Histology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between how hydrophilic and hydrophobic hormones are transported in the blood?

A

Hydrophilics (proteins, glycoproteins, peptides, modified amino acids) can travel straight in the blood

Hydrophobic (steroid and thyroid hormones) must travel bound to protein carriers

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2
Q

How does the pituitary gland develop?

A

During the third week of development, a hypophyseal pouch (Rathke’s Pouch) buds up from the roof of the mouth (ectoderm) while a neurohypophyseal bud grows down from the diencephalon (ectoderm from floor of brain).

The mouth pouch becomes the anterior/glandular pituitary or Adenohypophysis (including pars distalis, pars tuberalis, and pars intermedia)

The brain pouch becomes the posterior pituitary or Neurohypophysis (including pars nervosa and infundibulum/stalk attached to the hypothalamus via the median eminence) which secretes hormones via neurons

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3
Q

Why do the anterior and posterior pituitary stain differently?

A

Anterior is glandular tissue which is full of hormone granules

Posterior does not produce any hormones because they all come from neurons that originate outside of the pituitary

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4
Q

What is the hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract? What hormones are involved?

A

Bundle of axons that travel from the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei through the infundibulum to the neurohypophysis

Supraoptic nuclei produces ADH while paraventricular nuclei produces Oxytocin

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5
Q

Describe the blood supply of the pituitary gland (hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system). What is the importance of this portal system?

A

The superior hypophyseal artery supplies a plexus that surrounds the median eminence and infundibulum. The hypophyseal portal veins connect the primary plexus to a secondary plexus that surrounds the pars distalis.

The inferior hypophyseal artery supplies a (mostly) separate plexus for only the posterior pituitary

The portal plexuses carry neuropeptides produced by the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to either stimulate or inhibit hormones.

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6
Q

What are the common features of endocrine organs?

A

Parenchyma: cords or clumps of cells

Highly vascular: fenestrated capillaries

Ductless glands: not like exocrine

Stroma: reticular connective tissue and some nervous tissue

Secretes hormones: peptides, amino acid derivatives, steroids

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7
Q

Name the two types of acidophils in the anterior pituitary

A

Somatotrophs: Growth Hormone

Mammotrophs/lactotrophs: Prolactin

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8
Q

Name the basophils in the anterior pituitary

A

Thyrotrophs: TSH

Gonadotrophs: FSH and LH

Corticotrophs: ACTH

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9
Q

Where do the nuclei in the pars nervosa come from? What are Herring bodies?

A

The only nuclei are from Pituicytes (supporting cells) and capillary endothelial cells

Herring bodies are the neurosecretory vesicles at nerve endings

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10
Q

What are chromophobes?

A

Cells of the adenohypophysis that do not stain because they are non-secretory

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11
Q

What types of cells are found in the pars tuberalis?

A

Mostly gonadotrophs

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12
Q

What is the difference between the corticotrophs of the pars intermedia and those of the pars distalis?

A

The ones in the pars intermedia cleave POMC into two types of melanocyte stimulating hormones (MSH): y-LPH and B-endorphin

The ones in the distalis cleave POMC into ACTH

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13
Q

Where are hypothalamic hormones produced? What hypothalamic hormones regulate which hormones of the pars distalis?

A

Paraventricular nucleus, medial preoptic nucleus, arcuate nucleus

TRH (Somatostatin inhibits)—> Thyrotrophs (TSH)

TRH (dopamine inhibits) —> Lactotrophs (Prolactin)

GnRH —> Gonadotrophs (FSH and LH)

CRH —> Corticotrophs (ACTH)

GHRH (somatostatin inhibits) —> Somatotrophs (GH)

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14
Q

What type of axons are found in the pars nervosa?

A

Unmyelinated

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15
Q

How does negative feedback of hormones work? Use thyroid hormone as an example

How else are pars distalis hormones regulated?

A

TRH stimulates TSH release which stimulates TH release.
Hypothalamus recognizes an increase in body temp and inhibits TRH release. At the same time, TH binds TRH receptors on thyrotrophs and inhibits the release of TSH.

Outside inhibitory (or stimulatory) factors can also regulate hormone release. Ex) ghrelin from the stomach mucosa stimulates somatotropin release

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16
Q

What happens to ADH and oxytocin after they are released?

A

They get taken up into fenestrated capillaries

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17
Q

What does oxytocin do?

A

Stimulates contraction of uterine smooth muscle during child birth and myoepithelial cells in the mammary gland

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18
Q

What regulates the daily rhythms of bodily activity (including light/dark cycles and release of melatonin)?

A

Pineal gland

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19
Q

What makes up the Pineal gland? What is corpora arenacea?

A

Stoma: connective tissue capsule (pia mater) and septae (contain blood vessels) that divide it into lobules; fenestrated capillaries; corpora arenacea (calcified concretions that don’t do anything, but they can be used to distinguish the pineal)

Parenchyma: Pinealocytes (90% of cells) arranged in clumps and cords with one to two cell processes that extend to fenestrated capillaries; glial like cells in the interstitium.

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20
Q

How is the release of melatonin regulated?

A

Postganglionic sympathetics from the superior cervical ganglion stimulate release of melatonin in response to darkness

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21
Q

How can you tell the difference between pinealocytes and astrocytes in the pineal gland?

A

The pinealocytes have euchromatic nuclei and are clumped together

Astrocytes have darker, more elongated nuclei and are only found in the connective tissue septa.

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22
Q

What makes up the stroma of the thyroid?

A

Fibroelastic c.t. capsule and septae (which contain blood vessels)

Reticular cells and reticular fibers

Fenestrated capillaries

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23
Q

What makes up the parenchyma of the thyroid? What is secreted by the thyroid?

A

Millions of small thyroid follicles lined with simple cuboidal or low columnar epithelium (thyrocytes) and filled with an acidophilic, gelatinous colloid of the protein thyroglobulin

Between the thyrocytes (or between the follicles), large pale-staining C cells (parafollicular cells) can be found which secrete calcitonin for calcium metabolism.

Thyroglobulin is stored within the follicles to later be converted into thyroxine (T4) and tri iodothyronine (T3) which both help determine the basal metabolic rate of the body.

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24
Q

What can be found between follicles in the thyroid?

A

Parafollicular cells and capillaries

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25
Q

What is the difference between low columnar and squamous follicular cells? Describe the TEM of a follicular cell.

A

Low columnar represents an active follicle while squamous follicles are hypoactive.

Tight junctional complex at the top, attached to a basal lamina at the bottom. Very well developed RER and Golgi along with many lysosomes. Also have microvilli facing the lumen

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26
Q

Where can C cells be found (think about TEM)? What do they look like?

A

Closely associated with the follicular cells and inside the basement membrane, but often not contacting the lumen.

Large nucleus, large Golgi apparatus, extensive RER, and many dark granules containing calcitonin

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27
Q

How is iodide taken up by thyrocytes in order to produce T4 and T3?

A

Na/I symporters in the basolateral cell membrane.

I-/Cl- transporter (pendrin pumps) pumps I- from the cell into the lumen

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28
Q

Describe the process by which thyroid hormones are produced

A

1) thyrocytes make thyroglobulin and secrete it into the lumen
2) iodide (from the diet) is pumped across the cells into the lumen
3) membrane bound thyroid peroxidases convert iodide to iodine which is then added to tyrosine residues on thyroglobin. This produces MIT and DIT
4) MIT and DIT come together to form T3 and two DITs come together to form T4. However, both T3 and T4 are still attached to the glycoprotein backbone
5) Iodinated Thyroglobulin is endocytosed and degraded into active T3 and T4 which is then released into the capillaries.

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29
Q

How do T3 and T4 enhance metabolic activity? Which is more prevalent?

A

Increase number and size of mitochondria in cells

90% of thyroid hormone is in the T4 form

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30
Q

What regulates the function of the thyroid gland?

A

TSH receptors on the basement membrane of thyrocytes bind TSH which stimulates growth of cell height and stimulates all stages of thyroid hormone synthesis.

Thyroid hormones inhibit release of TSH. Cold exposure increases release of TSH while heat and stressful stimuli decrease it.

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31
Q

What is Graves Disease?

A

Autoimmune disorder in which antibodies cause overstimulation of follicular cells (by binding to TSH receptors and causing cAMP release) and release of thyroid hormones. Marked by weight loss, heat intolerance, sweating, etc.

TSH goes down due to negative feedback by T3 and T4, but it doesn’t matter because this bypasses that system!

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32
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

Reduced thyroid hormone levels caused by inflammation or inadequate secretion of TSH. Results in tiredness, weight gain, intolerance of cold, and decreased concentration.

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33
Q

Primary hypothyroidism

A

Most commonly idiopathic

TSH receptor blocking autoantibodies

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34
Q

Hashimoto Thyroiditis

A

Autoimmune that targets thyroid peroxidase (T3 and T4 can’t be produced)

Causes goiter and hypothyroidism

Lymphoid follicle appears next to thyroid follicles

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35
Q

When is calcitonin released? How does it work?

