High Yield Exam Cram Flashcards
1
Q
Name the gram positive cocci
A
Staph
Strep
Enterococci
2
Q
Name the gram negative cocci
A
Neisseria
Moraxella
3
Q
Name the Gram positive bacilli (
A
- Clostridium*
- lactobacillus*
- Actinomyocytes*
- Propionibacterium*
- Bacillius cinthracis
- Corneybacteria
- Diptheria
- Listeria
- Mycobacteria
- Nocardia
*anaerobes
4
Q
Name the gram negative bacilli
A
- Campylobacter
- E.coli (pink colonies on MacConkey)
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Pseudomonas
- Salmonella
- Shigella
5
Q
Name the atypical bacteria
A
Legions of Pscatti MCQs
- Legionella
- Chlamydia Pscatti
- Mycoplasma pneumonia
- Chlamydophila pneumoniae
- Q-fever (coxiella burneti)
6
Q
Name the bacteria that inhibit cell wall synthesis AND have a beta lactic ring
A
Carbapenems
Cephalosporins
Penicillin
7
Q
Name the antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis and do NOT have a beta lactic ring
A
Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
8
Q
Name the antibiotic that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis in anaerobes
A
Metronidazole
9
Q
Name the antibiotics that interrupt protein synthesis in the ribosome
A
Macrolides (erythromycin)
Tetracyclines (doxycycline)
gentamycin
10
Q
Name the antibiotic that prevents the synthesis of folic acid
A
Trimethoprim
11
Q
What is MRSA?
A
s. aureus that is resistant to beta lactam antibiotics
12
Q
How is MRSA treated
A
Vancomycin
if colonised- chlorhexidine wash and nasal mupirocin
13
Q
What is ESBL?
A
bacteria (usually e.coli or Klebsiella) resistant to beta-lactams.
14
Q
What is ESBL treated with?
A
Nitrofurantoin
15
Q
What is the bacterial cause of bacterial tonsillitis
A
Group A strep (strep pyogenes)
16
Q
What is the bacterial cause of Bronchiectasis
A
H. Influenzae
17
Q
What is the bacterial cause of Cellulitis
A
S. Aureus or Strep Pyogenes
18
Q
What is the bacterial cause of Ascending cholangitis post ERCP?
A
E. coli
19
Q
What is the bacterial cause of contact lens associated keratitis?
A
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
20
Q
What is the bacterial cause of Endocarditis?
A
S. Aureus
21
Q
What is the bacterial cause of endocarditis associated with poor dental hygiene?
A
Strep viridians
22
Q
What is the bacterial cause of endocarditis associated with prosthetic heart vales
A
Staph epidermidids
23
Q
What is the bacterial cause of Epiglottitis
A
H. Influenza B
24
Q
What is the bacterial cause of erysipelas?
A
Strep pyogenes
25
What is the bacterial cause of Gastric/duodenal ulcer?
H. Pylori
26
What is the bacterial cause of impetigo?
S. Aureus
27
What is the bacterial cause of meningitis?
strep pneumoniae
28
What is the bacterial cause of Otitis externa
Pseudomonas or s. Aureus
29
What is the bacterial cause of otitis media?
H. Influenzae & Strep pneumoniae
30
What is the bacterial cause of rheumatic heart fever?
Strep pyogenes
31
What is the bacterial cause of Scarlet fever
Group A strep
32
What is the bacterial cause of Septic arthritis
S. Aureus, Neisseria gonorrhoea
33
What is the bacterial cause of sinusitis?
Strep pneumoniae or H. Influenzae
34
What is the bacterial cause of UTI
E. coli
35
What is the bacterial cause of Waterhouse-Frederiksen?
Neisseria Meningitidis
36
What is the bacterial cause of Whooping cough?
Bordetella pertussis
37
What is the bacterial cause of pyelonephritis?
E. coli
38
What is the bacterial cause of Prostatitis?
E. coli
39
What is the bacterial cause of mastitis?
E. coli and S. Aureus
40
What is the most common viral cause of croup?
Parainfluenzae
41
What is the most common viral cause of bronchiolitis
RSV
42
What is the most common viral cause of slapped cheek?
Parvovirus B19
43
What is the most common viral cause of Roseola Infantum?
Herpes 6
44
What is the most common viral cause of hand foot and mouth?
Coxsackie A
45
Within how many hours must treatment be started in those with Influenza A?
Within 48 hours of symptom onset
46
What is the treatment for influenza? (2 options)
Oral oseltamivir BD for 5 days
Inhaled zanamivir BD for 5 days
47
How many hours after exposure to influenza should prophylactic treatment be given?
Within 48 hours
48
What are the options for influenza prophylaxis after exposure?
Oral oseltamivir BD for 10 days
Inhaled zanamivir BD for 10 days
49
What are the two main causes of travellers diarrhoea?
E.Coli
Campylobacter
50
Where can E. coli be caught from?
Faeces, unwashed salad and contaminated water
51
Why should antibiotics not be given to those with diarrhoea caused by E. coli
Risk of haemolytic uraemic syndrome
52
Where can campylobacter be caught from?
Undercooked poultry, untreated water and unpasteurised milk
53
What antibiotic is given for campylobacter infection?
Clarithromycin
54
What is the important complication associated with shigella infection?
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
55
How is shigella spread?
Faeces, person-to-person or contaminated water or food
56
What is the antibiotic given to treat shigella?
