Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

High yield EoY4 > High Yield Revision > Flashcards

High Yield Revision Flashcards

1
Q

What are the first line medications for focal seizures?

A

Carbamazepine

Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the first line medications for tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Sodium valproate

Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the first line medications for myoclonic seizures?

A

Sodium valproate

Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the first line medications for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

Sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pyloric stenosis ABG results

A

Hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define ADHD

A

A persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development
Present before age 12 and in two or more settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment actinic keratosis

A

Suncream
5FU
Top diclofenac/imiquimod
Cryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Jaundice <24 hours causes

A

Haemolysis eg. Rhesus, ABO, G6PD, spherocytosis

Sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Features of life threatening asthma

A 
PEFR <33%
Oxygen <92%
Hypotension
Cyanosis 
Silent chest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Development smiling

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sit without support

A

6-8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Start to crawl

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 block tower

A

18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Painful 3rd nerve palsy ..

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bacteria associated with GBS

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DDH tests

A

Ortolani - relocates

Barlow - dislocates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Laryngeal cancer is commonest is which region?

A

Glottic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Average age diagnosis retinoblastoma

A

18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Features of foetal alcohol syndrome

A

Microcephalic
Flat philtrum
Reduced IQ
Thin upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Migraine triggers

A 
Chocolate
Hangovers
Orgasms
Cheese/caffeine
Oral contraceptives
Lie ins
Alcohol 
Travel 
Exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Contents of cryoprecipitate

A

Factor VIII
Fibrinogen
VWF
Factor XIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DOAC in renal impairment

A

Apixaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management Ménière’s disease

A

Acute - buccal/IM prochlorperazine

Prevent - betahistine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

WHO performance status

A 
0 = fully active
1 = restricted in strenuous activity
2 = ambulatory incapable of all self-care, up and about more than 50% of waking hours
3 = limited self-care, confined to bed or chair for more than 50%
4 = completely disabled, totally confined to bed and chair
5 = dead
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MenB vaccine

A

2 months
4 months
1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Brief ALL mx

A

Multi drug chemo 2-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Classic AML blood film finding

A

Auer Rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Polycythaemia Vera mutation

A

JAK 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Oncogene of CML

A

BCR-Abl
t(9;22)
Philadelphia chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Treatment cml

A

Imatinib - TK inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Blood film finding CLL

A

Smudge/smear cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells diagnostic for

A

Hodgkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hodgkin management

A

ABVD chemo

Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Non-Hodgkin treatment

A 
R-CHOP
Rituximab 
Cyclophosphamide 
Hydroxydaunorubicin 
Vincristine
Prednisolone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bench jones protein?

A

Light chains in urine

Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Diagnostic criteria myeloma

A

Paraproteinaemia - serum or urine
Radiological evidence of bone lesions
Increased plasma on BM biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

DVLA restriction 1st seizure

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Established epilepsy DVLA restriction

A

12 months seizure free

On meds = 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Withdrawing epilepsy medication DVLA

A

6 months after last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Single, explained syncope DVLA

A

4 weeks off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Single, unexplained syncope DVLA

A

6 months off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Stroke/TIA DVLA

A

1 month off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Multiple TIAs over short period DVLA

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus triad

A

Urinary incontinence
Gait abnormality
Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Thrombolysis and thrombectomy windows

A

Lysis - 4.5 hours of sx onset

Surgery - 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Total anterior stroke classification

A

Unilateral hemiparesis/sensory loss
Homonymous hemianopia
Higher cognitive dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Action of 5FU

A

Inhibits thymidylate synthesis

Decreases DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Doxorubicin MoA

A

Inhibits topoisomerase function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ondansetron moa

A

5HT3 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Prokinetic antiemetic

A

Metoclopramide

Domperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cyclizine MoA

A

Antihistamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Late radiotherapy SEs

A 
Skin pigmentation 
Bone necrosis
Lung fibrosis
Cardiomyopathy 
Infertility 
Early menopause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Early RT SEs

A 
Hair loss
Fatigue
N+V+D
Lymphoedema 
Mucositis 
Erythema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CRAB for myeloma

A

Calcium raised
Renal insufficiency
Anaemia
Bone lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Immediate management acute glaucoma

A

IV carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eg. Mannitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Autism questionnaire

A

GARS-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ADHD questionnaire

A

Conners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Crawling date

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Following moving objects date

60
Q

NEC x-day findings

A

Distended loops of bowel
Intramural gas
Thickened wall

61
Q

What type of bilirubin can be deposited in the brain?