A

Secreted in response to elevated blood calcium

Directly inhibits osteoclasts which resorb bone

Causes kidney to excrete more calcium and phosphate

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36
Q

Parathyroid gland structure

A

4 ovoid structures on posterior side of the thyroid

Connective tissue capsule and trabeculae

Stroma: reticular cells and fibers

Highly vascular with fenestrated capillaries

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37
Q

Parathyroid parenchyma

A

Chief cells— produce PTH; organelles typical of a protein secreting cell; pale staining

Oxyphils— large, very eosinophilic cells; filled with mitochondria; function unknown; more prevalent in older people. Usually degenerated derivatives of chief cells

Adipocytes— 50% of cells in older patients

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38
Q

How does PTH work?

A

Polypeptide hormone secreted by chief cells

Causes osteoblasts to secrete an osteoclast stimulating factor (RANK) which increases both the number and activity of osteoclasts

The increases resorption of bone matrix increases the levels of blood Ca2+ and serum alkaline phosphatase.
Also indirectly increases Ca2+ by increasing vitamin D activity in small intestine (increases Ca2+ uptake)

Increased Ca2+ inhibits PTH release

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39
Q

Primary Hypoparathyroidism vs pseudoparathyroidism

A

Deficiency in PTH secretion due to damage, hereditary, or autoimmune

Leads to dense bones, spastic muscle contractions, convulsions, tetany, death

Pseudoparathyroidism— rare; abnormal PTH receptors causes hypocalcemia although PTH levels are high

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40
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism vs. malignant tumor

A

Usually a hormone secreting tumor of chief cells; causes thinning of bones, bone fractures. Deposits of bone in soft tissues

Malignant tumor (breast, lung, ovarian) may secrete a PTH related protein (PTHrP) leading to hypercalcemia

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41
Q

What effect does pineal destruction/tumor have on humans?

A

Precocious puberty in children

Contraception properties as well

A proper functioning pineal is important in defending against breast and prostate cancer

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42
Q

What is so nifty about the pineal gland?

A

It converts sensory information (light) into hormonal information (melatonin)

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43
Q

What type of drug might benefit a breast cancer patient with bone metastases?

A

PTH antagonist

Some breast cancer cells secrete PTHrP because they themselves have a PTH receptor that stimulates cell proliferation by PTHrP. However, the PTHrP also stimulates osteoblasts to oversecrete RANK

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44
Q

What is the endocrine function of the pancreas? Where does it occur?

A

Secrete insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide

Occurs in the islets of Langerhans.

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45
Q

What makes up the islets of langerhans?

A

Parenchyma: clusters of cells scattered throughout pancreas

Stroma: reticular cells and reticular fibers

Highly vascularized with fenestrated capillaries

10% of islet cells have autonomic innervation. Gap junctions exist between islet cells.

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46
Q

Describe the 4 types of cells found in the parenchyma of the exocrine pancreas

A

A or alpha cells (20% of cells)— secrete glucagon; react with silver stain; found in periphery of islets

B or beta cells (70% of cells)— secrete insulin; located in interior of islets

D or delta cells (5% of cells)— secrete somatostatin; scattered throughout islet

F cells (<1%)— secrete pancreatic polypeptide which inhibits exocrine secretion of pancreas.

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47
Q

Type 1 vs. Type 2 diabetes (beta cells)

A

Type 1— decreased number of B cells (destroyed by antibodies) and increased leukocyte infiltration

Type 2— variable number of B cells (with amyloid deposits) and islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP) deposits

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48
Q

What do the different zones of the adrenal cortex produce? What properties do all these cells share?

A

All produce steroid hormones

Zona glomerulosa— mineralcorticoids (aldosterone); stimulated by Ang II and high K+

Zona fasciculata— glucocorticoids (cortisol and corticosterone); stimulated by ACTH; exhibits negative feedback

Zona reticularis— sex steroids (weak androgens), DHEA (gets converted to testosterone in both men and women); stimulated by ACTH; exhibits neg feedback

Steroid producing cells have: Abundant SER, mitochondria with tubulovesicular cristae, lipid droplets (to supply the cholesterol precursor)

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49
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn disease) affects which zone of the cortex?

A

Elevated aldosterone due to an adenoma of the zona glomerulosa

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50
Q

Cushing syndrome

A

Caused by administration of large doses of steroids to treat primary disease.

Also caused by ACTH secreting adenoma (corticotrophs) or adrenal cortical adenoma

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51
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Caused by mutations in genes for steroid synthesizing enzymes—> increased level of androgens

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52
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison) vs. secondary insufficiency

A

Primary— caused by autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex; disrupts glucocorticoid feedback and causes oversecretion of ACTH

Secondary— hypothalamus or adenohypophysis disorder leading to decreased ACTH

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53
Q

Chromaffin cells

A

Make up the adrenal medulla

“Modified sympathetic ganglion” cells that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine

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54
Q

What distinguishes chromaffin cells from adrenal cortex cells? Which is bigger, NE or Epi granules?

A

Chromaffin cells stain lighter and are larger and clumped together in larger clumps than cortex cells

NE granules are bigger and darker than Epi

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55
Q

What is the origin of chromaffin cells? What about adrenal cortex?

A

Neural crest: they are modified postganglionic neurons that have lost their dendrites and axons

Cortex: comes from mesoderm

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56
Q

What neurotransmitter triggers the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?

A

ACh

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57
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Catecholamine producing tumor (secretes both epinephrine and NE) of the adrenal medulla

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58
Q

What is the importance of the blood supply of the adrenal gland?

A

Short arteries supply the cortex but only leave venous blood by the time it reaches the medulla

Long arteries bypass the cortex to supplement the medulla

The short arteries allow glucocorticoids from the cortex to be taken to the medulla because they are needed to for maintenance of the enzyme that produces Epi and NE. Also needed to inhibit development of neuronal cell processes.

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59
Q

Neuroblastoma

A

Neoplasm containing primitive neuro blasts (40% occur in the adrenal medulla)

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60
Q

What makes up the structure of the adrenal glands?

A

Dense connective tissue capsule that sends trabeculae into the parenchyma (that contain blood vessels and neurons probably)

Stroma: reticular fibers and reticulocytes

Parenchyma: cells that produce steroid hormones and catecholamines

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61
Q

What’s so special about the mitochondria of the adrenal cortex cells?

A

Tubulovesicular cristae instead of the shelf like kind.

Not only produce ATP but also contain enzymes for converting cholesterol to pregnenolone (along with the Smooth ER)

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62
Q

What primarily increases aldosterone secretion?

A

Angiotensin II and high K+ levels (only weakly stimulated by ACTH)

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63
Q

What are the functions of the ovary?

A

Production of oocytes

Production of hormones: sex steroids (estrogen and progesterone); protein hormones (relaxin, Inhibin, activin)

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64
Q

What are the functions of the ovary?

A

Production of oocytes

Production of hormones:
Sex hormones: estradiol and progesterone
Protein hormones: activin, Inhibin, relaxin

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65
Q

What is the flow of development in the ovary from primordial follicle to corpus luteum?

A

Primordial follicle-> early primary follicle-> primary follicle-> secondary follicle-> mature Graafian follicle-> ruptured follicle (releases oocyte)-> corpus hemorrhagicum-> corpus luteum

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66
Q

How many follicles are you born with? How many lost per cycle? How many at menopause?

A

Born with 1 million

1,000 lost per cycle

1,000 left at menopause

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67
Q

When does the Ovarian cycle start? What are the different phases?

A

Day 1 of menses (sloughing off of the endometrial wall)

Follicular phase- days 1-14

Ovulation phase- days 14-15

Luteal phase- days 15-28; luteal regression usually begins around day 24

Any variation in cycle length is due to follicular phase. Luteal phase is always 14 days

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68
Q

What happens during the follicular phase? What phases of the uterine cycle does it correspond with?

A

FSH stimulates growth and maturation of a follicle (LH helps a little bit) until ovulation

Menstrual phase (days 1-5) and Proliferative phase (days 6-14)

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69
Q

What happens during the luteal phase? What uterine phases does it overlap with?

A

LH promotes ovulation (with help of FSH) and proliferation of the corpus luteum

Secretory phase (days 15-26) and Pre-menstrual phase (days 27-28)

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70
Q

What are the different layers of the ovary?

A

Outer epithelium (mesothelium) of simple cuboidal cells

Tunica albuginea (like testes)— dense connective tissues capsule

Cortex— cellular connective tissue where primordial follicles reside

Medulla— inner loose connective tissue with blood vessels entering from the hilum

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71
Q

Primordial follicle

A

Present since fetal life; arrested in Prophase of Meiosis I since week 11-12 of development (46, 4N)

Found in cortex of ovary; 25um in diameter with large nucleus in the middle (primary oocyte arrested in prophase)

Single layer of flat, squamous follicular cells surround oocyte; separated from vascularized stroma by basal lamina

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72
Q

Primary Follicle

A

Stimulated by FSH (only during follicular phase), a primary oocyte starts to increase in size and number of organelles (but stays in Prophase I)

Unilaminar primary follicle— follicular cells undergo mitosis and become single cuboidal layer. Bigger than primordials.

Multilaminar primary follicle— continues to grow and follicular cells develop into multiple cell layers called granulosa cells. Cells communicate through gap junctions. Still a vascular and retains basal lamina. Zona pellucida (a glycoprotein layer required for sperm binding and fertilization) separates the oocyte and the granulosa layer. Oocyte and granulosa can communicate through this layer. Stroma surrounding follicle starts to differentiate into theca interna and theca externa. Bigger than unilaminar.

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73
Q

What does the theca interna do? Theca externa?

