High Yield Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Who usually gets MS

A

young aged 20-40

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2
Q

Risk factor for MS

A

Northern climates, vitamin D deficiency

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3
Q

Acute MS treatment

A

steroids

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4
Q

clinical presentation of MS

A
  • extraocular movement pain
  • optic disc swelling
  • progressive vision loss
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5
Q

Abnormal LP in MS

A
  • oligoclonal banding
  • high IgG/albumin ration
  • increased IgG synthesis rate
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6
Q

Side effects of Beta interferon

A
  • malaise, myalgias
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7
Q

2 traditional agents for MS

A
  • Beta intergeron

- Glatiramer

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8
Q

more efficacious: high dose interferon (rebif) and low dose interferon ( avonex)

A

Rebif

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9
Q

Glatiramer same efficacy as

A

interferon Rebif

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10
Q

Side effect of Gilenya

A

headache

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11
Q

warning with Teriflunomide

A

Teratogenicity

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12
Q

Dimethyl fumarate side effects

A

flushing, diarrhea, nausea

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13
Q

What drug causes risk for progressive Multifocal leukodystrophy

A

Natalizumab

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14
Q

primary progessive MS?

A

MS that fails to respond to disease modifying therapy

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15
Q

Sudden loss of vision or weakness in one or both eyes, and loss of sensation and bladder function

A

Neuromyeltis Optica (Devic’s disease)

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16
Q

Antibody to aquaporin4 chloride channel

A

Neuromyeltis Optica (Devic’s disease)

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17
Q

Treatment for Neuromyeltis Optica ( Devic’s disease)

A

Rituxumab

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18
Q

3 treatment options for spacitiry

A
  • Baclofen
  • Benzodiapzepines
  • Tizadine
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19
Q

3 classes for neuropathic pain

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressants
  • Anticonvulsants
  • SNRI
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20
Q

Cognitive dysfunction treatment MS

A
  • Methylphenidates

- Amphatimine

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21
Q

Secondary progressive MS

A

sustained build up of disability, independent of any relapses

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22
Q

3 types of astrocytomas

A
  1. pilocytic
  2. anaplastic
  3. glioblastoma
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23
Q

Rosenthal fibers

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

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24
Q

higher grade astrocytomas that have more cells than normal,

evidence of mitoses, and abnormal appearing nuclei

A

Anaplastic astrocytoma

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25
Q

microscopic features of Glioblastoma

A
  • necrosis

- pseudopalasiding appearance

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26
Q

Location of Oligodendrogliomas and clinical appearance

A

supratentorial

- seizure

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27
Q

Histo: Fried eggs

A

Oligodendrogliomas

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28
Q

Ependymomas location

A

infra- or supra tentorial

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29
Q

pathology of Ependymomas

A

hydrocephalus caused by the tumor obstructing
the fourth ventricle
-worst in the morning
- associated with vision changes

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30
Q

perivascular pseudorosettes: micro

A

Ependymomas

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31
Q

“small round blue cell tumors

A

PNET

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32
Q

Small round blue cells and Homer-Wright Rosettes

A

Medulloblastoma

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33
Q

location of Medulloblastoma

A

cerebellum

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34
Q

true rosettes

A

Retinoblastoma

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35
Q

Treatment for Prolactom

A

Bromocriptine

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36
Q

Clinical feature for Prolatcoma

A

headaches and vision impairment (bi-temporal

hemianopsia)

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37
Q

Meningioma arises from what

A

arachnoid cells

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38
Q

psammoma bodies

A

Meningioma

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39
Q

dural tail

A

Meningioma

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40
Q

Tumors that mets to brain

A
lung 
breast 
melenoma 
GI 
renal
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41
Q

hemmorage mets to brain

A

renal
melanoma
choriocarcinoma

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42
Q

inheritance for CMT 1 demyelinating

A

autsomal dominant

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43
Q

mutation in peripheral myelin protein-22 (PMP22)

A

CMT type 1 demyelinating

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44
Q

high arches and hammer toes

A

CMT type 1 demyelintating

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45
Q

CMT type 1 don’t complain of what

A

sensation

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46
Q

inheritance for CMT type 2 axonal

A

autosomal dominant

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47
Q

difference b/w CMT 1 and 2

A

2 slower progression

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48
Q

CMT type 3 ( Dejerine-Sottas Disease)

A

autosomal recessive

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49
Q

what vitamin toxicity causes neuropathy

A

Pyridoxine (B6)

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50
Q

muscles weekend in carpal tunnel

A
  • abductor pollicis brevis

- oppnonens pollicis

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51
Q

lumbar puncture for G.B.