A

Unconjugated

62
Q

Define astigmatism

A

Abnormal curvature of the cornea

63
Q

US sign intussusception

A

Doughnut/target

64
Q

Organism bronchiolitis

65
Q

Organism whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

66
Q

Organism croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

67
Q

Calories in 1 ounce breast milk

68
Q

Suckling development

A

34-35 weeks

69
Q

Coca Cola urine indicates

A

Post-strep glomerulonephritis

70
Q

Cluster headache preventive meds

A

Calcium channel blockers

71
Q

VSD murmur

A

Pan systolic left sternal edge

72
Q

High risk prostate Ca

A

PSA >20
Gleason 8-10
T stage 2c+

73
Q

Max dose codeine

74
Q

Codeine to morphine ratio

A

Codeine:morphine
10:1

75
Q

Bowel obstruction anti emetics

A

Cyclizine

Dexamethasone

76
Q

5 main sx of dying

A 
Pain
N+V
SoB
Restlessness
Resp secretions
77
Q

Superficial bladder Ca mx

78
Q

Invasive bladder Ca mx

A

TURBT or Radical cystectomy or radical RT

79
Q

Mammogram views

A

Craniocaudal

Mediolateral oblique

80
Q

Haemolysis screen

A 
FBC, blood film, reticulocytes
Direct Coombs 
Haptoglobins 
Bilirubin
LDH
81
Q

Factors in Bloom Richardson

A

Degree of tubule formation
Extent of nuclear variation
Number of mitoses

82
Q

Cervical screening

A

25-49 every 3 years

50-64 every 5 years

83
Q

Side effects of LHRH agonists

A 
Hot flushes
Decreased libido 
Impotence
Weight gain 
Osteoporosis 
Gynaecomastia
84
Q

Commonest hormonal therapy CaP

A

LHRH agonist

85
Q

Risk factors colorectal Ca

A 
Red meat
High calorie diet
Alcohol
Smoking
Obesity 
Sedentary lifestyle
FAP/lynch
86
Q

Lung cancer occurring in peripheries

A

Adenocarcinoma

Large cell

87
Q

Li Fraumeni cancers

A

Breast
Lung
Colon

88
Q

Central scotoma cause

A

Optic neuritis

89
Q

Arcuate scotoma cause

A

Chronic glaucoma

90
Q

Wernicke’s triad

A

Mental confusion
Ataxia
Ophthlamoplegia

91
Q

Non-MS causes optic neuritis

A 
NMO
Infections
Post-vaccine 
GBS
Sarcoidosis
92
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil

A

Bilateral, small, irregular
Absence of light reflex
Prompt accommodation

93
Q

Glaucoma drugs

A

Prostaglandin analogues
Beta blockers
Alpha agonists
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

94
Q

Commonest cause of blindness

A

Age related macular degeneration

95
Q

Scabies mx

A

Permethrin cream

96
Q

Melanoma risk factors

A 
Type 1 skin
Sunburn
Multiple moles
Hx of melanoma
Family hx 
Tanning beds
97
Q

H+N cancer risk factors

A

Tobacco
Alcohol
HPV

98
Q

Triad normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Urinary incontience
Gait disturbance
Dementia

99
Q

OCT

A

Optical coherence tomography

Cross section of the retina

100
Q

Define SGA

A

<10th centile

101
Q

Causes conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

Biliary atresia
Prolonged TPN
Hepatitis

102
Q

Fluid depletion calculation

A

Weight kg x %fluid depleted x 10

103
Q

Causes nephritic syndrome

A

Post-strep glomerulonephritis
HSP
IgA nephropathy
Goodpastures

104
Q

Complex febrile convulsions features

A

> 15 mins
Recurs in same illness
Focal

105
Q

Inheritance of haemophilia

A

X linked recessive

106
Q

Cause of slapped cheek

A

Parvovirus

107
Q

Cause of hand, foot and mouth

A

Coxsackie virus

108
Q

Drug causes ototoxic

A 
Loop diuretics
Aminoglycosides
Vancomycin 
Cisplatin
Quinine
109
Q

Acute, painless red eye causes

A

Episcleritis
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Conjunctivitis

110
Q

Acute, painful, red eye causes

A 
Acute glaucoma 
Anterior uveitis 
Corneal abrasion/trauma 
Keratitis/ulcer
Scleritis 
Orbital cellulitis
111
Q