A

Theca interna is well vascularized endocrine tissue that secretes androstenedione. Molecule diffuses through basement membrane where granulosa cells convert it into estrogen via aromatase. This is FSH dependent. The estrogen then leaves back into the theca layer and into the capillaries.

Theca externa is a layer containing fibroblasts and smooth muscle that blends into the stroma around it.

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74
Q

What happens to multilaminar primary follicles as they continue to grow?

A

They move deeper into ovarian cortex and antri (antrum) start to appear and fill with follicular fluid containing GAG, plasminogen, fibrinogen, heparin sulfate, and high concentrations of steroids (progesterone and estrogen)

Now called Secondary Follicle. Primary oocyte still in Prophase I

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75
Q

Cumulus oophorus and corona radiata?

A

As the secondary follicle matures, the antrum starts to outgrow the granulosa layer and the layer becomes thinner. The oocyte juts out into the antrum while staying surrounded by a layer of granulosa known as the Cumulus oophorus

The corona radiata is the layer that immediately surrounds the oocyte and stays with it after ovulation. Cell processes from the corona and microvilli from the oocyte extend into the zona pellucida and communicate with one another.

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76
Q

Mature Graafian follicle (and polar body)

A

Once a follicle reaches a certain size (2cm) it is considered a mature follicle. It pushes up against the wall of the ovary and forms a bulge that is visible through ultrasound. Just before ovulation, this bulge becomes ischemic and is called the STIGMA.

Just before ovulation, the oocyte becomes a secondary oocyte by completing meiosis I (becomes 23, 2N). One daughter oocyte is much larger than the other. The smaller is called the first polar body and undergoes atresia. The larger oocytes is ovulated but remains suspended in metaphase of meiosis II until fertilization.

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77
Q

Follicular atresia

A

Begins during fetal life and continues partly into menopause. Can occur at any stage of follicular development.

Of the 1000 follicles that start during each menstrual cycle, 999 undergo atresia while 1 is ovulated (but they can still secrete hecka estrogen for a while before they die).

Includes apoptosis of granulosa cells, loss of zona pellucida, autolysis of oocyte, and invasion by macrophages to clean up.

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78
Q

Where does GnRH originate? How does puberty onset?

A

Arcuate and Preoptic nucleus; pulsatile release stimulates release of FSH and LH (especially during ovulation)

Pulsatile release of GnRH leads to onset of puberty

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79
Q

How is GnRH regulated during follicular development? What are the roles of estrogen and progesterone?

A

At low levels, estrogen exhibits neg feedback on GnRH during the follicular phase but once a mature follicle, it reaches a threshold and starts to positively feedback causing GnRH release to increase and an LH surge (triggers ovulation). During the luteal phase, progesterone exhibits negative feedback on FSH and GnRH

Other inhibitors: dopamine, endorphins, melatonin, CRF
Other stimulators: norepinephrine

Estrogen (from the granulosa cells) increases endometrium proliferation during the follicular phase while progesterone and estrogen (from corpus luteum) stimulate endometrium proliferation even more during luteal phase.

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80
Q

Why doesn’t estradiol positive feedback also result in an FSH surge?

A

During the follicular phase, granulosa cells also secrete Inhibin B which has a negative feedback effect on FSH release (as well as low levels of estrogen). During the luteal phase, progesterone and Inhibin A from corpus luteum have negative feedback effects on both FSH and GnRH

Nothing directly inhibits LH secretion

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81
Q

How does estradiol synthesis decrease as a result of the LH surge?

A

LH receptors on theca cells become completely occupied during LH surge which leads to suppression of LH induced androgen precursor synthesis.

Loss of androgen precursors leads to decrease in estradiol synthesis after LH surge.

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82
Q

What happens during ovulation?

A

Cause by LH surge

Meiosis I is completed

Granulosa cells secrete more prostaglandins and hyaluronan which causes the antrum to swell and loosens the outer layer of cells

Ovarian wall weakens due to plasminogen from capillaries

Smooth muscle contractions begin in the theca externa stimulated by the prostaglandins.

The cells of the ovulated follicle give rise to the corpus luteum under stimulation of LH.

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83
Q

Corpus Luteum (of menstruation). What effect does it have on FSH?

A

After ovulation and under stimulation of LH, the granulosa layer and theca layer fold in on themselves and blood clots appear in the antrum

Granulosa cells increase in size, become well vascularized, and are called granulosa lutein cells which take up 80% of the corpus luteum. LH stimulates these cells to synthesize progesterone and estradiol that target the reproductive tract for preparation of fertilization, preimplantation development and implantation.

The theca interna becomes theca lutein cells which are half as big as granulosa lutein cells. LH causes these cells to make large amounts of weak androgens

The LH surge causes corpus luteum to secrete progesterone for 10-12 days. After that, if no pregnancy occurs, it undergoes apoptosis. This is called the Corpus luteum of menstruation. The decrease in progesterone after apoptosis causes sloughing of the endometrial lining (menstruation).

The estrogen produced by the corpus luteum inhibits FSH. FSH also stimulates Inhibin A to inhibit itself. So after it is gone, FSH goes back up.

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84
Q

What happens if GnRH secretion becomes continuous? Which is more important in GnRH secretion, magnitude or frequency?

A

FSH and LH levels are not maintained (they require pulsatile stimulation).

Frequency

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85
Q

What does FSH do in the early and later follicular phases?

A

Targets granulosa cells:

Early follicular phase: NO effect on primordial follicle (it grows spontaneously). Begins at primary follicle;

  • stimulates mitosis and cell proliferation
  • induces FSH receptors
  • induces gap junction formation
  • induction of aromatase to produce estradiol
  • stimulates Inhibin B synthesis which stimulates androgen production by theca interna and decreases FSH release through negative feedback

Late phase: estrogen levels are elevated— induces LH receptors on granulosa cells resulting in low level progesterone production.

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86
Q

What does LH do during the early follicular phase and late follicular phase?

A

Targets both theca and granulosa cells

Early Follicular phase: targets theca interna— stimulates steroid hormone production (mainly androgens)

Late follicular phase: targets granulosa cells to initiate luteinization and progesterone synthesis
- LH surge: high occupancy of LH receptors on theca cells blocks androgen precursors needed for estradiol synthesis

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87
Q

How is estrogen created through side-chain cleavage?

A

Cholesterol side-chain is cleaved to 21 carbon progesterone. Cleaved some more into 19 carbon androstenedione or testosterone. Aromatase cleaves those into 18 carbon estradiol

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88
Q

What changes occur in the dominant follicle due to the LH surge?

A

Oocyte completes first mitotic division resulting in secondary oocyte and first polar body

Transformation of granulosa cells into lutein cells with an increase in progesterone production

Activation of proteolytic enzymes that degrade the follicular wall with formation of the stigma

Oocyte with cumulus detaches from the wall of the follicle and floats in the liquor follicular

Rapid accumulation of fluid in the antrum

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89
Q

Corpus albicans

A

Without LH, the corpus luteum dies

LH surge causes increase in progesterone from granulosa cells which exhibits negative feedback on GnRH release and down regulates GnRH receptors in pars distalis

LH secretion decreases. Corpus luteum degenerates into inactive corpus albicans that has NO NUCLEI

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90
Q

Corpus luteum of pregnancy

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) from the implanting blastocyst RESCUES the corpus luteum (hCG acts similar to LH)

Steroid hormone production is continued and maintains the endometrial lining in the uterus

Corpus luteum of pregnancy continues to enlarge and increase hormone production throughout the first trimester

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91
Q

What’s the difference between Inhibin B and Inhibin A?

A

Inhibin B— granulosa cells; inhibits FSH secreting gonadotrophs

Inhibin A— granulosa lutein cells; inhibits both FSH and LH secreting gonadotrophs

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92
Q

What can a granulosa lutein cell make that a granulosa cell can’t? Why? What is weird about progesterone and estrogen synthesis in granulosa lutein cells?

A

FSH allows granulosa cells to convert androgens into estradiol via aromatase BUT LH allows granulosa lutein cells to take up cholesterol and form progesterone

HOWEVER, the granulosa lutein cells do not have the enzyme necessary to turn progesterone into androgens. Therefore, the androgens that become estradiol in the granulosa lutein cells still comes from theca lutein cells.

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93
Q

Clinical considerations of the ovary

A

Ovarian cysts— fluid filled cavities resulting from unruptured Graafian follicles

Polycystic ovary syndrome— elevated androgens and LH but no FSH means bilateral ovarian enlargement due to follicular cysts (that never matured)

Ovarian tumors

Menopause— ovarian follicles fail to develop

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94
Q

Why are FSH and LH levels increased in menopause? Where do low levels of estrogen still come from? How can you counteract menopause?

A

Menopause= cessation of menses. Follicles do not develop in response to FSH/LH

Reduced estradiol, progesterone, and Inhibin B means loss of negative feedback so FSH/LH levels rise.

Estrogen deficiency causes bone loss, hot flashes, increased coronary artery disease

Low levels of estrogen are produced via aromatase and androgen precursors in peripheral tissue

Hormone replacement therapy

95
Q

What are the different layers of the oviducts (Fallopian tubes)? What happens as you move from the ampulla to the isthmus?

