Hip Flashcards

1
Q

From an AP view, the femoral neck and head should form an angle with the diaphysis of the femur of ___° plus or minus 7°

A

125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the innominate bone?

A

The fusion of the 3 bones of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An angle of inclination of 105° is considered coxa ____. An angle of inclination of 140° is considered coxa ____.

A

vara

valga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 standard views to visualize the femoral head and neck?

A
  • Anteroposterior view (AP)

- Frog-leg view (frog-lateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the AP view the patient is supine with the hip ____ rotated how many degrees?

A

internally

15°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe patient position for frog-leg view

A

patient supine, knees flexed, and femurs fully abducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of the frog-leg view

A

It gives a second lateral view of the proximal femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is the frog-leg view never used to rule out a proximal femur fracture or dislocated hip?

A

it places too much torque on hip joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the standard frog-leg view what part of the femur is pronunced?

A

the spherical shape of the femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The iliopubic lines represent the _____ columns of the pelvis

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The iliopubic lines run from where to where?

A

From the midpoint of the inner rim of the pelvis distally along the medial rim of pelvis toward pubic rami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ischiopubic lines represent the _____ columns of the pelvis

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The ischiopubic lines run from where to where?

A

From the midpoint of the inner rim of the pelvis distally along the medial border of “teardrop” to medial border of obturator foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the AP view of the hip what do the “teardrops” represent?

A

The sum of shadows created by the medial acetabular walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The teardrops should be an equal distance between what 2 structures?

A

In between the medial pelvic rim and the femoral heads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the angle of Wiberg?

A

The angle created when a line is drawn from the center of the femoral head vertically and another drawn from the same center point to the proximal, lateral edge of acetabular rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The angle of Wiberg must be greater than __°.

A

> 25°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If the angle of Wiberg is less than 25° what exists?

A

dysplasia of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What forms Shenton’s line?

A

A smooth line from the medial edge of the proximal femur metaphysis proximally and medially along the proximal rim of the obturator foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can you determine if the femurs are equally rotated in the AP view?

A

Compare the relative size and exposure of the lesser trochanters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the AP view, the anterior rim of the acetabulum is _____ and ____ to the posterior rim

A

superior and medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If there is a compressive force to the femoral neck where will you see increased density on a plain film?

A

Along the superior portion of the neck

23
Q

If there is a distractive force to the femoral neck where will you see increased density on a plain film?

A

Along the inferior portion of the neck

24
Q

How can you determine if there is osteosarcoma?

A

There will be a “sunburst” pattern

25
Q

the femur develops trabechular patterns along the lines of the compressive and distractive forces in accordance with what law?

A

Wolff’s

26
Q

What are the 4 major trabechular patterns?

A

(1) principal compressive group
(2) secondary compressive group
(3) principal tensile group
(4) secondary tensile group

27
Q

What are the borders of Ward’s triangle?

A

The primary compressive trabechulae medially
The secondary compressive trabechulae laterally
The primary tensile trabechulae proximally

28
Q

Calcifications in soft tissue are the result of dystrophic (degenerative or necrotic) causes __% to __% of time

A

95 - 98%

29
Q

Hip pathologies are strongly correlated to what characteristic in a patient?

A

age

30
Q

Are congenitally dislocated hips more frequent in males or females at what ratio?

A

Females at 4:1 ratio

31
Q

__% of congenital hip dislocations are unilateral

A

80

32
Q

What are some characteristics of children with septic hip?

A

Limping
Vague pain localized to distal thigh (often mistaken for knee pain
Fever

33
Q

Legg-Calvé-PerthesDisease is found in children from the ages of _ to _ years with average diagnosis at _.

A

3 to 12

7

34
Q

What is Legg-Calvé-PerthesDisease?

A

A form of idiopathic, avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis

35
Q

What is the most common cause of hip pain in the adolescent age group?

A

Slipped CapitalFemoral Epiphysis

36
Q

What is Slipped CapitalFemoral Epiphysis?

A

Posterior and inferior slippage of proximal femoral epiphysis on metaphysis (femoral neck), occurring through physeal plate during early adolescent growth spurt

37
Q

Other than congenital hip dislocations, what are other causes for hip dislocations?

A

traumatic

 - MVA
 - high risk sports
38
Q

What is a common cause of acetabular fracture?

A

MVA and the knee hits the dashboard causing flexed hip to move posteriorly into acetabulum

39
Q

Traumatic dislocations of hip joint can be _____, _____, or _____ (through the acetabulum).

A

anterior, posterior, or medial

40
Q

The majority of hip dislocations occur in what direction?

A

posterior

41
Q

Only __% of hip dislocations are anterior

A

13%

42
Q

Stress fractures on the ____ (compression) side of the femoral neck are more common than stress fractures on the _____ (stress) side of the femoral neck

A

inferior

superior

43
Q

When a PT is talking about “groin pain or groin strains” what are they referring to?

A

Occult hip fractures due to low impact or repetitive impact injuries

44
Q

Who is at risk for femoral neck stress fractures?

A

Any patient, regardless of age, who is involved in an “enforced” training regimen that involves weight-bearing repetitive stress

45
Q

What is the most reliable clinical symptom of an impending hip stress fracture?

A

groin pain

46
Q

What type of imaging can also be used to view stress fractures?

A

bone scans

47
Q

What is indicative of osteonecrosis of the hip in the frog-leg view?

A

A crescent-shaped radiolucency found along the superior medial edge of the femoral head

48
Q

When pieces of labrum get into the joint following dislocation, what can occur?

A

Femoroacetabular impingement

49
Q

What does a cam type of impingement result from?

A

Decreased offset between the femoral head and neck combined with retroversion of femoral head, causing impingement of anterolateral rim of acetabulum and the labrum

50
Q

How can you test for labrum impingement?

A

Position the patient supine, flex the hip more than 90°, adducted, and internally rotated.
- if groin pain is present the test is positive for labrum impingement

51
Q

What is myositis ossificans?

A

heterotopic ossification (calcification) of muscle that usually results form a blow to the quads, brachialis, or calf results in pain and swelling

52
Q

When is myositis ossificans often visible on a plain film?

A

Within 2 to 4 weeks of injury

53
Q

What is the major difference between Myositis Ossificans and an osteosarcoma?

A

Myositis ossificans calcifies from its periphery, while an osteosarcoma ossifies from the center of the lesion and “radiates” outward