A

cytoablumic dissociation

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52
Q

Treatment for Guillian Barre

A
  • intravenous gamma-globulin
  • plasma exchange
    OR
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53
Q

Miller Fisher Varient of GBS

A
  • facial weakness
  • dysarthria
  • GQ1B antibodies
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54
Q

Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) clinical features

A

Autonomic system dysfunction can occur; in such a case, the patient would complain of orthostatic dizziness, problems with bowel and bladder functions, and cardiac problems

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55
Q

inherited form of ALS

A

Super Oxide Dismutase

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56
Q

treatment ALS

A

Rilutek

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57
Q

3 normal phsyciologic levels of consciousness

A
  • awake
  • NREM sleep
  • REM sleep
58
Q

2 independent forces impact sleep

A
  • circadian rhythm

- sleep debt

59
Q

No effort to breath, no air movement

A

central sleep apnea

60
Q

effort to breath, no air movement

A

obstructive sleep apnea

61
Q

2 symptoms associated with sleep apnea

A
  1. nocturia

2. nocturnal GERD

62
Q

Cataplexy is present in what narcolepsy

A

type 1

63
Q

Role of Hypcretin 1

A

stimulates wafeullness and suppreses REM sleep

64
Q

Tetrad for narcolepsy

A
  • sleep attacks
  • hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations
  • sleep paralysis
  • cateplexy
65
Q

treatment for cataplexy

A
  • sodium oxybate ( both cataplexy and exessive daytime sleepiness)
  • SSRI
66
Q

treatment for sleepiness for narcolepsy

A

Modafanil
amphetamines
atomexetine

67
Q

Most common neuromuscular junction diseae

A

myasthenia gravis

68
Q

Myasthenia gravis is associated with what other organ

A

thymus

69
Q

who gets myasthenia gravis

A

bimodal: teens-20 and 50-70

70
Q

fatigable weakness and fatigable weakness

A

myasthenia gravis

71
Q

Gold standard for myasthenia gravis

A

anti-acetylcholine receptor

72
Q

anti-muscle specefic tyrosine kinase seen in

A

generalized MG

- clusters AchR

73
Q

what test is associated with thymoma

A

anti-striated muscle

74
Q

Repepative nerve stimulation for myasthenia gravis

A

starts lower than normal

75
Q

short term immunosuppresant therapy for myasthenia gravis

A
  • plasma exchange

- IV immunoglobin

76
Q

chemo drugs for long term MA drugs

A
  • Azathiprine

- mycophenolate

77
Q

Lamber Eaton associated with

A

Small cell lung cancer

78
Q

metallic taste: MA or Lambert eaton

A

lambert eaton

79
Q

improves with exercise: LE or MA

A

LE

80
Q

Most common movement disorder

A

Parkinson

81
Q

second most common neurodegenerative disorder

A

Alzheimer disease

82
Q

Ropiranole

A

Dopamine agonists

83
Q

Rasageline and Selegiline

A

MAO -B inhibitors

84
Q

MAO-B inhibtors

A

Rasageline and Selegiline

85
Q

COMT inhibitors

A

Entacapone

86
Q

What drug lowers motor progression in Parkinson

A

MAO-B

87
Q

Progressive Supranuclear palsy

A
  • downward gaze before upward

- fall backwards

88
Q

3 Huntingonts treatment

A
  • Tetrabenazine
  • SSRI
  • Antipsychotics
89
Q

What improves essential tremors

A

alcohol

90
Q

Treatment of ET

A

propranolol

  • beta blocker
    2. Primidone
91
Q

what type of seizure may not be recorded on EEG

A

frontal lob

92
Q

infancy syndromes that cause epilepsy

A
  • West syndrome

- Dravet syndrome

93
Q

Metabolic that causes epilepsy

A
  • hypernatremia

- DKA

94
Q

triad of infantile spasm

A
  • electrographic picture of Hipsarrythmia
  • spasms
  • psychomotor development arrest
95
Q

txt infantile spasm

A
  • ACTH,

- Pyridoxine

96
Q

Etiologies of infantile spasms

A

-Downs, PKU, TS

97
Q

risk Valproate

A

teratogencity

98
Q

risk for Lamotrigine

A

rash

99
Q

risk Levetiracetam

A
  • irriatble mood
100
Q

Topiramate risk

A

fluency and cognition

101
Q

risk Phenobarbital

A

respiratory depression

102
Q

: Seizure frequency increase during certain phases of the menstrual cycle

A

catamenial epilespy

103
Q

Estrogen and seizure

A

estrogen lowers seizure threshold

104
Q

1st line for status epilecptisu

A

Bezodiazepine

105
Q

2nd line for status epilepticus

A

IV load of fosphenytoin

valprioc acid, levetiracetam, lacosamide

106
Q

3rd line status epilectisu

A

IV Midazolam or thipental

107
Q

Valprioc acid and HIV

A

reduction Zidovudine

108
Q

phenytoin and HIV

A

increase doase of Lopinarvir and ritonavir

109
Q

4 drugs lower seizure threshold

A

Wellbutrin
Tramadol
Pseudophedrine
Levaquine

110
Q

seziure drugs and bone

A

lower bone density

111
Q

Muscle biopsy for Duchenne shows

A

marcophage

necrotic muscle fiber

112
Q

Duchene type of mutation

A

out of frame

113
Q

Becker type of mutation

A

in frame mutation

114
Q

txt duchenne

A

steroids

115
Q

inheritance for Facioscapulohumoral muscular dystrophy

A

AD

116
Q

myotonic dystrophy 1 and 2 location

A

1: distal weakness
2: proximal weakness

117
Q

CTG repeats in DMPK gene

A

myotonic dystrophy 1

118
Q

CCTG repeats in zinc finger protein 9 gene

A

myotonic dystrophy2

119
Q

other organs myotonic dystrophy 1

A

cardiac conduction

cataracts

120
Q

defect in sarcolemmal protein

A

limb gridle

121
Q

musclar disease with contracture

A

Emery Dreifuss muscular dystrophy

122
Q

OPMD inheritance

A

AD

123
Q

GCG and GCA expansion

A

OPMD

124
Q

Polymyositis presention

A

quick onset proximal weakness

125
Q

Inclusion body myositis presentation

A

slow onset proximal and distal weakness

- finger/wrist flexors, quads, hip

126
Q

Abortive/rescure therapy for migranes

A
  • NSAIDS
  • 5HT1 agonsts (Triptans ergots)
  • Dopamine antagonists ( metoclopramide, prochlorperazine)
  • Acetaminphen, ASA, caffeine
  • Acetaminophen, butalbital, caffeine
  • Acetaminphen Isometheptene, dichloraphenzone
127
Q

when is prophylactic used in migranes

A

3 times per month

128
Q

drugs for prophylactic migranes

A
  • beta blockres
  • calcium channel bockers
  • Tricyclic antidepressants
  • anticonvulsants
  • Serotonergic
129
Q

cluster headache

A

servere unilateral stabbing perioribtal or temporal pain

130
Q

acute txt cluster

A

oxygen

triptans

131
Q

prophylacitc cluster

A

onset of cluster

  • steroids
  • calcium channel blocker
132
Q

most prevalent headache

A

tenson

133
Q

tension headaceh

A

squeezing or pressure around head

- never associated with nausea or vomiting

134
Q

abortive tension

A

NSAIDS

acetaminophen

135
Q

prophylaxis tension

A
  • tricyclic

- antiepiletict

136
Q

obese young female, tetracycline, oral contraceptives, hypervitaminosis A

A

idiopathic intracrainial hypertension

137
Q

ACh important in cognition

A

good for memory

138
Q

location of earliest damage in alzheimer

A

Hippocampus

139
Q

FRONTOTEMPORAL DEMENTIA: CRITERIA

A

language and behavior

140
Q

Rimmed vaculoes and amyloid depsositon

A

Inclusion body Myositits