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HIM Flashcards

1
Q

In order, what are the levels of organizational structure that EPIC uses to represent the physical and logical structure of a health care enterprise?

A
  1. Facility
  2. Service Area
  3. Location
  4. Department
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2
Q

How many Chronicles master files are used to store facility, service areas, locations, and departments, and what are they?

A

Two master files are used. Facility, service areas, and locations are all stored in the EAF master file, though they are extracted to different tables. Departments are stored in the DEP master file.

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3
Q

If you need to report on departments by location, what column would you use to join the relevant Clarity Tables?

A

The departments location is stored in the REV_LOC_ID column, so you would join from CLARITY_DEP.REV_LOC_ID to CLARITY_LOC.LOC_ID

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4
Q

True or False. All records in the ACCOUNT table are ROI requesters.

A

False. Some of the records in ACCOUNT are ROI requesters but some of the rows are other types of accounts, such as guarantor accounts.

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5
Q

Which column would you use to report on the amount of each refund made by your release clerks?

A

ROI_AUDIT_TRAIL.AUDIT_AMOUNT

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6
Q

Which column would you use to report on the reason a release was canceled?

A

ROI_DETAILS.ROI_HOLD_RSN_C

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7
Q

Which column should be used to select rows based on an episodes status?

A

CT_EPISODE.EPISODE_STAT_C

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8
Q

What do the values in CT_EPISODE.EPISODE_DLQ_YN mean and what condition must exist in order to trust its contents?

A

The values indicate whether any deficiencies attached to this episode went delinquent. It should be trusted only if the episode is closed.

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9
Q

How would you link a chart episode with the primary encounter associated with the episode?

A

CT_EPISODE.PRIMARY_CSN to PAT_ENC_HSP.PAT_ENC_CSN_ID

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10
Q

You have been asked to write a report that includes information about chart episodes for hospital encounters. In addition to CT_EPISODE and PAT_ENC_HSP, which table is needed to link a chart episode with all of the associated encounters?

A

CT_EPISODE_CSN

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11
Q

True or False. To report on delinquency rates by location, you can use the LOC_ID column in CLARITY_DEF.

A

FALSE. Location is not a required item when creating a deficiency definition. A single deficiency definition can be used by multiple locations.

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12
Q

What fields are used to link deficiency instance records to the records for the assigned parties?

A
  1. DFI_DETAILS.DFI_ID is used to link to CT_DEF_MULT_STAFF.DFI_ID.
  2. CT_DEF_MULT_STAFF.ASGN_PROV_ID is used to link to CLARITY_SER.
  3. CT_DEF_MULT_STAFF.ASGN_POOL_ID is used to link to CLARITY_HIP.
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13
Q

If two actions occured at the same time down to the second, how can we distinguish which action happened first?

A

The earlier action will have a smaller value in the LINE column.

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14
Q

Why are the DFI_AUDIT_TRAIL and F_DT_ASGN_STAT tables better for historical reporting on assigned staff then the CT_DEF_MULT_STAFF table?

A

The CT_DEF_MULT_STAFF table clears out information as the assigned party changes, so it only shows information as of the last Clarity extract.

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15
Q

What two actions cause the PRIV_AUD_SUSLINE column to be populated in PROV_PRIV_AUD_TRL?

A

Restore and Delete

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16
Q

You are running a daily report that shows you how many delinquent deficiencies a provider has yet to address. You see a number of providers who have delinquent deficiencies that are not being taken care of. What table can you use to incorporate whether or not the providers were in the office on a particular day?

A

OOC_DETAILS

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17
Q

Why would you use the HSP_ACCT_DX_LIST table in a report?

A

To report on the coded final diagnoses on a hospital account.

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18
Q

Which table would you use to see all DRG codes entered on a hospital account?

A

HSP_ACCT_MULT_DRGS

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19
Q

Why is having a LINE value of 1 significant for a record in the HSP_ACCT_PX_LIST table?

A

This indicates the procedure is the primary procedure on the account.

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20
Q

If an account has two rows where the status history was set to Complete, what does that usually represent?

A

A manager has gone in to review the coder’s work.

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21
Q

What is one example of a DNB?

A

The most important DNB check is when programming point 41465-Coding Status Complete Check is added. This is set for accounts that have been discharged but not billed and coding has not been finished within a sufficient number of days after discharge.

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22
Q

How is each new CDI review stored in Chronicles and in Clarity?

A

As a new contact in the COD master file and a new row in COD_CONTACT_INFO.

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23
Q

What column distinguishes Coding queries from CDI querires?

A

CODING_CLA_NOTES.QUERY_WORKFLOW_C

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24
Q

True or False. Each service area can have multiple locations?

A

True.

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25
Q

True or False. Each Location can have multiple departments?

A

True.

26
Q

True or False. Each organization can have multiple service areas.