Risk factors acute glaucoma

A

Hypermetropia
Family hx
Female 50-60s

112
Q

Acute, painful loss of vision

A 
Acute glaucoma
Anterior uveitis/iritis 
GCA
Optic neuritis 
Keratitis/corneal ulcer
113
Q

Acute painless loss of vision

A

Central retinal artery occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion
Retinal detachment
Vitreous haemorrhage

114
Q

Define grades HTN retinopathy

A

1 - tortuous arterioles, silver and copper wiring
2 - AV nipping
3 - cotton wool spots, dot and flame haemorrhages
4 - papilloedema

115
Q

Psoriatic nails

A

Pitting
Ringing
Onycholysis

116
Q

Steroid ladder

A

Hydrocortisone
Eumovate
Betnovate
Dermovate

117
Q

Acne mx

A

Advice
Topical abx/retinoids and benzoyl peroxide
Oral abx
Oral isotretinoin
Special - laser resurfacing and chemical peels

118
Q

Melanoma margins

A

Stage 1 - 1cm
2 - 2cm
3 - 2cm +/- LN
4 - 2cm + immuno/chemo

119
Q

SCC margin

120
Q

Bcc margin

121
Q

Weber’s syndrome

A

Ipsilateral CN3 palsy
Contralateral weakness
(PCA branch)

122
Q

Wallenberg syndrome

A

Ipsilateral facial pain and temp loss
Contralateral limb pain and temp loss
Ataxia, nystagmus
(Post, inf cerebellar)

123
Q

VG sodium channel blockers

A

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Lamotrigine

124
Q

GABA agonist

A

Benzos

Sodium valproate

125
Q

Cataracts risk factors

A 
Increase age 
UV exposure
Diabetes
Steroids
Smoking/alcohol
126
Q

Test for metamorphopsia

A

Amsler Grid

127
Q

Mx acute glaucoma

A

IV acetazolamide
Pilocarpine
Laser iridotomy

128
Q

Example 2 dilator drops

A

Atropine

Tropicamide

129
Q

Define glaucoma

A

Disease of optic nerve due to raised IOP

130
Q

Define diabetic retinopathy stages

A

Background - microanuerysms, haemorrhages, hard exudates
Pre-proliferative - cotton wool spots
Proliferative - fragile new vessels

131
Q

Heparin reversal

132
Q

Benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

133
Q

Tear drop RBCs suggest

A

Myelofibrosis

134
Q

Triple test down’s date and constituents

A

11 - 13+6 weeks
Nuchal
PAPP-A
HCG

135
Q

Quadruple test down’s time and constituents

A 
15 - 20 weeks
HCG - increased 
Alpha FP - decreased 
Oestriol - decreased 
Inhibin A -increased
136
Q

Parts of APGAR

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace (reflex irritability)
Activity / muscle tone
Respiration
137
Q

Bloods at booking

A

FBC
Blood group and rhesus
Haemoglobinopathies
HepB, rubella, HIV, syphilis

138
Q

Booking visit time

A

8 - 12 weeks (ideal <10)

139
Q

Dating US scan date

A

10 + 13+6 weeks

140
Q

CV sampling dates

A

11 - 13+6 weeks

141
Q

Amniocentesis dates

A

> 15 weeks

142
Q

Hyperemesis triad

A

> 5% weight loss
Dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance

143
Q

Causes of Pseudobulbar palsy

A

UMN - MS, vascular disease, tumour

144
Q

Types of MND and upper or lower signs

A 
ALS - U+L
Progressive muscular palsy - L
Progressive bulbar - L
Pseudobulbar - U
Primary lateral sclerosis - U
145
Q

Multiple systems atrophy triad

A

Parkinsonism + cerebellar signs + autonomic signs

146
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy features

A

Parkinsonism

Vertical gaze palsy (ophthalmoplegia)

High yield EoY4 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions