Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

bhs 502 cells & molecules exam i > Histology of Mammalian Tissues > Flashcards

Histology of Mammalian Tissues Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four major tissue types?

A

Epithelial, Connective, Muscle and Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the four essential processes for generation of multicellular organism?

A

Proliferation, specialization, interaction, movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is histogenesis?

A

the formation or development of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At what point during early embryogenesis does histogenesis occur?

A

Begins at the gastrulation phase, which occurs on days 15 and 16 in early embryogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 germ layers?

A

Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During which phase of embryogenesis are the three germ layers generated?

A

Gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

The 4th phase of embryongenesis; is the process by which the three germ layers are generated and placed in the proper position in the embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 5 main phases of embryogenesis?

A

16 cell stage » Morulation » Blastulation » Gastrulation » Neurulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What organs does the Ectoderm give rise to?

A
  • The integumentary organs including the epidermis, hair, nails, epithelia of the nose, mouth and lower anal canal
  • The lens of the eye
  • The nervous system tissues (including adrenal medulla) & sensory placodes

Mnemonic:
Think “attracto”derm; things that attract us to others such as cosmetic features and “smarts”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What organs does the Mesoderm give rise to?

A
  • Musculoskeletal organs
  • Circulatory system organs (heart, blood, lymph, spleen)
  • Most excretory system organs* (kidney, urogenital ducts and glands)
  • Gonads
  • Muscular & connective tissue layers of the digestive and respiratory systems
  • The adrenal (suprarenal) cortex

Mnemonic:
Think “means”oderm, as in means of getting around as an organism - such as bones and muscles; means of getting around in the body - such as circulatory system; means of “getting around” - such as gonads (testes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What organs does the Endoderm give rise to?

A

-Epithelial linings of the digestive and respiratory tract, including the lungs, trachea & bronchi, pharynx, tonsils
-Pancreas
-Thyroid
-Bladder & distal urinary tracts
-Liver

Mnemonic:
Think linings of “endodernal” (internal) organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the common techniques used to visualize cells

A
  • Light Microscopy (various types)
  • Transmission EM (specimens fixated and embedded similar to LM
  • Scanning EM (used on thicker specimens or whole cells)
  • Freeze Fracture (specimens frozen w/o fixation and cleaved to expose inside of a cell for viewing)

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 basic steps of tissue prep?

A
  1. Fixation - to stabilize and prevent degradation
  2. Dehydration - remove water
  3. Clearing/Infiltration/Embedding - preserves structures
  4. Sectioning - done with microtome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Hematoxylin (H)?

A
  • A basic dye
  • stains acidic or “basophilic” material/structures blue/purple
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Eosin (E)?

A
  • An acidic dye
  • stains basic or “acidophillic” material/structures red/pink
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)?

A
  • another type of selective dye/stain that stains carbohydrates only, pink/red
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What’s the difference between direct & indirect Immunofluorescence?

A

Immunofluorescence is another method of tissue tagging used for visualizing & studying tissues under a microscope.

Direct - an antibody to the antigen/surface protein of interest is tagged directly with a fluorescent label and then binds to the antigen, making it identifiable

Indirect - A primary antibody binds to the antigen of interest and then secondary antibodies tagged with immunofluorescence then bind to the primary antibody, thus making it identifiable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is RNA in situ hybridization?

A

A tissue staining/tagging method used to identify proteins; specifically to know which proteins are being expressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What tissue type is the basis for gland formation?

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What tissue type is collectively bound to a basement.

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are two examples of specific types of epithelial tissue?

A

Endothelium – epithelium lining blood vessels
Epidermis – epithelium of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the primary functions of epithelium/epithelial tissue?

A

P.L.E.A.S.S.R.

Protection - epidermis
Lubrication - present in pleura, pericardium, peritoneum; allows movement of organs within cavities
Excretion - kidney
Absorption - GI tract cells
Secretion - secretory cells within glands derived from epithelial cells
Sensory - many sensory cells are derived from epithelial tissue
Reproduction - in males; sperm are modified epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the main structural features of epithelium?

A
  • Sits on basement membrane
  • Avascular; no blood vessels
  • functionally and structurally polarized cells (normally)
  • Form cell-cell or cell-basement membrane attachments via specialized cell junctions
  • Can be derived from all 3 germ layers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two domains of a polarized epithelial cell?

A
  • Apical domain
    -Basal/basolateral domain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which polarized cell domain of epithelial cells will contain cilia, microvilli, or stereocilia?

A

Apical domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the interface between epithelial cells and the underlying supportive connective tissues?

A

The Basal Lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the primary functions of the basal lamina?

A
  • Permits the movement of nutrients & metabolites between blood & epithelial cells
  • Plays a role in cell growth and proliferation
  • Influences cell metabolism and cell-to-cell interactions/signaling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 4 major types of Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs)?

A

-cadherins (stable connections/interactions between like cells)
-integrins
-selectins (connections/interactions can be more transient;
-Ig-superfamily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What structural features help to maintain the polarity of epithelial cells?

A

The various cell-cell or cell-membrane junctions they contain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which two cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) mediate WBC migration?

A

Weak adhesion/rolling in WBC migration = Selectin-dependent
Strong adhesion & emigration in WBC migration = Integrin-dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the major epithelial cell junctions?

A
  • tight junctions
  • adherens junctions
  • desmosomes
  • gap junctions
  • hemidesmosomes
  • actin-linked cell-matrix adhesion junctions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 4 main types of epithelial cell junctions?

A
  • Occluding (tight junctions)
  • Cell-cell anchoring (adherens & desmosomes)
  • Channel-forming (gap junctions)
  • Cell-matrix anchoring (hemidesmosomes, actin-linked adhesion anchors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which epithelial cell junction forms zonula occludens complexes?

A

Tight junctions

These complexes contain shared strands of trans-membrane proteins connected in the extracellular space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which epithelial cell junction forms zonula adherens complexes?

A

Adherens & actin linked adhesion anchors

These complexes contain actin filaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which epithelial cell junction forms macula adherens complexes?

A

Desmosomes

These complexes contain intermediate filaments and form “desmoglains” in the extracellular space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which epithelial cell junction forms nexus complexes?

A

Gap junctions

These complexes contain connexons between cells in the extracellular space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which epithelial cell junction forms hemidesmosome complexes?

A

Hemidesmosome junctions

These complexes contain integrins (transmembrane receptor proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three apical modifications that can be made to epithelial cells?

A
  • microvilli
  • motile cilia
  • stereocilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the features and function of microvilli?

A
  • short, non-motile cytoplasmic projections
  • made of actin & actin-binding proteins
  • function is to increase surface area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the features and function of stereocilia?

A
  • long, non-motile cytoplasmic projections
  • made of actin & actin-binding proteins
  • function is to increase surface area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the features and function of motile cilia?

A
  • long, motile cytoplasmic projections
  • made of microtubules
  • function is to move fluid, mucous, & cells over the surface of epithelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What class of epithelial tissue can be found in the endothelium (lining of blood vessels), body cavities (mesothelium), respiratory alveoli, or in the Bowman’s capsule of the kidney?

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What class of epithelial tissue can be found in the epidermis (skin), oral cavity, esophagus, and vagina AND can be keratinized or non-keratinized?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the 4 major tissue types are exocrine and endocrine glands derived from?

A

Epithelial tissue

39
Q

What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

A

Endocrine glands - made up of epithelial cells that secrete into the blood stream; indirect secretion (products are carried through blood stream to targeted destination

Exocrine glands - made up of epithelial cells that are organized into specific units that secrete into a tubular network of ducts; more direct secretion

40
Q

Where does mitosis of epithelial cells or epithelial renewal occur in stratified epithelial tissues?

A

Mitosis or cell renewal/repair occurs at the basal layer of epithelial tissues.

41
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

tumor of epithelial origin or tissue

42
Q

What is an adenocarcinoma?

A

tumor of glandular epithelial tissue

43
Q

Epithelial cells contribute to the ________ of an organ.

A

parenchyma

44
Q

Connective tissue cells contribute to the _________ of an organ.

A

stroma (support structure)

45
Q

__________ tissue underlies and supports the other basic tissues; is a collection of cells and extracellular matrix consisting of fibers and a “grounding substance” (stroma).

A

Connective

46
Q

Cartilage, bone, adipose tissue, blood, tendons, ligaments, collagen, and elastin are all examples of types of what tissue?

A

Connective

47
Q

Connective tissue “proper” can be classified into 3 categories. What are they?

A

loose - areolar; can contain immune cells (amongst lamina propia)

dense - more fibrous/containing more collagen; can be dense regular, or dense irregular

48
Q

What are the primary functions of connective tissue?

A
  • Provides and maintain shape in body
  • structural and metabolic support
  • Stores fat as adipose tissue
  • Involved in defense and protection
  • Involved in wound healing, tissue repair
  • Facilitates signaling; cell membrane receptors bind matrix molecules to control adhesion, differentiation &cell cycle
49
Q

Connective tissue is derived primarily from which germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

50
Q

All connective tissue cells are innervated and vascular except for ______

A

cartilage

51
Q

________ is made up of cells that perform the major functions of the organ; derived mainly from epithelial cells.

A

Parenchyma

52
Q

_________ is a support structure that connects & supports other elements of tissues throughout the body; derived mainly from connective tissue cells.

A

Stroma

53
Q

There are 4 types of specialized connective tissue. What are they?

A
  • Cartilage
  • Blood
  • Bone
  • Adipose/fat
54
Q

From which stem cell lineage does fat cells (adipocytes) & bone cells (osteocytes & osteoblasts), fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and smooth muscle cells originate from?

A

Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

55
Q

From which stem cell lineage does blood cells (RBC’s & WBC’s), plasma cells, and osteoclasts originate from?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

56
Q

List the resident cells of connective tissue.

A
  • fibroblasts
  • adipocytes
  • pericytes
  • mast cells
  • tissue specific macrophages
  • stem cells
57
Q

What are the transient cells of connective tissue?

A

most other WBC’s; they are involved in defense and thus do not always remain in connective tissues.

58
Q

_______ are the principle cell of connective tissue; Responsible for the synthesis of the extracellular matrix fibers (collagen, elastic and reticular fibers) and ground substance; Rarely divide, but mitosis resumes during wound healing

A

Fibroblasts

59
Q

_______ connective tissue cell that is involved in energy storage, insulation, cushioning of organs and secretion of hormones (such as leptin and insulin); large cell size; non-membrane bound

A

Adipocytes

60
Q

What are two hormones secreted by adipocytes that are involved in weight control?

A

Leptin - produced exclusively by adipocytes; reduces appetite (obese people have high levels & are thus thought to be resistant to leptin activity).

Insulin - stimulates glucose uptake into cells and synthesis of triglycerides

61
Q

________ are a type of connective tissue that develop in the bone marrow and then differentiate in the connective tissue; large cells filled with basophilic granules; immune cell function that can cause immediate hypersensitivity reactions in tissues when activated

A

Mast cells

62
Q

What are the 3 secretory products of Mast cells?

A

Heparin – acts locally as an anticoagulant

Histamine – promotes increased vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction.

Chemotactic factors – attract leukocytes

63
Q

_______ are a type of connective tissue that can be resident or transient/elicited; derived from monocytes in the blood; major function is phagocytosis of bacteria/viruses or cell debris

A

Macrophages

64
Q

Kupfer cells are specialized macrophages in the ______

A

liver

65
Q

Dust cells are specialized macrophages in the ______

A

lung

66
Q

Langerhans cells are specialized macrophages in the ______

A

epidermis

67
Q

Osteoclasts are specialized macrophages in the ______

A

bone

68
Q

Microglia are specialized macrophages in the ______

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

69
Q

The extracellular matrix consists of:

A

ground substance fibers including:
- Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs; unbranched acidic polysaccharide chains)
-Proteoglycans (GAGs w/ a protein core)
-Multi-adhesive glycoproteins

As well as collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers

70
Q

Heparan sulfate, keratan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate, and hyaluronic acid are all examples of what component of ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

71
Q

Laminin, chondronectin, osteonectin, and fibronectin are all examples of what component of ground substance?

A

Multiadhesive glycoproteins

72
Q

What is the most abundant type of collagen in the human body?

A

Collagen Type 1; occurs in helical bundles

73
Q

What collagen type occurs in the basal lamina?