A

True.

27
Q

Who needs a provider (SER) record?

A

Every clinician who provides care to your patients.

28
Q

The main table that you will use to report on release of information?

A

ROI_DETAILS

29
Q

What table is requester information stored in?

A

ACCOUNT table.

30
Q

Can you audit changes made to items such as name of the account, the patient that is linked to the account (if the account is an ROI requester), the SS# of the requester, as well as the requester’s billing contact info?

A

This auditing is turned off by default. Facility can decide to turn it on and what items will be tracked.

31
Q

What is created for each hospital encounter to store information about the encounters deficiencies?

A

Episode

32
Q

When is the episode created?

A

When the patient is admitted.

33
Q

A ______ is created to store information about the hospital stay.

A

Encounter

34
Q

True or False. Can you set up the system to automatically create deficiencies based on such events?

A

True.

35
Q

If a deficiency can be associated with a chart deficiency tracking episode, it has a classification of?

A

Episode Based.

36
Q

If a deficiency can be used with clinical workflows, it has a classification of?

A

Clinic

37
Q

For a particular deficiency instance, what derived table stores the time that a particular party (provider or pool) was assigned to the deficiency at a particular status?

A

F_DT_ASGN_STATS

38
Q

When does a providers suspension begin?

A

When the value in the Suspend? field is changed to Yes and lasts until the field is changed to No.

39
Q

True or False. If a coder changes information on a hospital account for billing purposes, it is also changes in the patients clinical documentation record?

A

False. Since the coded info pertains to the patients now-completed visit, it would not be appropriate for it to reflect future changes. Changes do not flow back to the patients clinical documentation.

40
Q

Name the types of diagnosis records stored int he EDG master file.

A
  1. Code type records- ex. ICD-9 (billing purposes)
  2. Term type records- ex. Hypertension (clinician friendly)
  3. Both type records- code and term type.
41
Q

Can all the columns in the CLARITY_EDG table be used after your organization has converted to ICD-10

A

False. 7.18 lists the columns that will not be available after the conversion to ICD-10

42
Q

What table are the admission diagnoses stored in?

A

HSP_ACCT_ADMIT_DX

43
Q

What table are final diagnoses stored?

A

HSP_ACCT_DX_LIST. The diagnoses listed on line 1 is considered the accounts principal diagnosis.

44
Q

True or False. Multiple ICD and/or CPT procedures be linked to the same procedure event?

A

True. Making it easy to group procedures by the same provider, or under the same procedure (anesthesia)

45
Q

What tables do you need to list a given DRG’s name and code?

A

CLARITY_DRG and CLARITY_DRG_MPI_ID.

46
Q

True or False. Coders can select which code set should be used on an insurance claim.

A

True.

47
Q

If the status of a coded account has 2 completed statuses what does this mean?

A

It means that it was reviewed by a manager for coding accuracy.

48
Q

True or False. Can DNB (discharged not billed) checks be removed from accounts manually?

A

True. They can be removed manually or systematically.

49
Q

True or False. Can Stop Bills be removed by the system?

A

False. Can only be removed by user in order for an account to be billed.

50
Q

What is the time period referred to as “min days”?

A

The minimum number of days before your organization expects to send out a bill.

51
Q

Once a deficiency is completed, will the fields for the assigned provider and assigned pool be cleared?

A

Yes. the current assigned party (provider) or pool will be cleared out. if you want to report on parties who were assigned to complete a deficiency you have to use DFI_AUDIT_TRAIL.

52
Q

A row in PROV_PRIV_AUD_TRL has a non-null value in PRIV_AUD_SUSLINE. For that same row, what are the possible values in the PRIV_AUD_ACTN_C?

A

Delete and Restore.

53
Q

What record selection is needed to report on users who canceled releases?

A

ROI_AUDIT_TRAIL.ROI_AUDIT_ACTN_C

54
Q

What test is used to find deficiencies on hold at a certian instance?

A

DFI_DETAILS.DEF_STATUS_C=5

55
Q

Where is episode delinquency status stored?

A

CT_EPISODE.EPISODE_DLQ_YN

56
Q

True or False. are ICD procedures stored in chronological order?

A

False. LINE will be in chronological order except for LINE 1 which is always the primary position, regardless of when it was entered.

57
Q

User security controls what___________?

A

What activities a user can perform.

58
Q

User roles control what__________?

A

menus, toolbars, and buttons a user can see.

59
Q

What table and column are populated when a request in considered fulfilled.

A

ROI_DETAILS.DATE_SENT

60
Q

The unique ID of the user who received the authorization?

A

ROI_DETAILS.AUTH_USER_ID

61
Q

The unique ID of the user who is responsible for this release?

A

ROI_DETAILS.ASSIGNED_TO_ID

Health Information Management (1 decks)

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