearance of dull red line, appearance of bright red flare, swelling
  4. Dilation of capillaries, dilation of arterioles, loss of fluids from vessels

A. 1 & 2
B. 1 & 3
C. 2 & 4
D. 3 & 4

A

D. 3 & 4

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31
Q 
Dilation of capillaries in acute inflammation is initially due to:
A. Increase in osmotic pressure
B. Histamine release at time of injury
C. Decrease in hydrostatic pressure
D. Simple nerve (axonic) reflex
E. A & B
A

B. Histamine release at time of injury

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32
Q 
Tissue Fluid:
A. Bathes all living cells
B. Is known as amorphous ground substance
C. Is a filtrate of blood
D. All of the above
E. A & C only
A

E. A & C only

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33
Q 
Edema due to increases in capillary permeability may occur as a result of:
A. Starvation
B. Burns
C. Heparin relase
D. Histamine release
E. B & D
A

E. B & D

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34
Q 
Tissue fluid is:
A. An ultrafiltrate of blood
B. Maintained by fibroblasts in most tissues
C. Also known as ground substance
D. Found only in epithelial tissues
E. B & C only
A

A. An ultrafiltrate of blood

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35
Q 
The approximate diameter of the nucleus of a lymphocyte is:
A. 2-4 nm
B. 150-200 um (micrometers)
C. 2-4 mm
D. 15-20 nm
E. 7-10 um
A

E. 7-10 um

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36
Q 
Which of the following do NOT synthesize collagen?
A. Smooth muscle cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. Macrophages
E. Chondroblasts
A

D. Macrophages

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37
Q 
Upon leaving blood vessels, monocytes transform into:
A. Mesenchymal cells
B. Macrophages
C. Eosinophils
D. Fibroblasts
E. None of the above
A

B. Macrophages

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38
Q

Starvation may result in edema due to an increase in hydrostatic pressure.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B FALSE

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39
Q

Starvation may result in edema due to an decreased resorption.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A TRUE

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40
Q

Argyrophilia refers to the quality of reticular fibers to color red in responses to a PAS staining procedure.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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41
Q

Argyrophilia refers to the quality of reticular fibers to turn black in responses to a H & E.
True or False

A

False

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42
Q

Multilocular adipose tissue has a rich blood supply, is brown in color, and is gland-like appearance.
True or False

A

True

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43
Q

Diapedesis is the process by which leukocytes exit capillaries.
True or False

A

True

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44
Q

Lack of abscorbic acid (vit. C) will result in impaired collagen formation.
True or False

A

True

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45
Q

Tropocollagen of type I collagen consists of 3 chains of amino acids plus a registration peptide.
True or False

A

False (this is true of procollagen)

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46
Q

Which of the following concerning cartilage is TRUE?
A. Elastic cartilage is flexible due to presence of elastic fibers and absence of ground substances
E. Perichondrium is present in hyalin, elastic & fibrocartilage
C. Numerous ‘cell nests’ would indicate active interstitial growth
D. Cartilage repairs well because of its high degree of vascularity
E. A & C

A

C. Numerous ‘cell nests’ would indicate active interstitial growth

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47
Q 
Hyaline Cartilage is “hard” due to presence of:
A. Sulfated GAGs (glycosaminoglycans)
B. Lots of lacunae
C. Collagen fibrils
D. Dense periosteum
E. None of the above
A

A. Sulfated GAGs (glycosaminoglycans)

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48
Q

Hyaline cartilage:
A. Exhibits appositional and interstitial growth
B. Is absent from the long bones of individuals past the age of 30
C. Initially develops from mesenchymal cells
D. Contains collagen, elastic, and reticular fibrils in its matrix
E. A & C

A

E. A & C

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49
Q

Hyaline cartilage:
A. Is surrounded by a perichondrium containing chondrocytes and fibroblasts
B. Is avascular
C. And bone exhibit appositional and interstitial growth
D. Is absent from the bones of individuals past the age of 27
E. B & C

A

E. B & C

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50
Q 
Perichondrium is a sheath of connective tissue surrounding:
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. All of the above
E. A & B
A

