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Infectious Diseases For Finals > High Yield Exam Cram > Flashcards

High Yield Exam Cram Flashcards

1
Q

Name the gram positive cocci

A

Staph
Strep
Enterococci

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2
Q

Name the gram negative cocci

A

Neisseria
Moraxella

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3
Q

Name the Gram positive bacilli (

A
  • Clostridium*
  • lactobacillus*
  • Actinomyocytes*
  • Propionibacterium*
  • Bacillius cinthracis
  • Corneybacteria
  • Diptheria
  • Listeria
  • Mycobacteria
  • Nocardia

*anaerobes

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4
Q

Name the gram negative bacilli

A
  • Campylobacter
  • E.coli (pink colonies on MacConkey)
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Pseudomonas
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
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5
Q

Name the atypical bacteria

A

Legions of Pscatti MCQs
- Legionella
- Chlamydia Pscatti
- Mycoplasma pneumonia
- Chlamydophila pneumoniae
- Q-fever (coxiella burneti)

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6
Q

Name the bacteria that inhibit cell wall synthesis AND have a beta lactic ring

A

Carbapenems
Cephalosporins
Penicillin

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7
Q

Name the antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis and do NOT have a beta lactic ring

A

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin

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8
Q

Name the antibiotic that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis in anaerobes

A

Metronidazole

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9
Q

Name the antibiotics that interrupt protein synthesis in the ribosome

A

Macrolides (erythromycin)

Tetracyclines (doxycycline)

gentamycin

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10
Q

Name the antibiotic that prevents the synthesis of folic acid

A

Trimethoprim

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11
Q

What is MRSA?

A

s. aureus that is resistant to beta lactam antibiotics

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12
Q

How is MRSA treated

A

Vancomycin

if colonised- chlorhexidine wash and nasal mupirocin

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13
Q

What is ESBL?

A

bacteria (usually e.coli or Klebsiella) resistant to beta-lactams.

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14
Q

What is ESBL treated with?

A

Nitrofurantoin

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15
Q

What is the bacterial cause of bacterial tonsillitis

A

Group A strep (strep pyogenes)

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16
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Bronchiectasis

A

H. Influenzae

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17
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Cellulitis

A

S. Aureus or Strep Pyogenes

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18
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Ascending cholangitis post ERCP?

A

E. coli

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19
Q

What is the bacterial cause of contact lens associated keratitis?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

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20
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Endocarditis?

A

S. Aureus

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21
Q

What is the bacterial cause of endocarditis associated with poor dental hygiene?

A

Strep viridians

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22
Q

What is the bacterial cause of endocarditis associated with prosthetic heart vales

A

Staph epidermidids

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23
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Epiglottitis

A

H. Influenza B

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24
Q

What is the bacterial cause of erysipelas?

A

Strep pyogenes

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25
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Gastric/duodenal ulcer?

A

H. Pylori

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26
Q

What is the bacterial cause of impetigo?

A

S. Aureus

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27
Q

What is the bacterial cause of meningitis?

A

strep pneumoniae

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28
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas or s. Aureus

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29
Q

What is the bacterial cause of otitis media?

A

H. Influenzae & Strep pneumoniae

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30
Q

What is the bacterial cause of rheumatic heart fever?

A

Strep pyogenes

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31
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Scarlet fever

A

Group A strep

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32
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Septic arthritis

A

S. Aureus, Neisseria gonorrhoea

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33
Q

What is the bacterial cause of sinusitis?

A

Strep pneumoniae or H. Influenzae

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34
Q

What is the bacterial cause of UTI

A

E. coli

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35
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Waterhouse-Frederiksen?

A

Neisseria Meningitidis

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36
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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37
Q

What is the bacterial cause of pyelonephritis?

A

E. coli

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38
Q

What is the bacterial cause of Prostatitis?

A

E. coli

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39
Q

What is the bacterial cause of mastitis?

A

E. coli and S. Aureus

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40
Q

What is the most common viral cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenzae

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41
Q

What is the most common viral cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV

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42
Q

What is the most common viral cause of slapped cheek?

A

Parvovirus B19

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43
Q

What is the most common viral cause of Roseola Infantum?

A

Herpes 6

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44
Q

What is the most common viral cause of hand foot and mouth?

A

Coxsackie A

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45
Q

Within how many hours must treatment be started in those with Influenza A?

A

Within 48 hours of symptom onset

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46
Q

What is the treatment for influenza? (2 options)

A

Oral oseltamivir BD for 5 days

Inhaled zanamivir BD for 5 days

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47
Q

How many hours after exposure to influenza should prophylactic treatment be given?

A

Within 48 hours

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48
Q

What are the options for influenza prophylaxis after exposure?

A

Oral oseltamivir BD for 10 days

Inhaled zanamivir BD for 10 days

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49
Q

What are the two main causes of travellers diarrhoea?

A

E.Coli
Campylobacter

50
Q

Where can E. coli be caught from?

A

Faeces, unwashed salad and contaminated water

51
Q

Why should antibiotics not be given to those with diarrhoea caused by E. coli

A

Risk of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

52
Q

Where can campylobacter be caught from?

A

Undercooked poultry, untreated water and unpasteurised milk

53
Q

What antibiotic is given for campylobacter infection?

A

Clarithromycin

54
Q

What is the important complication associated with shigella infection?

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

55
Q

How is shigella spread?

A

Faeces, person-to-person or contaminated water or food

56
Q

What is the antibiotic given to treat shigella?

A

Azithromycin

57
Q

How is salmonella spread?

A

Raw eggs
Contaminated poultry or food

58
Q

Describe the onset of bacillus cereus

A

Onset within 5 hours, resolution within 24

59
Q

What causes spread bacillus cereus?

A

Rice and other foods not refrigerated fast enough

60
Q

Who is typically affected by Yersinia Enterocolitica?

A

Children

61
Q

What causes the spread of Yersinia Enterocolitica?

A

Undercooked pork

62
Q

What causes chronic diarrhoea?

A

Giardia

63
Q

How is Giardia tested for?

A

Stool NAAT testing

64
Q

How is Giardia treated?

A

Tinidazole or metronidazole

65
Q

What causes c.diff?

A

Antibiotic use (clindamyacin, ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins, carbapenems)

PPIs

66
Q

How is a first episode of non-life threatening c.diff managed?

A

Oral Vanc

67
Q

How is a relapse of c.diff managed?

A

Fidaxomicin

68
Q

How is life threatening c.diff managed?

A

oral vanc and IV met

69
Q

What is sepsis?

A

large immune response to infection causing systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction

70
Q

What is septic shock?

A

arterial blood pressure drops despite adequate fluid resuscitation

71
Q

What score is used in ITU to determine the degree of organ dysfunction?

A

SOFA

72
Q

What diagnosis should be assumed in a patient undergoing chemotherapy with a temperature >38?

A

Neutropenic sepsis

73
Q

What antibiotics should be given to manage neutropenic sepsis?

A

piperacillin with tazobactam

74
Q

What should you do if the urine dip shows:

A) only nitrates
B) only leukocytes

A

Only nitrates = worth treating for UTI if symptomatic

Only leukocytes = send sample to lab for further testing

75
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

doxycycline BD for 7 days

76
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

IM ceftriaxone or oral ciprofloxacin

77
Q

What is the causative organism in syphillis?

A

Treponema pallidum (spirochete)

78
Q

What is the treatment for syphillis?

A

IM benzylpenicillin

79
Q

What is the treatment for herpes?

A

Aciclovir

80
Q

What causes bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

81
Q

How does bacterial vaginosis present?

A

fishy green frothy discharge

82
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole

83
Q

What causes trichomoniasis?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoa)

84
Q

How does Trichomonas vaginalis present?

A

fishy green frothy discharge

85
Q

What is the treatment for Trichomoniasis?

A

Metronidazole

86
Q

Is HIV a DNA or RNA virus?

A

RNA retrovirus

87
Q

Which cells are targeted by HIV?

A

CD4 helper cells

88
Q

How is HIV spread?

A

Sex (including oral sex)
pregnancy, birth and breastfeeding
Sharing needles or blood splashes

89
Q

Can HIV be transmitted through kissing?

A

NO

90
Q

When should PrEP be taken?

A

before exposure/potential exposure to HIV

91
Q

How long after exposure can PEP (post exposure prophylaxis) be taken?

A

72 hours

92
Q

How many days of treatment is PEP?

A

28 days

93
Q

Which HIV positive patients are given antiretroviral treatment?

A

All of them (treated regardless of viral load)

94
Q

What are the aims of HIV treatment?

A

Aim is for undetectable viral load and normal CD4 count

95
Q

What drug must be started in HIV positive patients with a CD4 count <200 and why

A

Co-trim to protect against pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

96
Q

How often should women with HIV receive a smear test?

A

Annually

97
Q

Which vaccines should patients with HIV be given?

A

Flu
Hep A & B
HPV
Pneumococcal vaccine

98
Q

Which HIV positive women can safely deliver their baby vaginally?

A

Those with a viral load <50 copies/ml

99
Q

Can women with HIV ever breastfeed?

A

NO!! regardless of viral load, transmission is still a risk!

100
Q

What is given during labour and delivery in HIV positive women if viral load unknown or above 1000 copies/ml

A

IV Zidovudine

101
Q

What is considered a positive Mantoux test?

A

Induration of 5mm or more

102
Q

What is the treatment for latent TB?

A

Ioniazid + rifampicin for 3 months

OR

Isoniazid alone for 6 months

103
Q

What is the treatment for active TB?

A

R + I for 6 months
P + E for 2 months

104
Q

Which TB drugs are hepatotoxic?

A

All except ethambutol

105
Q

What is the main side effect of rifampicin?

A

Orange/red secretions

106
Q

What is the main side effect of ionizide and how is it prevented?

A

Peripheral Neuropathy
prevented with co-prescription of Pyridoxine (vit B6)

107
Q

What is the main side effect of ethambutol?

A

eye problems

108
Q

What is the causative organism in malaria and how is it transmitted?

A

Plasmodium falciparum, female anopheles mosquito

109
Q

What is the incubation period in malaria?

A

1-4 weeks

110
Q

What is the most common presenting feature in malaria?

A

Fever which spikes every 48 hours in line with the release of new baby parasites

111
Q

Name two medications used to treat malaria

A

artemether or quinine

112
Q

Name the drug used in malaria prophylaxis

A

Proguanil

113
Q

What are the two main bacterial causes of meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningititis

Strep pneumoniae

114
Q

What is the main viral cause of meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses (e.g. coxsackie)

115
Q

What spinal level should a lumbar puncture be done in adults?

A

L3/4

116
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for meningitis in those aged <3 months and > 50 years

A

IV cefotaxime + Amoxicillin

117
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for meningitis in those aged 3M-50 years

A

IV cefotaxime

118
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for meningococcal meningitis?

A

IV benzylpenicillin

119
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for pneumococcal meningitis and haemophilus influenzae?

A

IV cefotaxime

120
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for meningitis caused by listeria?

A

IV amox and gent

121
Q

What antibiotic is given to those who are a close contact with a patient with meningitis?

A

Single dose of ciprofloxacin

122
Q
A

Infectious Diseases For Finals (2 decks)

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