A

Highly folded mucosa, poorly defined muscularis with both circular and longitudinal layers, and highly vascular serosa/adventitia. It’s just like the ESOPHAGUS

Internal luminar diameter decreases, highly folded mucosa reduced to fewer folds, muscularis becomes thicker

96
Q

What makes up the mucosa of the oviducts?

A

Two types of simple columnar cells:

  • ciliated cells: beat in unison towards the uterus to move oocyte
  • peg cells: secrete a nutrient rich fluid to enrich secondary oocyte, spermatozoa, and preimplantation embryo

Lamina propria- highly vascular and highly cellular loose connective tissue

97
Q

What effects do estradiol and progesterone have on the oviducts?

A

Estradiol

  • Epithelium: stimulates ciliogenesis and ciliary beat, stimulates secretory activity
  • Lamina Propria: increases vascularity
  • Muscularis: increases vascularity and contractions

Progesterone

  • Epithelium: maximizes ciliary beat, stimulates secretory activity
  • Muscularis: decreases contraction
98
Q

What happens to the secondary oocyte at the time of fertilization?

A

Zona pellucida: receptor for sperm; initiates acrosome reaction— enzymes associated with the acrosome digest a path through the zona pellucida

Cortical rxn prevents polyspermia (release of granules by egg makes ZP impenetrable to sperm)

Entry of sperm nucleus triggers completion of second meiosis division to form mature ovum and second polar body

Nuclei of ovum and sperm fuse to form zygote

99
Q

Which is higher in childhood FSH or LH? Adult reproductive period? Senescence? What about overall levels?

A

Childhood and puberty: FSH > LH

Adult Reproductive Years: LH > FSH

Senescence: FSH > LH

Overall levels increase with age

100
Q

When do the following hormones peak? FSH, LH, Estradiol, Progesterone, Inhibin B, Inhibin A

A

FSH, LH, Estradiol- at or just before ovulation

Progesterone- 7 days after ovulation

Inhibin B- at ovulation (same time as FSH peak)

Inhibin A- 7 days after ovulation

101
Q

Where does fertilization usually occur?

A

Antrum of oviduct

102
Q

Amenorrhea

A

Absence of menses

103
Q

A woman comes in complaining of no period over the past 6 months. She has 14 follicles in the left ovary. What would you expect to see?

A

LH/FSH ratio > 2, increased androgens

menstrual irregularities, insulin resistance, obesity, hirsutism, infertility

Multiple cysts would be seen

104
Q

3,3,5 triiodothyronine

A

Reverse T3 (rT3); inactive form of T3 that is secreted instead of T4 when the need for thyroid hormone is low

105
Q

What are the four major steps in the synthesis and release of thyroid hormones?

A

Uptake and concentration of dietary iodide within the gland

The oxidation and incorporation of iodide into tyrosine residues

The coupling of two iodinated tyrosine residues to form either T3 or T4

Secretion and release of T3 and T4

106
Q

How much iodide do we need vs how much do we ingest? Describe the first step of thyroid hormone synthesis

A

Requirement is 150mg/day while average intake in US is 400-500mg/day (we have about 100 times excess)

Iodide is actively transported into the follicular cells via Na+/I- cotransporter known as iodide trap. This maintains a high intracellular iodide concentration relative to the concentration in the plasma. The iodide is transported into the follicle lumen via pendrin

Dietary deficiency of iodide leads to thyroid hormone deficiency despite maximal operation of the trap

107
Q

Describe the second step of thyroid hormone synthesis. Where does it take place? What is thyroglobulin? What is thyroid peroxidase? What are the products?

A

Follicular cells synthesize and secrete thyroglobulin into the follicular lumen as the source of tyrosine for thyroid hormone.

In the follicular lumen, thyroid peroxidase enzyme oxidizes iodide via locally generated H2O2 and incorporates it onto specific tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin.

Monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrosine (DIT) result from iodination

108
Q

What occurs during step 3 of thyroid hormone synthesis? What is the ratio of products normally and when iodine is deficient?

A

Tyrosine peroxidase catalyzes the coupling of two iodinated tyrosines within thyroglobulin (still in the colloid lumen)

DIT + DIT = T4

MIT + DIT = T3

Ratio of T4/T3 is normally 10/1 but T3 production increases if iodide is deficient

109
Q

Describe the fourth step of thyroid hormone synthesis. What is Megalin? What is deiodinase?

A

Iodinated tyrosines (on thyroglobulin) are stored in the follicular lumen colloid until needed.

Thyroglobulin complex (with its MITs, DITs, T3s and T4s) is endocytosed into the follicular cell via Megalin receptors.

Lysosomal enzymes release T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin and they are then released into capillaries

MIT and DIT are deiodinated by deiodinase and the components are recycled for incorporation into new hormones

110
Q

What do thyrouracils do?

A

Block the enzyme thyroid peroxidase which is useful in treating hyperthyroidism.

111
Q

What are the layers of the uterus? What type of epithelium lines the mucosa of the uterus?

A

Endometrium, myometrium, and perimetrium (serosa/adventitia)

Simple columnar

112
Q

Describe the structure of the myometrium

A

Thickest of the three layers. Made up of huge smooth muscle cells interlaced with connective tissue: collagen fibers, vessels and lymphatics

Three layers: middle layer is the thickest and contains arcuate arteries

113
Q

Hormonal regulation of myometrium: estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, oxytocin?

A

Estrogen: proliferation (by itself during proliferative phase); maintains/increases contractility; formation of gap junctions

Progesterone: decreases contractility

Relaxin: inhibits uterine contractions

Oxytocin: stimulates uterine contractions

During pregnancy, myometrium undergoes hyperplasia and hypertrophy. Increased collagen as well. Apoptosis of SM occurs after pregnancy

114
Q

Two layers of the endometrium?

A

Stratum functionale— this layer changes in response to hormones; the lamina propria contains the length of the uterine glands; spongier lamina propria with more ground substance. Supplied by spiral arteries (when proliferated)

Stratum Basale— doesn’t change or slough off; more cellular lamina propria; contains the deep ends of the glands; straight arteries supply here (constantly)

115
Q

When is the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle? Describe the endometrial structure

A

Days 1-5 when progesterone and estrogen are crashing; endometrium can’t be maintained

Thickness of endo: 3 mm —> .5 mm
Glands: short, collapsed (undergoing apoptosis)
Stroma: dense with leukocytes and red blood cells (because the vasculature and lymphatics are breaking down and dumping out)
Epithelium: columnar
Mitosis: absent

116
Q

When is the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle? What is the endometrial structure like? Stimulated by what?

A

Days 5-14; estrogen from developing follicle stimulates this phase

Thickness of endo: 1 mm —> 4 mm
Glands: narrow and straight, no secretory activity (still growing)
Stroma: proliferating, no leukocytes are present
Mitoses: numerous
Epithelium: columnar (cells from basal end of glands proliferate and come up to become surface cells)

117
Q

When is the secretory phase of the uterine cycle? What is the endometrium like?

A

Days 15-26; caused by estrogen but mostly progesterone in this phase

Thickness of endo: 4-6 mm

Glands: wide, sacculated, secretory. Glycogen rich secretions essential for survival and development of the embryo (all of this stimulated by progesterone)

Stroma: edematous, no leukocytes; secretions and edema cause the swelling

Epithelium: tall columnar

Mitoses: confined to coiled arteries

118
Q

When is the premenstrual phase? What is the endometrium like?

A

Days 27-28; progesterone and estrogen start to decline

Thickness of endo: 4-5mm

Glands: wide, irregular in outline

Stroma: dense, leukocytes, RBCs

Epithelium: columnar

Mitoses: absent

119
Q

Functions of the cervix?

A

At ovulation, cervical glands secrete a watery mucus that facilitates entry of sperm into the uterus (therefore, it is stimulated by estrogen)

At other times of cycle and during pregnancy, glands secrete viscous mucus preventing entry of sperm and microorganisms into the uterus (progesterone)

120
Q

What are the layers of the cervix?

A

Mucosa:

  • simple columnar epithelium (endocervical); switches to non-keratinized stratified squamous at a certain point
  • Thick lamina propria (more fibrous than cellular)
  • Branched, tubular glands (mucus)

Muscularis: dense collagen opus c.t. with elastic and smooth muscle fibers

Adventitia

121
Q

Nabothian cysts

A

Secretions from cervical glands stuck beneath the surface of the epithelium

122
Q

Transformation zone

A

Simple columnar to strat. squamous epithelium in the cervix. Located just outside the external os during reproductive age

123
Q

Pap smear

A

Swab of the stratified squamous cells of the exocervical mucosa to determine if there is an cervical carcinoma

Most common cause is HPV 16-18

124
Q

Hormonal regulation of the cervix

A

Estrogen: stimulates formation of watery mucus (lysozyme)

Progesterone: induces formation of a very viscous mucus

Relaxin: stimulates softening of the cervix by lysis of collagen fibers at the time of parturition (giving birth). Produced by corpus luteum and placenta

125
Q

Layers of the vagina

A

Mucosa: numerous transverse folds

  • epithelium: mucosal, stratified squamous epithelium (small amount of keratohyalin forms)
  • basal layer of cells (constantly renews stratified layers due to stimulation by estradiol)
  • Lamina propria: loose fibroelastic c.t., highly vascular, NO GLANDS, neutrophils, lymphocytes, few sensory nerve endings

Muscularis: smooth muscle and elastic fibers

  • Thin inner circular layer
  • Thicker outer longitudinal layer

Adventitia: dense fibroelastic c.t.