Azithromycin
57
How is salmonella spread?
Raw eggs
Contaminated poultry or food
58
Describe the onset of bacillus cereus
Onset within 5 hours, resolution within 24
59
What causes spread bacillus cereus?
Rice and other foods not refrigerated fast enough
60
Who is typically affected by Yersinia Enterocolitica?
Children
61
What causes the spread of Yersinia Enterocolitica?
Undercooked pork
62
What causes chronic diarrhoea?
Giardia
63
How is Giardia tested for?
Stool NAAT testing
64
How is Giardia treated?
Tinidazole or metronidazole
65
What causes c.diff?
Antibiotic use (clindamyacin, ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins, carbapenems)
PPIs
66
How is a first episode of non-life threatening c.diff managed?
Oral Vanc
67
How is a relapse of c.diff managed?
Fidaxomicin
68
How is life threatening c.diff managed?
oral vanc and IV met
69
What is sepsis?
large immune response to infection causing systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction
70
What is septic shock?
arterial blood pressure drops despite adequate fluid resuscitation
71
What score is used in ITU to determine the degree of organ dysfunction?
SOFA
72
What diagnosis should be assumed in a patient undergoing chemotherapy with a temperature >38?
Neutropenic sepsis
73
What antibiotics should be given to manage neutropenic sepsis?
piperacillin with tazobactam
74
What should you do if the urine dip shows:
A) only nitrates
B) only leukocytes
Only nitrates = worth treating for UTI if symptomatic
Only leukocytes = send sample to lab for further testing
75
What is the treatment for chlamydia?
doxycycline BD for 7 days
76
What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?
IM ceftriaxone or oral ciprofloxacin
77
What is the causative organism in syphillis?
Treponema pallidum (spirochete)
78
What is the treatment for syphillis?
IM benzylpenicillin
79
What is the treatment for herpes?
Aciclovir
80
What causes bacterial vaginosis?
Gardnerella vaginalis
81
How does bacterial vaginosis present?
fishy green frothy discharge
82
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
Metronidazole
83
What causes trichomoniasis?
Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoa)
84
How does Trichomonas vaginalis present?
fishy green frothy discharge
85
What is the treatment for Trichomoniasis?
Metronidazole
86
Is HIV a DNA or RNA virus?
RNA retrovirus
87
Which cells are targeted by HIV?
CD4 helper cells
88
How is HIV spread?
Sex (including oral sex)
pregnancy, birth and breastfeeding
Sharing needles or blood splashes
89
Can HIV be transmitted through kissing?
NO
90
When should PrEP be taken?
before exposure/potential exposure to HIV
91
How long after exposure can PEP (post exposure prophylaxis) be taken?
72 hours
92
How many days of treatment is PEP?
28 days
93
Which HIV positive patients are given antiretroviral treatment?
All of them (treated regardless of viral load)
94
What are the aims of HIV treatment?
Aim is for undetectable viral load and normal CD4 count
95
What drug must be started in HIV positive patients with a CD4 count <200 and why
Co-trim to protect against pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
96
How often should women with HIV receive a smear test?
Annually
97
Which vaccines should patients with HIV be given?
Flu
Hep A & B
HPV
Pneumococcal vaccine
98
Which HIV positive women can safely deliver their baby vaginally?
Those with a viral load <50 copies/ml
99
Can women with HIV ever breastfeed?
NO!! regardless of viral load, transmission is still a risk!
100
What is given during labour and delivery in HIV positive women if viral load unknown or above 1000 copies/ml
IV Zidovudine
101
What is considered a positive Mantoux test?
Induration of 5mm or more
102
What is the treatment for latent TB?
Ioniazid + rifampicin for 3 months
OR
Isoniazid alone for 6 months
103
What is the treatment for active TB?
R + I for 6 months
P + E for 2 months
104
Which TB drugs are hepatotoxic?
All except ethambutol
105
What is the main side effect of rifampicin?
Orange/red secretions
106
What is the main side effect of ionizide and how is it prevented?
Peripheral Neuropathy
prevented with co-prescription of Pyridoxine (vit B6)
107
What is the main side effect of ethambutol?
eye problems
108
What is the causative organism in malaria and how is it transmitted?
Plasmodium falciparum, female anopheles mosquito
109
What is the incubation period in malaria?
1-4 weeks
110
What is the most common presenting feature in malaria?
Fever which spikes every 48 hours in line with the release of new baby parasites
111
Name two medications used to treat malaria
artemether or quinine
112
Name the drug used in malaria prophylaxis
Proguanil
113
What are the two main bacterial causes of meningitis?
Neisseria meningititis
Strep pneumoniae
114
What is the main viral cause of meningitis?
Enteroviruses (e.g. coxsackie)
115
What spinal level should a lumbar puncture be done in adults?
L3/4
116
What is the antibiotic of choice for meningitis in those aged <3 months and > 50 years
IV cefotaxime + Amoxicillin
117
What is the antibiotic of choice for meningitis in those aged 3M-50 years
IV cefotaxime
118
What is the antibiotic of choice for meningococcal meningitis?
IV benzylpenicillin
119
What is the antibiotic of choice for pneumococcal meningitis and haemophilus influenzae?
IV cefotaxime
120
What is the antibiotic of choice for meningitis caused by listeria?
IV amox and gent
121
What antibiotic is given to those who are a close contact with a patient with meningitis?
Single dose of ciprofloxacin
122