E. A & B

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51
Q 
Hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, and fibrocartilage are similar in that they all:
A. Contain a perichondrium
B. Lack blood vessels
C. Develop into bone
D. Contain chondroiton sulfate
E. B & D
A

E. B & D

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52
Q

Hyaline cartilage and bone are similar in that they both:
A. Are categorized as supportive connective tissue
B. Contain collagen
C. Contain lacunae
D. Are present in the long bones of adults past the age of 30
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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53
Q 
Elastic cartilage lacks the following:
A. Chrondrocytes
B. Ground substance
C. Perichondrium
D. Chrondroiton sulfate
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

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54
Q

Chondroblasts lose the capability to divide once they are entrapped within lacunae.
True or False

A

Flase

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55
Q

Elastic cartilage is flexible due to presence of elastic fibers and lack of ground substance.
True or False

A

False

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56
Q 
The organic phase of bone matrix:
A. Constitutes 50% of the osteoid
B. Is synthesized by osteoclasts
C. Includes calcium hydroxyapatite crystals
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
A

A. Constitutes 50% of the osteoid

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57
Q

The “zone of maturation” in the epiphyseal plate is characterized by:
A. Mitoses of chondroblasts
B. Deposition of bone
C. Enlarged lacunae
D. Calcium deposits in the wall of enlarged lacunae
E. Resorption of bone

A

C. Enlarged lacunae

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58
Q 
The “zone of ossification” in the epiphyseal plate is characterized by:
A. Mitoses of chrondroblasts
B. Ca++ deposits in wall of lacunae
C. Deposition of bone
D. Resorption of bone
E. Enlarged lacunae
A

C. Deposition of bone

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59
Q 
The “zone of calcification” in the epiphyseal plate is characterized by:
A. Mitoses of chrondroblasts
B. Ca++ deposits in wall of lacunae
C. Deposition of bone
D. Resorption of bone
E. Enlarged lacunae
A

B. Ca++ deposits in wall of lacunae

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60
Q

Epiphyseal plates:
A. Appear at both ends of most long bones
B. Serve as growth centers of most long bones
C. Are sensitive to growth hormones
D. Exhibit interstitial growth
E. Are absent in the long bones of adults past the age of 30
F. All of the above

A

F. All of the above

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61
Q 
An Osteon:
A. Is the organic phase of bone matrix
B. Lacks calcium
C. Contains concentric lamellae of bone
D. Interconnects canalliculi
E. Is the immature form of an osteoblast
A

C. Contains concentric lamellae of bone

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62
Q 
Osteoid:
A. Is the organic phase of bone matrix
B. Is the calcified ground substance of bone
C. Includes calficied cartilage
D. Contains a central canal
E. B & D
A

A. Is the organic phase of bone matrix

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63
Q

Osteoblasts:
A. Are located in lacunae of compact bone
B. Increase in number in response to parathyroid hormone
C. Contribute to the interstitial growth of bone
D. Synthesize the organic phase of bone
E. Are absent in intramembranous bone formation

A

D. Synthesize the organic phase of bone

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64
Q 
Osteoclasts:
A. Are found on surfaces where bone is being eroded away
B. Normally are multinucleated
C. Are formed in response to calcitonin
D. All of the above
E. A & B
A

E. A & B

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65
Q

Osteoclasts:
A. Normally are multinucleated
B. Increase in number in responses to parathyroid hormone
C. Are found on surfaces where bone is being eroded away
D. All of the above
E. A & B

A

D. All of the above

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66
Q

Sharpey’s Fibers:
A. Connect the periosteum to the outer circumferential lamellae
B. Interconnect Volkmann’s and Haversian canals
C. Are found in all bony lamellae
D. Constitute the fibrous component of bone
E. C & D

A

A. Connect the periosteum to the outer circumferential lamellae

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67
Q 
Volkmann’s Canals:
A. Contain blood vessels
B. Interconnect with Haversian systems
C. Are also known as Howship’s lacunae
D. Run parallel with the long axis of bone
E. A & B
A

E. A & B

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68
Q 
Which of the following is formed by intramembranous bone formation?
A. Ulna
B. Periosteal bone collar
C. Frontal bone of the skull
D. Radius
E. Humerus
F. None of the above
G. B & C
A

G. B & C

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69
Q

Canalliculi are important because they:
A. Contribute to the strength of the bone
B. Provide channels for nutrients to the osteocytes
C. Seal the lacunae from Haversian canals
D. Provide a means of attachment for the periosteum
E. None of the above

A

B. Provide channels for nutrients to the osteocytes

70
Q

Long bones increase in diameter by:
A. Growth on endosteal side only
B. Growth on periosteal side and resorption on endosteal side
C. Growth on periosteal side only
D. Growth on endosteal side and resorption on periosteal side
E. Growth on both periosteal and endosteal sides

A

B. Growth on periosteal side and resorption on endosteal side

71
Q 
The region of bone formation in the epiphysis of a long bone is called:
A. Periosteal bud
B. Secondary center of ossification
C. Zone of ossification
D. Interstitital growth zone
E. Intramembranous bone formation
A

B. Secondary center of ossification

72
Q 
In bone, interstitial lamellae are located:
A. Within Haversian systems
B. Within the periosteum
C. In spongy bone only
D. Between Haversian systems
E. Adjacent to the endosteum
A

D. Between Haversian systems

73
Q 
Growth in diameter of bone is accomplished by the activities of osteoblasts located in the:
A. Endosteum
B. Periosteum
C. Epiphyseal plate
D. Secondary center of ossification
E. A & B
A

B. Periosteum

74
Q

The periosteal bone collar:
A. Surrounds the middle of the diaphysis
B. Is formed by intramembranous bone formation
C. Enhances the degeneration of the cartilage
D. All of the above
E. A & C

A

A. Surrounds the middle of the diaphysis

75
Q

Parathyroid hormone:
A. Increases blood Ca by decreasing osteoclast activity
B. Increases blood Ca by increasing osteoclast activity
C. Decreases blood Ca by increasing osteoclast activity
D. Decreases blood Ca by decreasing osteoclast activity
E. Has no effect on serum calcium levels

A

B. Increases blood Ca by increasing osteoclast activity

76
Q 
One stage in the repair of bone is characterized by the presence of immature or woven bone. This stage is called:
A. Callus
B. Procallus
C. Temporary callus
D. Spongy bone
77
Q 
One stage in the repair of bone is characterized by the presence of hyaline cartilage in the fracture site. This stage is called:
A. Procallus
B. Temporary Callus
C. Callus
D. Spongy bone
E. Intramembranous ossification
A

B. Temporary Callus

78
Q 
One stage in the repair of bone is characterized by the presence of dense connective tissue in the fracture site. This stage is called:
A. Callus
B. Procallus
C. Temporary Callus
D. Spongy bone
E. Lost cause
A

B. Procallus

79
Q

The first stage in the repair of a bone fracture is:
A. Formation of a procallus composed of fibrous connective tissue
B. Erosion of cartilage cells
C. Conversion of spongy bone to compact bone
D. Formation of a cartilaginous temporary callus
C. Conversion of compact into spongy bone

A

A. Formation of a procallus composed of fibrous connective tissue (CT containing fibroblasts, blood vessels, macrophages and fibers)

80
Q

Remodeling of bone:
A. Involves the activities of chondroblasts and osteoclasts
B. Is inhibited by parathyroid and calcitonin hormones
C. Occurs throughout life
D. Occurs only in spongy bone
E. All of the above

A

C. Occurs throughout life

81
Q

All of the following concerning Haversian systems are true EXCEPT:
A. The innermost lamellae is the ‘youngest’
B. They are reconstructed throughout life
C. They are orientated perpendicular to the long axis of bone
D. They contain blood vessels and endosteum in the central canals
E. They are usually surrounded by interstitial lamellae

A

C. They are orientated perpendicular to the long axis of bone

82
Q

Haversian systems:
A. Are formed by osteocytes in the periosteum
B. Are known as osteoids
C. Are oriented at right angles to the long axis of the bone
D. Includes a central canal surrounded by concentric lamellae
E. None of the above

A

D. Includes a central canal surrounded by concentric lamellae

83
Q

The formation of the periosteal bone collar and parietal bones are examples of intramembranous bone development.
TRUE OR FALSE

84
Q

Howship’s lacunae normally contain osteocytes.

TRUE OR FALSE

85
Q

Canalliculi provide a means of attachment for the periosteum

TRUE OR FALSE

86
Q

The lamellae nearest the Haversian canal is the youngest lamella of a Haversian system.
TRUE OR FALSE

87
Q

The organic phase of bone matrix is synthesized by osteoblasts.
TRUE OR FALSE

88
Q

The connective tissue lining Haversian and Volkmann’s canals is known as endosteum.
TRUE OR FALSE

89
Q

Immature and mature bone differ in their orientation of collagen fibers.
TRUE OR FALSE

90
Q

Volkmann’s canals interconnect with Haversian canals.

TRUE OR FALSE

91
Q

The secondary center of ossification occurs in the metaphysis.
TRUE OR FALSE

92
Q

The thin filaments in striated muscle contains:
A. Tropomyosin which binds the actin to myosin
B. F-actin which is composed of G-actin monomers
C. Troponin which stimulates the release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. All of the above
E. A & B

A

B. F-actin which is composed of G-actin monomers

93
Q 
Myofibers of skeletal muscles contain:
A. Fascicles
B. Myofilaments
C. Myofibrils
D. Endomysium
E. Collagen
F. B & C
94
Q

In a sarcomere, the:
A. I-band is composed of actin
B. A-band contains myosin which changes in length with each contraction
C. H-band is that area of A-band which is devoid of actin
D. Myosin molecules attach to the Z-band
E. A & C

95
Q

Muscle fibers are grouped into fascicles. Each fascicle is surrounded by connective tissue known as:
A. Perimysium
B. Endomysium
C. Epimysium

A

A. Perimysium

96
Q 
A sarcomere contains all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Myosin
B. Troponin
C. Myofilaments
D. Myofibrils
E. G-actiN
A

D. Myofibrils

97
Q

The repeating unit of structure and function in a skeletal muscle fiber, called a sarcomere is:
A. The distance from A-band to Z-band
B. An A-band plus one adjacent I-band
C. The length between two successive Z-bands containing one A-band plus 1/2 of each adjacent I-band
D. The distance between successive m-bands
E. None of the above

A

C. The length between two successive Z-bands containing one A-band plus 1/2 of each adjacent I-band

98
Q

The repeating unit of structure and function in a skeletal muscle fiber, called a sarcomere is:
A. Contains actin only
B. Consists of an A-band plus one adjacent Z-band
C. The distance between 2 successive m-bands
D. The distance between two successive Z-bands
E. A & D

A

D. The distance between two successive Z-bands

99
Q

During contraction of skeletal muscle, all of the following occur EXCEPT:
A. I-band decreases in width
B. Distance between Z-lines decreases
C. Thick and thin myofilaments interdigitate
D. Width of A-band remains constant
E. Width of H-band remains constant

A

E. Width of H-band remains constant

100
Q

During contraction of skeletal muscle, the:
A. Width of the A-band remains constant
B. I-band becomes narrower
C. Thick and thin filaments interdigitates
D. The distance between Z-lines decreases
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

101
Q 
Endomysium envelopes individual:
A. Myofibers
B. Myofibrils
C. Muscle fascicles
D. Sarcomeres
E. None of the above
A

A. Myofibers

102
Q 
The I-band of skeletal muscle contains which of the following?
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. H-band
D. All of the above
E. B & C
103
Q 
T-tubules of skeletal muscles:
A. Are located along Z-lines
B. Store glycogen
C. Are continuous with sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Are continuous with the cell membrane
E. Are continuous with the sarcolemma
F. A & D
G. A & E
H. D & E
104
Q 
T-tubules of skeletal muscles:
A. Store calcium
B. Are continuous with sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Are located along Z-lines
D. Are continuous with the cell membrane
E. A & D
A

D. Are continuous with the cell membrane

105
Q 
Which of the following is true only of cardiac muscles (in relation to other muscle cell types)?
A. Presence of T-tubules
B. Branching cells
C. Multinucleated cells
D. Devoid of glycogen
E. Centrally placed nuclei
A

B. Branching cells

106
Q 
Cardiac muscles may be differentiated from other muscle types in that it contains:
A. Multinucleated cells
B. T-tubules along Z-lines
C. Intercalated discs
D. All of the above
E. B & C
107
Q

Cardiac muscle:
A. Has cells containing a single peripheral nucleus
B. Is innervated by parasympathetic fibers which decrease contraction rate
C. Contains more actin per cell than skeletal muscle, but lacks myosin
D. Has cells that are connected side-to-side by intercalated disks
E. Like smooth muscle, has branching cells

A

B. Is innervated by parasympathetic fibers which decrease contraction rate

108
Q 
In a relaxed muscle, Ca is sequestered in the:
A. Sarcosomes
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Sacrolemma
D. Sarcomere
E. T-tubules
A

B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

109
Q

Which of the following is true concerning smooth muscle cells?
A. Lack cross striations due to lack of myofilaments
B. Contain a single peripheral nucleus
C. Synthesize collagen and ground substance
D. Lack mitotic capabilities
E. All of the above

A

C. Synthesize collagen and ground substance

110
Q

Skeletal muscle contains:
A. Epimysium which surround individual fascicles
B. Intercalated disks which provide for end-to-end between cells
C. Myofibrils which are small group of myofibers
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum which in turn contain calcium
E. All of the above

A

D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum which in turn contain calcium

111
Q

Skeletal muscle contains:
A. Epimysium which surround individual fascicles
B. Intercalated disks which provide for end-to-end between cells
C. Myofibrils which are small group of myofibers
D. H-bands in the center of A-bands
E. None of the above

A

D. H-bands in the center of A-bands

112
Q

All of the following are true concerning smooth muscles EXCEPT:
A. Non-striated since it lacks myosin
B. Synthesizes connective matrix
C. Contains side-to-side attachments known as gap junctions (nexus)
D. Has regenerative capabilities
E. Is classified as an involuntary muscle

A

A. Non-striated since it lacks myosin

113
Q

Smooth muscle cells:
A. Retain mitotic capabilities
B. Lacks cross striations due to an absence of myosin
C. Contain a single peripheral nucleus
D. Are joined by tight and gap junctions which participate in cell-to-cell transmission of impulses
E. A & D

114
Q

Skeletal muscle triads:
A. ContaIn 3 nuclei
B. Are groups of 3 muscle fibers wrapped in epimysium
C. Consists of sarcolemma and terminal cisternae
D. Are concerned with protein synthesis
E. Include 2 boxers and 1 referee

A

C. Consists of sarcolemma and terminal cisternae

115
Q

Intercalated discs are typically found in cardiac and smooth muscles.
TRUE OR FALSE

116
Q

Within muscle cells, lysosomes are known as sarcomeres.

TRUE OR FALSE

117
Q

Muscle enlargement as a result of exercise is due to an increase in the number of myofibrils.
TRUE OR FALSE

118
Q

Muscle enlargement as a result of exercise is due to an increase in the number of myofibers.
TRUE OR FALSE

119
Q

A sarcomere is defined as the portion of one myofibril between 2 M lines.
TRUE OR FALSE

120
Q

During skeletal muscle membrane depolarization, Ca leaves the sarcoplasmic reticulum and attaches to troponin.
TRUE OR FALSE

121
Q

Cardiac muscles like smooth muscles contain branching cells.

TRUE OR FALSE

122
Q

Troponin, tropomyosin, and F-actin are all components of an actin filament.
TRUE OR FALSE

123
Q

Skeletal muscle triads are groups of 3 myofibers wrapped in endomysium.
TRUE OR FALSE

124
Q

Skeletal muscle contains a sarcoplasmic reticulum that release Ca during membrane depolarization.
TRUE OR FALSE

125
Q

In a sarcomere, the H-band is devoid of actin.

TRUE OR FALSE

126
Q

T-tubules in skeletal muscles cells are continuous with the sarcolemma.
TRUE OR FALSE

127
Q

T-tubules in cardiac muscles are located along Z-lines.