126
Q

What chain molecule is often preserved on the surface of the vaginal mucosa when stained?

A

Glycogen (stains red)

127
Q

Hormonal regulation of the vagina

A

Estradiol:

  • maintains thickness of epithelium
  • stimulates production of glycogen which is converted to lactic acid by vaginal flora to maintain an acidic pH

Progesterone:
-Decreases proliferation and increases differentiation

128
Q

Give a summary of the sex steroid regulation of the female reproductive tract (estrogen and progesterone on oviducts, uterus, and vagina)

A

Estrogen:

  • (oviducts) incr. cilia formation and activity, incr. contractility
  • (uterus) incr. proliferation of endo, incr. growth and contractility of myo, watery secretion by glands
  • (vagina) epithelial proliferation, incr. glycogen deposition

Progesterone:

  • (oviducts) incr. secretion, decr. Contractility
  • (uterus) incr. differentiation and secretion, decr. Contractility, dense viscous glandular secretions
  • (vagina) incr. differentiation, decr. Proliferation
129
Q

Endometriosis

A

Some Endometrium goes up into peritoneal cavity instead of sloughing out; can cause severe pain and formation of cysts

May lead to sterility because the ovaries and oviducts become deformed and embedded in scar tissue

130
Q

Describe the mammary glands prior to puberty

A

Same in both sexes

Only contain lactiferous sinus just below nipple (areola) with small ducts

131
Q

Describe the mammary glands at puberty

A

Rise in estrogen in girls causes adipocytes accumulation and ductal growth:

Nipple and areola enlarge
Proliferation of duct system and epithelial cells (that make up the duct)
Increase in stroma (collagenous c.t. and fat)

132
Q

Compound tubuloalveolar gland

A

Describes the adult mammary gland structure:

Contains 15-20 lobes each of which has its own lactiferous duct and sinus. Separated from other lobes by dense connective tissues and adipose tissue

Each lobe contains multiple functional units called lobules (which are made up of glandular alveoli when stimulated by pregnancy and child rearing); each lobule attaches to its own branching duct. Within the lobule are found multiple terminal ducts (which lead to alveoli when there)

133
Q

Describe the nipples/areola, stroma, and duct system of the adult resting mammary tissue

A

Nipples/areola: keratinized strat. squamous epithelium; areola has sweat and sebaceous glands; dermis is dense irregular conn tissue with smooth muscle fibers; highly innervated

Ductal system:

  • Lactiferous sinuses: stratified columnar/cuboidal epithelium
  • Lactiferous ducts: simple columnar/cuboidal and stratified columnar/cuboidal
  • Terminal ducts: simple columnar/cuboidal (these lead to the acini/alveoli)
  • intralobular ducts
  • myoepithelial cells to project milk out

Stroma:

  • interlobar and interlobular c.t. — dense irregular c.t. and adipose tissue
  • intralobular c.t. — loose c.t. with plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils
134
Q

What surrounds the cells of each terminal ductule/acinus? When does breast carcinoma become really dangerous?

A

Myoepithelial cells and a basement membrane

When the carcinoma pushes outside of the basement membrane it can start spreading to vessels and other regions, etc.

135
Q

How does the mammary gland change in response to menstruation? How does it compare to pregnancy?

A

First half: estrogen causes slight ductal proliferation

Second half: progesterone causes slight development of secretory units (alveoli)

Very minuscule growth compared to the hormone flood during pregnancy

136
Q

To which lymph nodes do mammary glands drain normally? What is peau d’orange?

A

Axillary nodes

When a tumor blocks lymphatic drainage, the lymphatic ducts dilate and cause the skin of the breasts to swell looking like an orange peel

137
Q

Generally, what happens to mammary tissue during the first half of pregnancy vs. the second half?

A

First half: proliferative— secretory alveoli develop at the ends of terminal ductules

Second half: Lobules enlarge from hypertrophy of alveoli and secretion of colostrum

138
Q

During pregnancy, what happens to the nipple/areola, duct system, stroma, and glandular tissue? What do the alveoli do?

A

Nipple/areola: enlarge and become more pigmented

Ductal System: completes development

Stroma: c.t. and adipose tissue are reduced

Glandular tissue: develop; ALVEOLI FILL LOBULES
-Alveolar cells= simple cuboidal/columnar that secretes milk lobules; secrete colostrum in second half of pregnancy

139
Q

What is the difference, histologically, between resting adult mammary tissue, pregnant adult mammary tissue, and lactating adult mammary tissue?

A

Resting: lobules appear as connective tissue islands with small, sparse ductules within them

Pregnant: alveolar proliferation has completely filled in the lobule territory. Many more lumen and nuclei can be seen. The connective tissue between lobules is reduced

Lactating: milk secretion fills the numerous alveoli and ductules. Connective tissue is hard to see except for septa because it has been crowded out

140
Q

What is colostrum?

A

Late in pregnancy the glandular alveoli and ducts are dilated by an accumulation of colostrum in the intralobular connective tissue.

Fluid rich in protein and containing leukocytes. Produced under the influence of prolactin. IgA antibodies made by plasma cells enter colostrum and will help confer immunity on to the baby through breast feeding

141
Q

How can you tell the difference between alveoli and ducts on a slide?

A

Ducts= columnar epithelium; spaced out; smaller lumens

Alveoli= cuboidal epithelium; tons of them around each other; bigger lumens starting to fill with milk

142
Q

What happens to adult mammary tissue during lactation? After lactation?

A

Glandular tissue:

  • secretory unit— alveoli
  • alveoli (and ducts) dilated with secretory product, milk
  • epithelium is compressed (cuboidal)

Thin c.t. septae

No further changes in ducts, nipples, areola

143
Q

What do the alveoli secrete days 1-3 of lactation? Day 4 and beyond?

A

Colostrum

  • rich in protein
  • rich in Vit A
  • rich in IgA

Day 4: Milk

  • protein (1.5%)
  • fat (4.0%)
  • lactose (7%)
  • IgA
144
Q

What are the effects of estradiol, progesterone, and prolactin on mammary glands? What other hormones have an effect?

A

Estradiol: stimulates duct proliferation (puberty and pregnancy)

Progesterone: stimulates development of secretory units (alveoli)

Prolactin:

  • dopamine suppresses prolactin in nonpregnant women
  • increases during pregnancy although action on mammary gland suppressed by high E and P
  • stimulates pubertal development of breast tissue and further hyperplasia during pregnancy
  • stimulates milk synthesis and secretion after drop in E and P after pregnancy

Oxytocin: stimulates milk ejection by contraction of myoepithelial cells

Background of hormones: glucocorticoids, insulin, thyroxine, GH, IGFs

145
Q

Milk ejection vs milk let-down

A

Prolactin is secreted in response to sucking child— prolactin causes milk synthesis (let down)

Oxytocin secreted in response to sucking child— milk ejection

146
Q

What is lactational amenorrhea?

A

Prolactin released due to sucking child inhibits GnRH release (negative feedback); FSH and LH blocked, no follicular development, no menses

147
Q

What happens to the mammary glands after cessation of lactation? What about at menopause?

A

Post-lactation: Resorption of glandular tissue; reestablishment of c.t. and adipose tissue

Menopause: connective tissue decreases in amount and density increases (cells replaced with fibrous tissue); further involution of ducts and secretory units

148
Q

Describe some hormonal therapies for breast cancer (either ductal carcinoma or terminal (lobular) carcinoma)

A

Estrogen receptor blockers: blocks estrogen dependent ductal proliferation

Estrogen receptor destruction

Aromatase inhibitors: prevents conversion of androgens to estrogen

Oophorectomy

Chemical castrations (GnRH analogs): continuous stimulation of pituitary prevents FSH/LH release

149
Q

What could happen if a woman had prolactin excess?

A

Infertility and complete loss of menses (GnRH inhibitor)

150
Q

What is the function of the testis?

A

Production of sperm (spermatogenesis)

Production of androgens for reproduction and development of secondary male characteristic (steroidogenesis); only 5% of androgens are produced by adrenals

151
Q

Intratesticular and excurrent ducts, accessory glands (what do they all do)?

A

Intratesticular duct: straight tubules, rete testis (sperm transport, maturation and storage)

Excurrent: efferent ductules, ductus epididymis, vas deferens (sperm transport, maturation, and storage)

Accessory glands (secretion to nurture sperm and facilitate transport): seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral glands

152
Q

Describe the external structure of the testis

A

Tunica Albuginea— thick, dense irregular connective tissue capsule

Mediastinum testis— involution of thickened tunica albuginea on posterior surface of testis (excurrent ducts, blood vessels, and lymphatics run through here)

Septa— connective tissue projecting from the capsule separating testis into 250 lobules

153
Q

Describe the tubule system within the testes

A

1-4 convoluted, seminiferous tubules in each lobe (where sperm collects after synthesis)

Straight tubules (one per lobule) also called tubuli recti that connect seminiferous tubules to rete testis

Rete testis— maze of interconnecting channels within mediastinum testis

154
Q

What is found in the interstitial connective tissue stroma between seminiferous tubules? What is important about this area?

A

Loose connective tissue containing:

Fibroblasts— cigar shaped nuclei.

Leydig cells— Found in clusters. Round or polygonal. Large, acidophilic cytoplasm full of SER and lipid droplets because it SYNTHESIZES AND SECRETES TESTOSTERONE. Primary endocrine function of the testes. Nucleus is also large and round.

155
Q

What makes up a seminiferous tubule? What are myoid cells? What type of epithelium is the seminiferous epithelium?

A

Lamina (tunica) propria— 3-5 layers of myoid cells (flat, smooth muscle like cells that help move sperm and fluid to the excurrent ducts) and collagen fibrils

Basal lamina

Seminiferous Epithelium— Complex stratified

  • Sertoli cells (supporting cells with tight junctions and large nuclei with prominent nucleolus); extend from basement membrane to lumen— provide structure
  • Spermatogenic cells— replicate and differentiate into sperm; poorly defined layers but most immature on basement membrane and most mature closest to lumen (apical surface of Sertoli cells)
156
Q

What are the five types of spermatogenic cells? What are the three phases of Spermatogenesis? What is spermiogenesis?

A
Spermatogonia 
Primary Spermatocytes
Secondary Spermatocytes
Spermatids
Spermatozoa (mature) 

1) Spermatogonia undergoes mitosis to replicate and differentiate into a Primary Spermatocyte.
2) two round of meiosis: primary spermatocyte—> 2 secondary spermatocytes—> 4 spermatids
3) Spermiogenesis: spermatids transform into mature spermatozoa (does NOT require mitosis or meiosis)

157
Q

What is the cytoplasmic bridge? When does it disappear?

A

Connection of cytoplasm between developing spermatocytes (stay linked even after cell division) so that they can share gene products among haploid cells so that they can be supplied with RNA and proteins from complete diploid genome. Allows synchronous development

Only disappears upon completion of spermiogenesis as mature spermatozoa disconnect from the Sertoli cells

158
Q

Describe Spermatogonia. What are the three types?

A

Type A dark (Ad), Type A pale (Ap), Type B

Most immature sperm cell; relatively large, round or ellipsoid; always connected to the basement membrane. Rounded nuclei with different patterns of chromatin

Differentiate into primary spermatocytes

159
Q

Primary Spermatocytes. How do these give way to genetic variation?

A

Largest germ cell present; spherical or ovoid; nucleus contains strands of heterochromatin;

Primary spermatocytes undergo first meiotic division which allows crossing over and random assortment

160
Q

Secondary Spermatocytes

A

Half the size of Primaries; rarely seen because they undergo meiosis II almost immediately. Each secondary spermatocyte produces two spermatids

161
Q

Spermatids (early vs late)

A

Going through spermiogenesis to produce spermatozoa; no more cell division

Early— small size; round nuclei with condensed chromatin

Late— Elongated, condensed nucleus; has a tail; attached to apical side of Sertoli cells

These guys make up most of the thickness of the seminiferous tubules

162
Q

What are the four components of spermiogenesis?

A

1) Nuclear condensation and elongation (as small as possible)
2) Acrosome formation— cap filled with hydrolytic enzymes
3) Flagellum formation— mitochondria connects head to a microtubule flagellum
4) Cytoplasmic reduction by Sertoli cells and Spermiation— breaking of the cytoplasmic bridge as sperm are released into the seminiferous tubules

163
Q

Spermatozoon (spermatozoa); where are they stored and when do they gain the capability to move?

A

“Stripped down” cell

Most of cytoplasm has been phagocytosed by Sertoli cells; no longer attached to each other; free in the lumens of the tubules

Are not motile when they are first released! They gain that function in the epididymis although they are inhibited by inhibitory proteins until ejaculation

Stored in the distal portion of the duct of the epididymis until ejaculation

Can live there for several weeks but only 2-3 in the female repro tract

164
Q

What is the function of Sertoli cells? What is the blood-testis barrier?

A

Structural organization of seminiferous tubules

Support and nurse maturing sperm (by exchanging waste and metabolic substrates)

Phagocytose unneeded cytoplasm and failed spermatogenic cells

Form tight junctions via cellular processes that separate the epithelium into a basal and adluminal compartments; also forms the blood-testis barrier which keeps spermatogenic cells from entering blood (they are antigenic because they are haploid)

Exocrine and endocrine secretion

165
Q

What do Sertoli cells secrete?

A

Exocrine:

  • Fluid— facilitates passage of mature sperm through seminiferous tubules
  • Androgen Binding Protein— promoted by FSH; binds to testosterone to make it less lipophilic and highly concentrated in the lumen of tubules to stimulate development of sperm

Endocrine:

  • Estradiol— aromatase in Sertoli cells (in neonatal and prepubescent mammals) converts testosterone to estradiol to regulate spermatogenesis and inhibit testosterone production from Leydig cells
  • Inhibin B— to provide negative feedback for FSH from adenohypophysis
  • Mullerian Inhibiting Factor (MIF)— inhibits formation of female reproductive tract (VERY IMPORTANT ONE)
  • Growth factors— maintain the numbers of spermatogonia
166
Q

Structure of Sertoli cells

A

Tall, columnar

Nucleus is ovoid or triangular, large and lightly stained; NUCLEOLUS is large and prominent; cell limits not visible

Well developed SER, RER, mitochondria, and Golgi cause it secretes shiz

167
Q

When and how do spermatogenic cells get through the blood-testis barrier?

A

Early spermatocytes need to pass through because meiosis and spermiogenesis occurs on the adluminal side of the barrier

New barrier forms on the basal side of the spermatocytes luminal side barrier dissipates

168
Q

What is the effect of temperature on Spermatogenesis? What are the protective mechanisms against this? What is the danger of Cryptorchidism?

A
  • All spermatogenic cells (besides spermatogonia) are very heat sensitive so they dangle to maintain 2-3 degrees below body temp
  • The pampiniform plexus of veins surrounds the descending testicular artery and acts as a heat exchanger to cool the arterial blood slightly
  • Cremaster reflex pulls testis up into the body cavity to protect from cold; Dartos fascia has a thin layer of muscle that also contracts when cold and causes scrotum to wrinkle

Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) could lead to destruction of all cells besides spermatogonia leaving only interstitial spaces

169
Q

Why is the smooth muscle so thick around the veins of the pampiniform plexus? How can they be recognized histologically?

A

It has to propel blood against gravity to reach the abdominal veins

Thick smooth muscle vessels surrounding an even larger testicular artery

170
Q

When does implantation occur? What is the role of hCG? What is the decidual reaction?

A

Days 21-24 of cycle;

hCG from the syncytiotrophoblasts (blastocyst) rescues and maintains the corpus luteum

Endometrial stroma cells hypertrophy

171
Q

Why is it so important to maintain the progesterone and estrogen levels during pregnancy?

A

Because we need them to maintain that endometrial lining

172
Q

A woman has regular 28 day cycles. She comes in at day 40 since her last period. Took a positive pregnancy test at day 31 and 32. How many days since conception?

A

25 days

173
Q

Decidual Reaction. What is the function of the decidua?

A

Fibroblasts within the lamina propria (stroma) of the endometrium hypertrophy and contain large amounts of glycogen and lipid in response to the continued secretion of progesterone and estrogen

1) Initially, cells serve as a nutrient source for embryo until the vascular connections are made
2) Also forms a barrier to keep embryo from entering myometrium
3) Also functions as endocrine organ: releases prolactin, relaxin, prostaglandins that act on uterine muscle, cervix, and the embryo

174
Q

What are the functions of the decidual hormones?

A

Relaxin: produced by corpus luteum of pregnancy, and placenta, AND decidua

  • stimulated by hCG
  • Early pregnancy— suppresses myometrium contractions to protect embryo
  • Late pregnancy— softening of the cervix in preparation of parturition (breaks down connective tissue fibers)

Prolactin: major source is maternal pituitary, but locally produced prolactin depresses immune response to the fetus

Prostaglandins:
-Late Pregnancy— contraction of the smooth muscle and softening of the cervix

175
Q

What are the tissue layers of a blastocyst?

A

Trophoblast— the peripheral cells of the blastocyst that attach the fertilized ovum to the uterine wall and contribute to the placenta. The inner cell layer is the cytotrophoblast and the outer layer is the syncytiotrophoblast

Cytotrophoblast— the mitotically active inner cell layer producing cells that fuse with the syncytiotrophoblast

Syncytiotrophoblast— outer layer that is not mitotically active. Multinucleate cytoplasmic cell mass that erodes and invades the epithelium and the underlying stroma of the epithelium (and starts to capture the maternal blood from within)

176
Q

What are the functions of the Placenta?

A

Quintessential hormonal organ

Unique and transient endocrine function:

  • secretes hormones that affect maternal and fetal metabolism
  • not subject to regulation by maternal or fetal signals

Acts as fetal gut supplying nutrients

Acts as fetal lung exchanging gases

Acts as fetal kidney eliminating waste and regulating fluid volumes

177
Q

Describe the development of the placenta

A

Blastocyst implants and syncytiotrophoblast starts capturing maternal blood and projecting villi into the endometrium. Chorionic shell forms around syncytiotrophoblastic layer. Maternal blood trapped in the intervillous spaces

Fetal portion: Chorion

  • chorionic plate
  • chorionic villae: free and anchoring villae
  • cytotrophoblastic shell

Maternal portion: decidua basalis

  • basal plate
  • placental septa
178
Q

Histologically, where are the syncytiotrophoblasts, cytotrophoblasts, fetal blood, and maternal blood?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts— dark, group nuclei around the perimeter of the villi

Cytotrophoblasts— larger, light nuclei within the villi

Maternal blood in the intervillous spaces

Fetal blood within fetal blood vessels INSIDE the villi

179
Q

What is an anchoring villus?

