Histo: Lower GI Disease Flashcards

1
Q

List some congenital disorders of the GI tract.

A
  • Atresia/stenosis
  • Duplication
  • Imperforate anus
  • Hirschsprung disease (MOST COMMON)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Hirschsprung disease?

A
  • Caused by the absence of ganglion cells of the submucosa & myenteric plexus results in failure of dilatation of the distal colon
  • Presents with: constipation, abdominal distension, vomiting and overflow diarrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List some genetic associations of Hirschsprung disease.

A
  • Down syndrome
  • RET proto-oncogene Cr10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is Hirschsprung disease diagnosed?

A
  • Clinical impression
  • Full thickness rectal biopsy
  • Shows hypertrophied nerve fibres but no ganglia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is Hirschsprung disease treated?

A

Resection of affected (constricted) segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a volvulus?

A

Twisting of a loop of bowel at the mesenteric base around a vascular pedicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which part of the intestines tend to be affected by volvulus in children and the elderly?

A

Children - small bowel

Elderly - sigmoid colon > caecal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diverticular disease.

A

High intraluminal pressure (e.g. due to poor diet) leads to herniation of the bowel mucosa through weak points in the bowel wall (usually sites of entry of nutrient vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List some causes of acute colitis.

A
  • Infection
  • Drugs/toxins
  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List the effects of infection on the colon.

A
  • Secretory diarrhoea (due to toxin)
  • Exudative diarrhoea (due to invasion and mucosal damage)
  • Severe tissue damage and perforation
  • Systemic illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can cause pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Exotoxins by C. difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can C. difficile colitis be diagnosed?

A

Toxin stool assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is pseudomembranous colitis treated?

How is H.pylori infection treated?

A

C.diff (lower GI) - Metronidazole or vancomycin

H.pylori (upper GI) - triple therapy (PPI, amox, clarythro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where in the intestines does ischaemic colitis tend to occur?

A

Watershed zones (e.g. splenic flexure, rectosigmoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List some causes of ischaemic colitis.

A
  • Arterial occlusion (e.g. embolism)
  • Venous occlusion (e.g. thrombus)
  • Small vessel disease (e.g. diabetes mellitus)
  • Low flow states (e.g. CCF)
  • Obstruction (e.g. hernia, intussusception)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List some characteristic micro/macro histiological features of Crohn’s disease.

A
  • Can occur anywhere from mouth to anus
  • Skip lesions
  • Transmural inflammation
  • Non-caseating granulomas
  • Sinus/fistula formation
  • Mostly affects large bowel and terminal ileum
  • Thick rubber hose-like wall
  • Cobbelstone mucosa
  • Narrow lumen, strictures

rosethorn ulcers which can form fistulas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List some extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease.

A
  • Arthritis
  • Uveitis
  • Polyarthritis
  • Stomatitis/cheilitis
  • Skin lesions (pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List some characteristic macro and micro histiological features of ulcerative colitis.

A
  • Involves rectum and colon in a continuous fashion
  • May see backwash ileitis (involvement of the terminal ileum)
  • Inflammation is confined to the mucosa
  • Bowel wall is normal thickness

no granulomas/fissures/fistulae/strictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List some complications of ulcerative colitis.

A
  • Severe haemorrhage
  • Toxic megacolon
  • Adenocarcinoma (20-30x increased risk)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which liver condition is associated with UC?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List some types of neoplastic epithelial lesions that occur in the GI tract.

A
  • Adenoma
  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Carcinoid tumour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List some types of stromal lesions that occur in the GI tract.

A
  • Stromal tumours
  • Lipoma
  • Sarcoma
  • Other: lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List three types of non-neoplastic polyp and explain their subtypes/associated conditions

A
  • Hyperplastic
  • hyperplastic polyps
  • sessile serated lesions (subtype)
  • Inflammatory (pseudopolyp)
  • IBD
  • Haemartomatous
  • juvenile polyposis (autosomal dominant)
  • Peutz-Jeghers (autosomal dominant) multiple polyps and periorbital pigmentation
24
Q

List three types of neoplastic polyp.

A
  • Tubular adenoma
  • Tubulovillous adenoma
  • Villous adenoma (most likely to turn to adenocarcinoma)
25
Q

What is an adenoma?

A
  • Excess epithelial proliferation with dysplasia but does NOT disrupt the BM
  • NOTE: there are three types - tubular, tubulovillous and villous
26
Q

List some features of an adenoma that are associated with increased risk of becoming a carcinoma.

A
  • Size of polyp (>4cm = 45%)
  • Proportion of villous component (i.e. villous more dangerous than tubulous)
  • Degree of dysplastic change within a polyp
27
Q

List some observations that have given rise to adenoma-carcinoma sequence theory.

A
  • Areas with a high prevalence of adenomas have a high prevalence of carcinoma
  • Adenomas tend to appear 10 years before a carcinoma
  • Risk of cancer is proportional to the number of adenomas
28
Q

List some familial syndromes that are characterised by intestinal polyps.

A
  • Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
  • FAP (Gardner’s, Turcot)
  • HNPCC
29
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of FAP?

A

Autosomal dominant

30
Q

Which gene is mutated in FAP?

A

APC gene - chromosome 5q21

APC - adenomatous polyposis coli gene!

NOTE: almost 100% will develop cancer in 10-15 years

31
Q

What is Gardner’s syndrome?

A

Same features of FAP but with extra-intestinal manifestations: multiple osteomas of the skull and mandible, epidermoid cysts, desmoid tumours and supernumerary teeth

32
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of HNPCC?

A

Autosomal dominant

33
Q

Which gene mutation is associated with HNPCC?

A

1 of 4 DNA mismatch repair genes is mutated

34
Q

Where do carcinomas in HNPCC tend to occur?

A

Proximal to the splenic flexure

NOTE: poorly differentiated and mucinous cancers are more common. Polyps do not necessarily precede the cancer.

35
Q

Outline Dukes’ staging of colorectal cancer.

A

A - confined to bowel wall

B - through the bowel wall

C - lymph node metastases

D - distant metastases

36
Q

define fistula?

A

communication between two hollow viscera

37
Q

four layers of the bowel?

A

the mucosa (epithelium, lamina propria, and muscular mucosae)
the submucosa
the muscularis propria (inner circular muscle layer, intermuscular space, and outer longitudinal muscle layer)
and the serosa

38
Q

what causes ischemia in volvulus?

A

venous not arterial obstruction

39
Q

organisms that cause infection in acute colitis?
and specific drugs?

A

salmonella
CMV (particularly in IBD!)

checkpoint inhibitors

40
Q

What causes chronic colitis?

A

crohn’s and uc

tb

41
Q

what layer of the bowel dies first in ischaemic colitis?

A

mucosa first (as blood supply comes through the other way)

42
Q

why are watershed areas vulnerable to ischaemia?

A

splenic flexure - SMA transition to IMA

rectosigmoid - IMA transition to internal iliac

43
Q

conditions associated with HLA B27 and UC

A

Ank spond, JIA

44
Q

Marker of active disease (acute on chronic) in UC/crohns

A

Crypt abscesses

45
Q

2 cancers people with UC are at risk of?

A

colorectal adenocarcinoma (x20-30)
and cholangio (from PSC!)

46
Q

antibiotics that put you at risk of c.diff psuedomembranous colitis?

A

4Cs - ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins, co-amox and clinda

47
Q

what differentiates diverticula to pseudodiverticulum and which is meckel’s and acquired?

A

true diverticulum (meckel’s) - goes through mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and serosa

pseudo - diverticulosis - just goes through muscosa / submucosa

48
Q

rule of 2 for diverticulum

A

2% pop, 2ft proximal from ileocaecal valve, 2:1 M:F

49
Q

what is carcinoid syndrome

A

group of neuroendocrine tumours of enterochromaffin origin which produce 5ht (serotonin)

50
Q

symptoms of carcinoid

A

dirrhoea, flushing

51
Q

Ix and Mx of carcinoid

A

24hr urine 5-HIAA

Octreotide (somatostatin analogue)

52
Q

key difference between dysplastic mucosa and normal?

A

Dysplastic has a raised nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio

53
Q

Tell me the difference in histological appearance between the two types of hyperplastic polyps?

A

Hyperplastic polyps - sawtoothed and serrated

Sessile serated lesions = hyperplastic polyp + architectural abnormalities (crypts at base are horizontal not vertical!)

54
Q

Tell me about the 2 conditions related to hamartomatous polyps?

A

Juvenile polyposis (AD)
- <5yrs old

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) (AD)
- periorbital pigmentation
- regular surveillance requried

55
Q

Marker for colorectal Ca?

A

CEA

56
Q

difference between grade and stage of CRC?

A

grade - how differentiated
stage - how far spread

TNM or duke

57
Q
A