A

Collagen Type 4

Mnemonic: Collagen type 4 is on the “floor”

74
Q

_______ are thinner than collagen fibers and are crosslinked with covalent bonds to generate an extensive cross-linked network that can stretch and recoil like a rubber band.

A

Elastic molecules

When crosslinked together to form network, it is called an elastic fiber.

75
Q

________ is a type of connective tissue that surrounds muscles, nerves, and bloods vessels; attaches and supports internal organs and skin; exists as a continuum; can be fine & web-like or dense and fibrous

A

Fascia sheets

76
Q

What are the 3 types of fascia connective tissues associated with skeletal muscles?

A

Epimysium - fascia that surrounds entire muscle tissues
Perimysium - fascia that surrounds each bundle of muscle fibers
Endomysium - fascia that surrounds each individual muscle fiber

77
Q

What are the 3 types of fascia connective tissues associated with nervous tissue?

A

Epineurium - fascia that surrounds entire nervous tissue
Perineurium - fascia that surrounds each bundle of axons
Endoneurium - fascia that surrounds each individual axon

78
Q

Which WBC has the ability to leave and return to the vascular circulatory system?

A

Lymphocytes

79
Q

About how many liters of blood does the average adult have?

A

5-6 liters

80
Q

______ is a type of specialized connective tissue that develops in the bone marrow and usually enters vascular circulation fully formed or mature.

A

Blood

81
Q

True or False:

RBC’s generally have the ability to leave the vascular system.

A

False

RBC’s and platelets generally remain in the vascular system

82
Q

True or False:

All WBC’s have to ability to BOTH leave and return to circulation/ the vascular system?

A

False

WBCs have the ability to leave the circulation and enter into the interstitial compartments.

However, of the WBCs, ONLY the lymphocytes can return to the vascular compartment.

83
Q

Gas & signaling transport, buffer system maintenance, body temp control, cellular/metabolic waste removal, immune function, and coagulation are all major functions of what specialized connective tissue?

A

Blood

84
Q

What is the normal pH of blood?

A

7.4

85
Q

What does the hematocrit lab value measure?

A

The volume of packed erythrocytes in a sample of blood

86
Q

What is the volume range of cells and plasma in human blood?

A

45-55% of total blood volume consists of cells and plasma

87
Q

What is a normal hematocrit lab value for males and females?

A

Males: 39-50%
Females: 35-45% (lower due to blood loss during menstruation)

88
Q

What percentage of the blood volume does WBC’s and platelets make up?

A

1%

89
Q

The fluid of the blood is called the ______

A

plasma

90
Q

Plasma that lacks coagulation factors (clotting factors/proteins & platelets) is called ______

A

serum

91
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the plasma?

A

Albumin

92
Q

Name the two clotting factor precursors present in blood plasma.

A

prothrombin and fibrinogen

93
Q

Plasminogen in a clotting factor that has what function?

A

Plasminogen forms the anti-clotting factor plasmin, which is involved in the breakdown of clots.

94
Q

What is the composition of separated whole blood?

A
  • Plasma will be the top layer
  • The buffy coat will be the middle layer
  • The erythrocytes will be at the bottom layer (due to being bound to heavy iron atoms carried by hemoglobin)
95
Q

Which layer of separated whole blood can WBC’s and platelets be found?

A

The buffy coat (middle) layer

96
Q

Which layer of separated whole blood can clotting factors, proteins, electrolytes, and other solutes be found?

A

The plasma (top) layer

97
Q

_______ is a avascular specialized connective tissue; functions in providing flexible support and template for bone formation; can be found in the respiratory system, joints, nose, spinal chord and external ear; “shock absorber” & pressure modulator

A

Cartilage

98
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

Hylaline - most common; nasal septum, joints, ribs

Elastic - contains elastic fibers; ear, larynx

Fibrocartilage - rows of chondrocytes w/ increased fibrous matrix; intervertebral discs, tendon/ligament attachments

99
Q

Support, protection, locomotion, calcium storage, and hematopoiesis are all functions of which specialized connective tissue?

A

Bone

100
Q
A
101
Q
A
102
Q
A

bhs 502 cells & molecules exam i (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions