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STEP 2 CK EXAM! > High Yield (UWORLD) > Flashcards

High Yield (UWORLD) Flashcards

1
Q

what drugs would you give to someone who is on the max dose of a statin but the LDL level is still not controlled and they have severe hyperlipidemia

A

PCSK9 Inhibitors Evolocumab and Alirocumab

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2
Q

De Musset sign

A

Sign in aortic regurgitation in which there is head bobbing

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3
Q

Muller sign

A

Uvula bobbing that is present in aortic regurgitation

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4
Q

Duroziez sign

A

Pistol shot that is heard when listening to the femoral arteries that is present in aortic regurgitation

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5
Q

Grey turner sign

A

Ecchymoses on the back and flank area, sign of AAA

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6
Q

Cullen sign

A

Ecchymoses around umbilicus sign of AAA

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7
Q

Leriche syndrome

A

Atherosclerotic occlusion of the aorta right above the bifurcation that causes impotence, claudication and absent or diminished femoral pulses

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8
Q

ABI <0.9

A

Blockage of arteries (intermittent claudication , rest pain )

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9
Q

ABI>1.4

A

Arteries that cannot be compressed (severe disease)

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10
Q

ABI 0.9 -1.4

A

No blockage in the artery

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11
Q

Good drug treatment for peripheral vascular disease

A

Cilostazol

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12
Q

Treatment for hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Cefepime or ceftazidime
Pip/tazo
Carbapenems

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13
Q

Treatment for community acquired pneumonia

A

Azithromycin
Doxocylcline
Levofloxacin

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14
Q

Treatment for p jiroveci

A

TMP SMX
atovaquone (mild form)
Clincamycine or prumaquine if there is TMP SMX toxicity

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15
Q

what drug slows the rate of pulmonary fibrosis

A

pirfenidone and nintedanib

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16
Q

what is the drug that is safe to use with heparin induced thrmobocytopenia

A

fondaparinux

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17
Q

what drug reverses the effects of dabigatran

A

idarucizumab

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18
Q

ARDS has a po2/FiO2 ratio of

A

<300

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19
Q

treatment for eosinophilic esophagitis

A

PPI, remove allergic food and if bad aersol steroids

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20
Q

treatment for infectious esophagitis (candida)

A

fuconazole

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21
Q

treatment for Schatzki ring

A

pneumatic dilation

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22
Q

treatment for plummer vinson

A

first treat FE anemia

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23
Q

treatment for zenker

A

surgery

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24
Q

what test should never be done one someone with zenker

A

NG tube or upper endoscopy, could be fatal

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25
Q

treatment for esophagus problems associated with scleroderma

A

PPI

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26
Q

what does pyrosis mean

A

heartburn

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27
Q

what treatments can be used for GERD patients who do not respond to PPI

A 
Nissen fundoplication (wrap stomach around LES)
Endocinch (suture put into LES)
heat and radiation of LES to casue scar
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28
Q

treatment for H pylori

A

PPI, clarithromycin and amoxicillin

use metronidazole if PNC is allergic

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29
Q

what is the best test for diabetic gastroperiesis

A

nuclear gastric emptying study

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30
Q

what is the treatment for diabetic gastroperesis

A

erythromycine and metoclopramide

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31
Q

drug to give for variceal bleeding

A

ocreotide

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32
Q

what medication is given to decreases the times variceal bleeding will occur in the future

A

b-blocker (propranolol)

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33
Q

what procedure can be done to decrease portal pressure in people who have variceal bleeding that is not controlled by banding or ocreotide

A

TIPS

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting

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34
Q

tx for c diff

A

metronidazole

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35
Q

tx for refractory (to metronidazole) c diff

A

fidaxomicin

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36
Q

tx for sever c diff

A

oral vanco

iv metronidazole

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37
Q

tx for whippel disease

A

TMP SMX

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38
Q

treatment for tropical sprue

A

TMP SMX or tetracycline

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39
Q

treatment for carcinoid

A

ocreotide (somatostain analogue)

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40
Q

treatement for intraamniotic infection

A

delivery and

clindamycin, ampicillin or gentamicin

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41
Q

thickening of the glomerular basement membrane is seen in

A

membranous nephropathy

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42
Q

renal disease
sensorineurla hearing loss
occular problems

A

Alport syndrome

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43
Q

thinning and splitting of the basement membrane is seen in

A

alport syndrome

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44
Q

linear deposition of IgG in basement membrane

A

GOODPASTURES SYNDROME

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45
Q

fusion of podocytes is seen in

A

minimal change disease

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46
Q

igA deposiiton on mesangium

A

HenochScholein Purpura

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47
Q

blastomycosis most commonly occurs in

A

wisconsin

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48
Q

blastmycosis has what two particulra disease traits

A

lytic bone lesions and ulcerated skin lesions

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49
Q

thalamic stroke presentation

A

contralateral loss of sensaiton and tingling

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50
Q

dejerine-Roussy syndorme?

A

after a thalamic stroke has resolved, this is the pain with ongoing parathesisias that takes place

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51
Q

what is the lactose tolerance test

A

hydrogen breath test

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52
Q

lactose deficency stool ph is

A

acidic (fermentation)

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53
Q

symmetric proximal muscle weakness and skin rash is seen in

A

dermatomyositis

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54
Q

what is melanoisis coli

A

dark brown areas on the colon due to laxative abuse (alligator skin)

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55
Q

what is the diseases that has 1000 polyps present in a young person who will get cancer by age 40 and die by age 50

A

familial adenomatous polyposis

56
Q

what is the mutation in FAP

A

APC gene

57
Q

what is the disease where people will get colorectal, endometrial and ovarian cancer, (3 family memebrs will ahve it, 2 generation apart, 1 will get cancer before age 50)

A

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer “Lynch syndrome”

58
Q

what is mutated in lynch syndorme

A

DNA mismatch repair genes

59
Q

what is the disease that has brain tumers and colon acancer

A

turcot

60
Q

what is the diseases that has tumors of the jaw and colon cancer

A

gardener

61
Q

hyperpigmentated buccal mucosa, small intestine tumores (harmatomas) and nonmalignant colon polyps

A

Peutz-Jegers

62
Q

vaginal bleeding, back pain and or abdominal pain in a pregnant woman

A

abruptio placenta

63
Q

atypical glandular cells seen on PAP calls for what test

A

endometrial biopsy

64
Q

what disease can present with trigeminal nerualgia BILATERALLY

A

MS

65
Q

what is acrocyanosis

A

this is when the body of new born is pink and the arms are blue, it is normal for 1-2 days

66
Q

most common reason for liver transplant in babies

A

biliary atresia

67
Q

inability for the kidney to concentrate urine and found in sickle cell paitents is called

A

hyposthenuria

68
Q

OCP reduce the risk for what cancers

A

ovarian and endometrial

69
Q

increased cortisol has been associiated with what psych condition

A

MDD

70
Q

increased sensitivity to lactate infusion is seen in

A

panic attacks

71
Q

enlarged ventricles are seen in what psych condition

A

schizophrenia

72
Q

RA affects what spine

A

cervical spine

73
Q

what is the most common cause of AA amyloidosid

A

RA

74
Q

wat is the most common cause of AL amyloidosis

A

Multiple Myeloma

75
Q

treat widespread impetigo with

A

celphalexin

76
Q

what drugs can be used to bind phosphate

A

sevelamer and calcium acetate

77
Q

what are the three main problems in TTP and HUS

A

intravascular hemolysis
renal insufficiency
thrombocytopenia

78
Q

urgent treatment drugs for SIADH

A

tolvaptan and conivaptan

79
Q

chronic treatment for SIADH medication

A

demeclocycline

80
Q

what substance removes potassium from the body

A

kayexealate

81
Q

tx for RTA 4

A

fludricortisone (replaces blood sodium)

82
Q

tx for RTA 1

A

bicarb

83
Q

tx for RTA 2

A

thiazide or salt restriction

84
Q

ketorolac is what

A

an NSAID that gives analgesia to the level of an opiate

85
Q

what medication is used to treat acute disotonia

A

diphenyhdramine

86
Q

what medication is used to treat akathesia

A

lorazepam

87
Q

what is the best way to stop NMS

A

to stop giving the antipsychotic (haloperidol)

88
Q

what are the ebst ways to measure when DKA is getting better (decrease in acidemia)

A

by measuring

  • serum anion gap
  • beta-hydroxybuterate
89
Q

if an animal who has not been vaccinated against rabies bites a human but the animal is calm and the human cut is clean, what do you do

A

observe the animal for 10 days and do not prophylax the patient yet

90
Q

person goes to a bat cave and is unsure if they were bitten, what do you do

A

give PEP (rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin)

91
Q

what is a comon problem in the gut of preemies

A

necrotizing enterocolitis because the bowl is immature and bacteria gets in there with the tube feedings they are given

92
Q

what is the best way to avoid NES in preemies who need to be monitoired

A

breast feeding them

93
Q

what is the key difference with a child with hirschprung verses nectrotizing eneterocolitis

A

hirschprung child wont be gaining weight

94
Q

what kind of cancers can form on the border of scars

A

squamous cell (Marjolin Ulcer)

95
Q

Flurouracil is used for

A

actinic keratosis (May become SCC)