TRUE OR FALSE

128
Q

Smooth muscle cells lack cross-striations due to absence of myosin.
TRUE OR FALSE

129
Q

During contraction of skeletal muscle, the width of the A-band remains constant.
TRUE OR FALSE

130
Q

Smooth muscle is classified as an involuntary muscle since it is innervated by somatic efferent nerve fibers.
TRUE OR FALSE

131
Q

Cardiac muscles may be differentiated from other muscle types in that it contains intercalated discs and multinucleated cells.
TRUE OR FALSE

132
Q

A motor end plate (myoneural junction) is:
A. A tight junction
B. A junction between an axon terminal and sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. A junction between a terminal cisterna and a T-tubule
D. Present only in cardiac muscle
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

133
Q

A motor end plate (myoneural junction) is:
A. A tight junction
B. A junction between an axon terminal and sarcolemma
C. A junction between a terminal cisterna and a T-tubule
D. Present only in cardiac muscle
E. When activated, releases calcium into a T-tubule

A

B. A junction between an axon terminal and sarcolemma

134
Q

Which of the following is true concerning Nissi bodies:
A. They function in protein synthesis
B. They function in energy production
C. They package nurotransmitters
D. May be found in axons
E. Are used by podiatry students to learn gross anatomy
F. A & C

A

A. They function in protein synthesis

135
Q 
Somatic afferent (sensory) neurons are classified as:
A. Unipolar
B. Pseudounipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Nonpolar
E. Bipolar
A

B. Pseudounipolar

136
Q 
Motor fibers innervating skeletal muscle are classified as:
A. Somatic efferent
B. Visceral afferent
C. Somatic afferent
D. Sympathetic
E. A & C
A

A. Somatic efferent

137
Q 
Endoneurium contains:
A. Collagen
B. Schwann cell cytoplasm
C. Myelin
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
A

D. All of the above

138
Q 
Which of the following is NOT found in the perikaryon of a neuron?
A. Nuclues
B. Nissi bodies
C. Boutons
D. Granules
E. mitochondria
A

C. Boutons

139
Q 
Which of the following is NOT found in the cell bodies of a neuron?
A. Nissi bodies
B. Boutons
C. Mitochondria
D. Microtubules
E. heterochromatin
A

B. Boutons

140
Q 
Each of the following describes a typical neuron EXCEPT:
A. May have 2 or more axons
B. Contains Nissi bodies
C. May have multiple dendrites
D. Has a cell body known as a perikaryon
E. Is specialized for impulse conduction
A

A. May have 2 or more axons

141
Q 
A collection of nerve cell bodies outside of the CNS is referred to as a:
A. Gray matter
B. Synapse
C. Plexus
D. Ganglion
E. Spinal nerve
A

D. Ganglion

142
Q

Which of the following statements concerning ganglia is TRUE?
A. Parasympathetic ganglia have central nuclei and are usually located within the viscera innervated
B. Neurons associated with the dorsal root (spinal) ganglia may be either pseudounipolar or multipolar
C. Preganglionic sensory fibers synapse in the dorsal root ganglia; the postganglionic neurons then pass to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
D. A ganglion is a collection of nerve cell bodies outside of the CNS
E. None of the above

A

D. A ganglion is a collection of nerve cell bodies outside of the CNS

143
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning axons?
A. They may be identified by the presence of Nissi bodies
B. They have enlarged terminations known as telodendria
C. Bipolar cells are so-called due to the presence of 2 axons
D. They carry impulses to the perikaryon
E. None of the above

A

A. They may be identified by the presence of Nissi bodies

144
Q

Sympathetic ganglia:
A. Are usually found within the organ they innervate
B. Contain primarily bipolar neurons
C. Contain postganglionic sympathetic cell bodies
D. Are also known as dorsal root ganglia
E. Occur only between spinal segments T1 and L1 or L2

A

C. Contain postganglionic sympathetic cell bodies

145
Q 
Dorsal root ganglia:
A. Contain cell bodies of pseudounipolar neurons
B. Contain visceral afferent fibers
C. Contains somatic afferent fibers
D. All of the above
E. B & C
A

D. All of the above

146
Q

A bouton is:
A. A point of synapse between a dendrite and a cell soma
B. Also known as a telodendrion
C. An organelle that carries nerve impulses along an axon to the cell soma
D. An enlarged terminal ending of an axon
E. An enlarged terminal ending of a dendrite

A

D. An enlarged terminal ending of an axon

147
Q 
Which of the following is not found within the cell bodies of neurons?
A. Nissi bodies
B. Boutons
C. Mitochondrion
D. Microtubules
E. heterochromatin
A

B. Boutons

148
Q 
Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the:
A. Brainstem
B. Lateral gray of the spinal cord
C. Anterior horn of the spinal cord
D. Sympathetic ganglia
E. Dorsal root ganglia
A

B. Lateral gray of the spinal cord

149
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons:
A. Have their cell bodies located in the CNS
B. Are myelinated
C. Are classified as motor neurons
D. Secrete acetylcholine from their axon terminals
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

150
Q

The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic system:
A. Originate in the intermediolateral horn of the spinal cord
B. Enter paravertebral ganglia through white rami
C. Synapse with neurons located in prevertebral or paravertebral ganglia
D. All of the above
E. A & B

151
Q 
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter secreted by most \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ neruons.
A. Somatic efferent 
B. Preganglionic sympathetic
C. Postganglionic parasympathetic
D. Preganglionic parasympathetic
E. Postganglionic sympathetic
A

E. Postganglionic sympathetic

152
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the sympathetic chain ganglion?
A. White rami are associated with those ganglia attached to spinal nerves T1 to S1-S2
B. Grey rami are present on all sympathetic paravertebral ganglia
C. Preganglionic axons may be found in both white and grey rami
D. Schwann cells are associated only with the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic system
E. A & B

A

B. Grey rami are present on all sympathetic paravertebral ganglia

153
Q

The intervals between Schwann cells are referred to as “internodes”
TRUE OR FALSE

154
Q

Schwann cells are absent from those fibers classified as ‘unmyelinated’
TRUE OR FALSE

155
Q

Autonomic ganglion are similar to dorsal root ganglia in that they both carry sensory information only.
TRUE OR FALSE

156
Q

An unmyelinated fiber is one that lacks Schwann cells.

TRUE OR FALSE

157
Q

Gray rami contain postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

TRUE OR FALSE

158
Q

In general, the sympathetic system has short preganglionic neurons and long postganglionic neurons.
TRUE OR FALSE

159
Q

In general, preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic ganglia are longer than preganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
TRUE OR FALSE

160
Q

White rami are typically NOT found above spinal level C8.

TRUE OR FALSE

161
Q

Increase in blood pressure, dilation of eyes, and increses in heart rate results from stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.
TRUE OR FALSE

162
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle would result in an increase of the contraction rate.
TRUE OR FALSE

163
Q

The term ‘efferent fiber’ in reference to the PNS describes a neuron that carries sensory information towards the CNS.
TRUE OR FALSE

164
Q

The term ‘afferent fiber’ in reference to the PNS describes a neuron that carries sensory information towards the CNS.
TRUE OR FALSE

165
Q

Axoplasm is devoid of Nisse bodies.

TRUE OR FALSE

166
Q

The dissolution of Nissi bodies in response to nerve injury is referred to as chromatolysis.
TRUE OR FALSE

167
Q

An axodendritic synapse consists of presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes separated by a synaptic cleft.
TRUE OR FALSE

168
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete norepinephrine from their axon terminals.
TRUE OR FALSE

169
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete acetylcholine from their axon terminals.
TRUE OR FALSE

170
Q

The ANS projects the vast majority of its efferent fibers to skeletal muscle fibers.
TRUE OR FALSE

171
Q

Autonomic fibers may be found traveling within spinal nerves.
TRUE OR FALSE

172
Q

Neuronal cell bodies located in parasympathetic ganglia are cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
TRUE OR FALSE

Histology MCBM Exam 2 (1 decks)

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