A

Where the villus meets the cytotrophoblastic shell and thus physically connects to the maternal decidua

180
Q

What is the placental barrier?

A

The layers that blood/toxins must cross to get to the fetal blood

  • syncytiotrophoblasts
  • cytotrophoblasts
  • extraembryonic mesenchyme
  • endothelial cells (blood vessels)
181
Q

What crosses the placental barrier?

A

Exchange of gases and nutrients (glucose and proteins)

Transferrin (carries iron to fetus)

Steroid hormones

Fetus eliminates waste

Maternal antibodies (IgG)

Alcohol or other drugs

182
Q

What is the “placental hypothalamic-pituitary unit”? What hormones does each layer secrete?

A

The inner cytotrophoblastic layer acts as the hypothalamus and releases:
-GnRH
-CRH
-TRH
-Somatostatin
As well as IGF-I and IGF-II to stimulate proliferation and differentiation

The outer syncytiotrophoblast layer acts as the pituitary gland and releases:

  • hCG (similar to FSH/LH)
  • human chorionic ACTH
  • human placental GH
  • human chorionic thyrotropin
As well as the big ones: 
Progesterone
-inhibits maternal immune response
-provides precursors to fetal adrenal glands
-Quiets uterine contractions
-Stimulate mammary gland development 
Estrogen
-stimulates growth of uterine smooth muscle
-stimulates mammary gland development
-cannot synthesize androgen precursors for estradiol synth; relies on fetal androgen gland
Human Chorionic Somatomammotropin (hCS)
-Shunts nutritional substrates to fetus 
Inhibin A
-suppress unwanted follicle development
183
Q

Why does PLACENTAL steroidogenesis require a coordinated interaction between the mother and the fetus?

A

The placenta CAN make progesterone from Cholesterol from the maternal liver

However, it does not have the enzymes to convert progesterone to estrogen so Pregnenolone (before progesterone) must be converted to DHEA by the fetal adrenals to 16a-OHDEAS by the fetal liver where is goes back to the placenta to be converted to estriol

Summary:
(Placenta) Cholesterol—> Pregnenolone—> (fetus) DHEA—> 16a-OHDEAS—> (placenta) Estriol

184
Q

When does hCG stop regulating E and P secretion?

A

After 1st trimester

Corpus luteum secretes E and P for first trimester

Placenta takes over for 2nd and 3rd trimester
-high levels of sex steroids prevents maternal hypoth/pituitary axis preventing ovulation

185
Q

To determine fetal health, which is the BEST hormone to measure?

A

Estriol (estrogen)

Progesterone will be made by the placenta independently of the fetus, but Estrogen requires a healthy fetus for the placenta to maintain the high levels

186
Q

A 5 month pregnant woman is referred to your office with newly diagnosed hypertension. You are concerned that the fetus and placenta may be compromised. To assess fetal and placental health, which hormone measurements would be most informative?

A

Urinary Estriol and serum hCG

Why not progesterone? Because the corpus luteum of pregnancy might be present still and producing progesterone. hCG only comes from the syncytiotrophoblasts of the placenta which is a better measure of fetal health

187
Q

LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone. What effect does FSH have on Sertoli cells? What type of feedback does the testosterone demonstrate? What is activin?

A

Causes them to secrete:

  • Estrogen (provides a negative feedback on Leydig cells to inhibit T production)
  • ABP (to increase local T levels)
  • Growth Factors (to regulate mitosis and meiosis)
  • Inhibin B (to induce and regulate spermatogenesis; negative feedback on FSH production)

Test has a negative feedback on hypothalamus to inhibit GnRH release and LH production/release (but not FSH I guess?)

Activin in the anterior pituitary antagonizes Inhibin B action and increases FSH synthesis

188
Q

What other functions (besides secretion) does FSH have on Sertoli cells? What can be measured as an index of spermatogenesis?

A

Controls Sertoli cell proliferation and seminiferous tubule growth and thus control testicular size

Important in the initiation of spermatogenesis during puberty

Necessary for the development of the blood-testis barrier

Inhibin B levels correlate with spermatogenesis, total sperm count, and testicular volume

189
Q

How is estrogen synthesis in the testicles similar to that of the ovaries?

A

Androgens have to cross the basement membrane into the functional space to be converted by aromatase into estrogen

190
Q

How is testosterone transported in the blood? What happens to it in the tissues?

A

50% bound loosely to albumin

44% bound to sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)— NOT bioavailable T

2-3% free

In peripheral tissues gets converted to DHT (super strong form of T) or estrogen

If not converted, gets degraded by the liver

191
Q

What are the physiological roles of testosterone?

A

Principal circulating androgen

Binds to receptors

Intratesticular function: high local levels in the testis required for spermatogenesis

Peripheral function: required for masculine characteristics

192
Q

How does T secretion change over life? What is diurnal rhythm

A

During fetal life, the testes are stimulated by hCG from the placenta to produce moderate amounts of T

Essentially no T produced in childhood until about 10-13 years old

At puberty, triggered by pulsatile release of GnRH resulting in increasing amplitude of FSH and LH

Diurnal rhythm: FSH and LH increase during sleep in the early parts of puberty. This is lost by age 16-18

After age 40, T declines by 2% per year while SHBG increases further decreasing the amount of available T; aging is associated with decreased T to E ratio, decreased LH pulse frequency, and diminished DHT in reproductive tissues

193
Q

What can cause hypergonadism? What are the effects?

A

Androgen overproduction:

  • before puberty: leads to precocious puberty
  • after puberty: early hair loss

Causes:

  • hypothalamic tumors (incr. GnRH)
  • activating mutations of LH receptors
  • congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • androgen producing tumors (Leydig cell tumor)
  • Pinealoma (destroys pinealocytes which decr. melatonin—> incr. GnRH)
194
Q

What effect does melatonin have on T production throughout life?

A

From early in development (3 months), melatonin is secreted at night and inhibits GnRH secretion

GnRH axis stays inhibited until puberty when body mass increases and causes decreasing concentrations of melatonin. GnRH pulse then gets reactivated

195
Q

Primary vs. Secondary Hypogonadism

A

Both cause decreased T production

Primary Hypogonadism (hypergonadotropic)- testicular dysfunction problem. Low T but high LH; testicular damage, cryptorchidism, gonadal dysgenesis, enzyme defects in T biosynthesis, or LH receptor defects

Secondary (hypogonadotropic)— problem at the hypothalamus/pituitary level— low FSH, LH, and T; genetic defects, adrenal hypoplasia, mutations in GnRH receptor, LH or FSH B-subunits; pituitary tumors (including prolactinoma which increases prolactin and inhibits GnRH); trauma or surgery

196
Q

What should be injected to determine a Secondary hypogonadism at the level of the hypothalamus vs pituitary

A

Inject GnRH

If LH goes up, its hypothalamic

If nothing changes, LH won’t go up

197
Q

What lines the straight tubules (of the intratesticular ducts)?

A

Early portion, lined only by Sertoli cells

Later portion becomes simple cuboidal epithelium

198
Q

Histologically, how do you tell a vein from rete testis?

A

Rete testis is lined by simple cuboidal epithelium (more basophilic)

Veins are lined by squamous endothelium (more acidophilic)

199
Q

What is the function of the efferent ductules (excurrent system)? How does its epithelium reflect its function? What other layers exist?

A
  • 20 ductules transport sperm from the rete testis to the proximal portion of epididymis
  • reabsorbs most of the fluid secreted in the seminiferous tubules

Epithelium: pseudostratified columnar (most common type of epithelium in the male reproductive tract)

  • alternating clumps of tall, ciliated columnar cells (movement) and short cells with microvilli (absorption)
  • basal cells on basement membrane possess little cytoplasm and serve as stem cells

Thin smooth muscle layer surrounds it all and helps with movement of sperm

200
Q

What does the epididymis do? What are the three parts of the epididymis? What are their layers?

A

Sperm transport
Reabsorb fluid that wasn’t reabsorbed in the efferent ductules
Place of sperm maturation (gain the ability to move and fertilize but are inhibited by proteins in the body)
Storage reservoir for matured sperm

Head— efferent ductules; surrounded by single layer of smooth muscle that contracts spontaneously

Body— duct of the epididymis; site where spermatozoa mature; surrounded by single layer of smooth muscle

Tail— duct of the epididymis; principal reservoir for mature spermatozoa; 3 layers of smooth muscle— circular, inner longitudinal, outer longitudinal; not spontaneous but controlled by ejaculation

201
Q

How is the epithelium of the epididymis different from the efferent ductules?