96
Q

tx for vitaligo

A

topical or po steroids

97
Q

small macules on sun exposed areas in old people that are hypopigmented

A

idoiopathic guttate hypomelanosis

98
Q

resting tremors are due to a problem in what area of the brian

A

the basal ganglia

99
Q

cerebellar dysfunction causes what kind of tremor

A

intentional tremor (as finger gets closer to target it shakes)

100
Q

what tremor begins in the legs and is immedialty stopped when one sits down

A

orthostaic tremor

101
Q

how do you diagnose pneumonia

A

with a CXR

102
Q

why dont you order a sputum and gram stain for pneumonia dx

A

because you dont usually do that in an outpatient setting because antibiotics treat everything anyway

103
Q

what is the condition where digital clubbing (Convex nails) is associated with sudden onset arthropahty (wrist pain)

A 
hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (associated with Lung CA)
-get CXR to dx
104
Q

non HIV patients who get P jiroveci (Patients on steorid) present how

A

fever
dry cough
fatigue

105
Q

what can cuase cerebelalr atrophy

A

antiseziure drugs like phenytoin and alcohol abuse

106
Q

a brain that has seized for more then 5 mins (status epilepticus) is at an increased risk for

A

cortical necrosis

107
Q

what can be a complication of thoracic aortic aneyursm repair

A

spinal infarction causing anterior cord syndorme (loss of pain and temp in lower extremities, loss of bladder ontorl and flaccid paralysis )

108
Q

the name of a form of treatment for a disease when the standard treamtnet fails

A

salvage

109
Q

name for treamtment given in addition to a therapy

A

adujvant

110
Q

therapy gien after induction therapy as a multidrug system to further reduce a tumor is called

A

consolidation

111
Q

treamtnet given before the standard therapy in particular diseases

A

neoadjuvant

112
Q

MC meds for bipolar

A

lithium and valproate

113
Q

which drug reduces the risk for suicide in bipolar pts

A

lithium

114
Q

what are the four first line treamtnets for bipolar

A

lithium
valproate
quetiapine
lamotrigine

115
Q

phenytoin and carbamazepine use during pregnancy can cause

A

fetal hydantoin syndorme

116
Q 
midfacial hypoplasia
digital hypoplasia
hirtuism
microcephaly
cleft lip 
developmental delay

what is the dx

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome

117
Q

common side effect of epidural for pregnant people

A

hypotension (blood pools in the veins and venous return is decreased)

118
Q

generalized muscular atrophy and hyporeflexia is seen in

A

Werdnig-Hoffman (spinal muscular atrophy)

119
Q

first line treatment for alzheimers is

A

cholinesterase inhibitors

  • donepezil
  • galantamine
  • rivastigmine
120
Q

what is amantadine

A

a dopamine agoinst used to treat parkinsons

121
Q

anti-tissue-trangultaminase is a marker for

A

celiac sprue

122
Q

what is the first test to do on a child with increasing head circumference and bulging fontanells

A

head CT

123
Q

what is the common heart finding in ankylosing spondylitis

A

aortic regurgitation (diastolic murmur)

124
Q

patients with diuretic abuse (Barters and Gitelman Syndrome) have what important labs

A

hypokalemia and increased chloride in the urine

125
Q

paitnets with chroninc diarrhea have what important lab findings

A 
hypokalmeia 
metabolic acodosis (HCO3 gets lost in stool)
126
Q

what antihypertensives are common causes of erectile dysfunction

A

beta blockers and thizaide

127
Q

when someone has pneumonia in the left lung and thye lay with their left lung down and thier right lung up, why is it that they hae decreased air

A

becuase ventilation is decreased in the dependent lung and perfusion is increased, right-lieft-intrapulmonary shungting

128
Q

marfans is a disorder of

A

fibrilin - 1

129
Q

what is th emost life threatening sxs of marfans

A

aortic root dilatation (AR)

130
Q

homocystinuria is a deficiency in

A

cystathionine synthase

131
Q

someone with marfan features, intelectual dysability, thromboembolic events, DOWNWARD lens dislocation and fair complexion has

A

homocystinuria

132
Q

Ehlers danols is a def in?

A

collagen

133
Q

def in fibrillin-2 is seen in

A

congenital contractual arachondactlyly

134
Q

what is the non sitmulant option to treat ADHD

A

atomoxetine

135
Q

does a negative heterophile AB test mean there is no mono

A

no because the antibodies can take up to 1 week to show up

136
Q

the absorption of what is increased in intestial diseases that deal with malabsoprtion like Crohns

A

oxalate (stone formaiton is likley)

STEP 2 CK EXAM! (1 decks)

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