A

Also pseudostratified but only one two cell types:

  • basal cells
  • tall ‘principle’ cells with stereocilia— not for motility, only absorption

Lumen appears regular because the cells are all one height

This doesn’t start until the body of the epididymis

202
Q

Vas Deferens

A

Longest part of excurrent system— direct continuation of tail of the epididymis
Enters abdomen as part of spermaticord

Function: Strong peristaltic contractions following neural stimulation and ejaculation to expel sperm to ejaculatory duct

Lumen: deep longitudinal folds
Mucosa: stereociliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium (shorter cells than tail of epididymis; moderately thick lamina propria of loose connective tissue with elastic fibers

Muscularis: 3 layers

  • inner longitudinal
  • middle circular (very thick)
  • outer longitudinal

Adventitia: slightly denser than usual; blends in with the general fibrous connective tissue of the spermatic cord; contains nerves and vessels

203
Q

What prize does the vas deferens win?

A

Muscular wall is (relatively) the thickest wall of any tube in the body

204
Q

Ejaculatory Duct

A

Connects the end of the vas deferens to the urethra through the prostate; mixes sperm and seminal fluid

Same mucosa as vas deferens but no muscularis layers (instead surrounded by the stroma of the prostate); fibroelastic tissue and smooth muscle of prostate

205
Q

What happens to sperm produced by someone with a vasectomy?

A

Fluid absorbed by epididymis and solid product broken down by macrophages

206
Q

Does a vasectomy have any effect on testosterone production?

A

Nope; happens in interstitial spaces of testis

207
Q

After a vasectomy, could there be anti-sperm antibodies detected in the blood? If that is the case, could this person ever be fertile again if the vasectomy is reversed?

A

Maybe. If spermatozoa leaked into the blood from the severed vas deferens

Yes because the blood testis barrier would reform

208
Q

What are the accessory glands of the male reproductive system?

A

Seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral (cowper’s) glands

209
Q

Describe the function of seminal vesicles

A

Paired, elongated, highly-coiled glands (15cm) located on the posterior wall of the bladder

Function:

  • secretions form 60-70% of seminal fluid; whitish-yellowish; expelled in the second half of ejaculation to wash out urethra and dilute the thick mass of sperm
  • fluid is slightly alkaline which helps neutralize acidic vagina
  • secretions are mostly fructose (nutrients for spermatozoa)
  • also secretes prostaglandins (to cause smooth muscle contractions in female and male reproductive tracts) and fibrinogen (cleaved to fibrin; holds sperm in the deep parts of vagina)
210
Q

Describe the structure of seminal vesicles

A

Paired, elongated, highly-coiled glands (15cm) located on the posterior wall of the bladder

Lumen: one large lumen; stores the fluid secretion between ejaculations (no spermatozoa here though)

Mucosa:

  • arranged into highly convoluted folds to increase the secretory surface area
  • Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with tall non-ciliated cells and basal cells
  • also some simple columnar epithelium
  • connective tissue lamina propria which contains elastic fibers; can be found within the folds of the lumen

Muscularis: (can sometimes be seen crossing the lumen within the deep luminal folds)

  • inner circular and outer longitudinal layers to eject fluid
  • secretory function and morphology are under control of testosterone
211
Q

What is the function of the prostate? Describe prostatic fluid

A

Stores and secretes a thin, milky, alkaline which makes up 25-30% of seminal fluid

Largest accessory sex gland in men (size of walnut)

Expelled in the first ejaculate fractions with most of the spermatozoa

  • neutralizes acidic vagina
  • also contains clotting enzymes (to form a fibrin clot to help anchor sperm in vagina) and fibrinolysin (liquifies clot 15-30 minutes later to release motile sperm within the female tract)
  • contains PSA
212
Q

What is PSA? PAP?

A

Prostate Specific Antigen is normally produced by prostate epithelial cells; normally released into prostatic secretion as a serine protease and helps liquify coagulated semen to provide for slow release of sperm after ejaculation; small amount leaks into blood

In prostate cancer patients, large amounts of PSA are secreted and released into the blood
PSA can also be elevated in benign conditions like prostatitis

Prostatic Acid Phosphatase— elevated levels found in serum of patients with metastatic prostate cancers. These levels were measured before PSA was around

213
Q

Describe the overall structure of the prostate

A

Contains 30-50 compound tubuloalveolar exocrine glands which empty into 15-25 independent excurrent ducts; these ducts open into the urethra

Glands are embedded into a dense fibromuscular stroma which mainly consists of smooth muscle separated by dense connective tissue

214
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the prostate? What does testosterone do here?

A

Mostly simple columnar, but….

.. there may be patches of cuboidal, squamous, or pseudostratified columnar

Changes to a transitional epithelium near the openings to the urethra

Testosterone is converted to DHT by 5a-reductase; DHT stimulates epithelial growth in the prostate including during BPH and prostatic cancer

215
Q

What are Corpora Amylacea in the prostate?

A

Lamellated prostatic concretions found in the alveoli

Precipitations of secretory material around cell fragments; vary in size and shape; unique to prostate

Their numbers increase with age

216
Q

Although they look slightly similar, what are the differences between prostatic glands and mammary glands?

A

Prostate has smooth muscle in the stroma and lamellated prostatic concretions

217
Q

What are the four zones of the adult prostate?

A

Peripheral zone
Central zone
Transition zone
Periurethral zone

218
Q

Peripheral urethra

A

Surrounds distal urethra and occupies posterior and lateral parts of the urethra; most common site of prostate cancer (64%); most susceptible to inflammation

Palpable on digital exam

Cancer here is hard to find at first because it does NOT impinge the prostatic urethra

219
Q

Central Zone

A

Surrounds ejaculatory ducts; resistant to carcinoma and inflammation

220
Q

Describe Transitional Zone. What is BPH?

A

Surrounds proximal prostatic urethra

Account for 34% of prostate cancers

Also responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)— outgrowth of both epithelial and stromal cell compartments BUT does not leave the basement membrane like cancer does; formation of nodular masses can compress flow through the prostatic urethra

221
Q

Periurethral Zone

A

Thin sleeve around the prostatic urethra; may undergo pathological growth from stromal compartment in later stages of BPH; also increases urine retention in bladder by compressing urethra

222
Q

Which part of the prostate isn’t in a “zone”?

A

Anterior portion

Made of fibromuscular stroma

223
Q

Why does a biopsy have to be performed to confirm prostate cancer?

A

Because PSA is also elevated in BPH

224
Q

Which structure is lost in prostate cancer? What are the treatment options for prostate cancer? (Be specific)

A

The nice alveoli (because cells penetrate the basement membrane)

Surgery
Radiation therapy
Hormone Therapy:
-reduce circulating androgens by performing orchiectomy (surgical removal of testis); decreases T and DHT but increases FSH/LH
-use GnRH antagonist (duh) or GnRH agonist (causes initial spike in FSH/LH, T, and DHT but then the continued non-pulsatile presence of GnRH down regulates GnRH receptors)
-block action of androgens via androgen receptors antagonist

225
Q

Bulbourethral glands

A

Size of a pea; behind the prostate

Secrete clear, mucus-like pre-ejaculate to lubricate the penile urethra for spermatozoa to pass through. Neutralizes traces of acidic urine. Helps flush out any residual or foreign matter

226
Q

Composition of Semen

A

10% sperm, 90% seminal plasma from pre-ejaculate, prostatic secretions, and seminal vesicular secretions.

227
Q

Is PSA always elevated in BPH? What treatments could be done?

A

No

Inhibitors to 5a-reductase would reduce conversion of T to DHT and thus reduce size of prostate

Surgical removal of hyperplastic regions of prostate

Themotherapy (laser, microwave, etc.) to destroy prostate tissue

a-blockers to relax smooth muscle and ease urination

228
Q

What makes up the erectile tissue of the penis?

A

2 dorsal masses— corpus cavernosum (separated by pectiniform septum)
1 ventral mass— corpus spongiosum (penile urethra runs down the middle of this one)

Tunica albuginea (a dense, fibroelastic layer) binds all three together and forms a capsule around each. Much thicker around cavernosums.

229
Q

Describe the structure of the corpus cavernosum

A

A pair of sponge like regions of erectile tissue containing most of the blood during erection

Almost all of it is made up of irregular vascular spaces lined by endothelium and separated by thin layers of trabeculae containing collagen, elastic fibers and smooth muscle

Each is supplied by a central artery which gives off multiple corkscrew shaped helicine arteries that fill the vascular spaces during erection

230
Q

Describe the structure of the corpus spongiosum

A

The mass of spongy tissue surrounding the penile urethra; function is to prevent compression of penile urethra during erection in order to maintain a functioning urethra for ejaculation

Also contain numerous irregular vascular spaces lined with endothelium
These spaces are surrounded by thick layer of connective tissue and smooth muscle bundles— “subendothelial cushions”

231
Q

How does erection work?

A

Parasympathetic release of ACh—> NO released from SM and endothelial cells—> activation of cGMP in SM cells—> vasodilation—> relaxation and vasodilation of helicine arteries SM cells—> increased blood flow into corpus cavernosum—> compress the venues against the thick tunica albuginea (can’t flow out)—> tunica albuginea also compresses larger vessels to prevent back flow—> maintains erection

232
Q

When does Viagra work for erectile dysfunction? When does it not?

A

Viagra inhibits cGMP phosphodiesterase (breaks down cGMP); preserves SM relaxation and prolonging the erection period

If the ED is due to parasympathetic nervous system dysfunction, this won’t work

233
Q

Termination of Erection

A

Sympathetic stimulation—> contraction of trabeculae SM cells and of helicine arteries—> decr. blood flow to corpus cavernosum—> reduce BP in corpus cavernosum to normal venous pressure—> allow veins to open and drain blood