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Ophthalmology for Finals > High yield exam cram > Flashcards

High yield exam cram Flashcards

1
Q

What does Mydriasis mean?

A

Dilated pupils

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2
Q

What does mitosis mean?

A

Constricted pupil

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3
Q

Which gives colour vision, rods or cones?

A

Cones (cones for colour)

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4
Q

What is the function of Timolol (Beta blocker)?

A

Reduces the production of aqueous humour

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5
Q

What is the function of Dorzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)?

A

Reduces the production of aqueous humour

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6
Q

What is the function of Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)?

A

Reduces the production of aqueous humour

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7
Q

What is the function of Brimonidine (sympathomimetics)?

A

Reduce production of aqueous humour and improve uveoscleral outflow

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8
Q

What is the function of Lantoprost (prostaglandin analogues)?

A

Increase uveoscleral outflow

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9
Q

What is the function of Pilocarpine (muscarinic agonist)?

A

Pupil constriction and ciliary muscle contraction

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10
Q

What is the function of Anti VEG-F?

A

Targets VEG-F which stimulates formation of new blood vessels

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11
Q

What is the function of Chloramphenicol eye drops?

A

Antibiotic

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12
Q

What is the function of Fusidic eye drops?

A

Antibiotic (Used instead of chloramphenicol in pregnancy)

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13
Q

What is the function of Sodium cromoglicate?

A

Mast-cell stabiliser, reduces allergic response

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14
Q

What is the function of Cyclopentolate?

A

paralyses and dilates the pupil to relieve ciliary spasm

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15
Q

What is the function of Atropine (eye drops?)

A

paralyses and dilates the pupil to relieve ciliary spasm

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16
Q

What is the function of Phenylephrine eye drops?

A

Differentiates scleritis and episcleritis (doesn’t have any effect in scleritis)

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17
Q

Describe the layers of the eyeball from most superficial to deepest

A
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18
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of corneal infection (keratitis)

A

S. Aureus

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19
Q

What is the most common viral cause of corneal infection (keratitis)

A

Herpes

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20
Q

How should corneal infection (keratitis) be managed?

A

Antibacterial/viral/fungal eye drops. Stop using contact lenses until healed

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21
Q

What are the two main causes of conjunctivitis?

A

infective or allergic

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22
Q

How long does an episode of conjunctivitis usually last?

A

1-2 weeks (usually self limiting)

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23
Q

How should conjunctivitis be managed?

A

Chloramphenicol antibiotic drops (fusidic acid if preg), hygiene, no lenses, no towel sharing!

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24
Q

What is anterior uveitis?

A

Inflammation of the iris/ciliary body or chorioid

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25
How does anterior uveitis present?
Pain, photophobia, epiphora (excessive tears), redness, small & irregular pupil, hypopyon
26
What causes anterior uveitis?
idiopathic or secondary to systemic autoimmune diseases (ulcerative colitis), sarcoidosis, infections, trauma, or drug reactions
27
How is anterior uveitis managed?
Topical corticosteroids & cycloplegic agents (tropicamide or homatropine) to reduce ciliary spasm
28
What causes episcleritis?
Who knows (unknown aetiology)
29
What diseases have an association with episcleritis?
rheumatoid arthritis and IBD
30
How does episcleritis present?
Localised, red area on the white part of the eye PAINLESS!
31
How is episcleritis managed?
Leave it alone to self resolve within a few weeks
32
What causes scleritis?
autoimmune disease (rheumatoid arthritis and vasculitis) and infection
33
How does scleritis present?
Severe pain (Scleritis = Sore), swelling and redness
34
What happens if scleritis is left untreated?
Vision loss
35
How are scleritis and episcleritis differentiated?
Differentiate with phenylephrine eye drops (scleritis doesn’t react to the drops) Scleritis is sore
36
What is the difference between periorbital cellulitis and orbital cellulitis and how are they differentiated from one another?
Periorbital cellulitis = around the eye Orbital cellulitis = behind orbital septum Differentiate with a CT scan
37
How does Subconjunctival Haemorrhage present?
Bright red patch of blood
38
What is glaucoma?
optic nerve damage caused by a rise in intra-ocular pressure
39
What is a normal intra-ocular pressure?
10-21 mmHg
40
At which intraoccqular pressure is treatment for glaucoma started?
24mmHg
41
What is considered to be an abnormal cup:disc ratio?
>0.5 is abnormal
42
What is the gold standard test for diagnosing glaucoma?
Goldmann applanation tonometry
43
Briefly explain the flow of aqueous humour
Aqueous humour exits anterior compartment via TM ➡️ Schlemm's canal ➡️ aqueous veins ➡️ eventually ends up in internal jugular vein
44
Which demographic typically gets: A) Open angle glaucoma B) Acute closed angle glaucoma
A) Open angle glaucoma = black people B) Acute closed angle glaucoma = East Asian people
45
Describe the difference between the presentation of Open angle glaucoma vs Acute closed angle glaucoma
Open angle = slow, small increase in pressure, painless, tunnel vision Acute closed angle = sudden, painful, cloudy vision, red eye, N&V (both get halos around lights)
46
How is open angle glaucoma managed in the first instance?
Topical prostaglandin analogues 1st line = improve uveoscleral outflow Beta-blockers & carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 2nd line to reduce production of aqueous humour
47
What is the definitive treatment for open angle glaucoma?
Trabeculotomy
48
What is used to definitively diagnose closed angle glaucoma?
Gonioscopy
49
What is the acute management of closed angle glaucoma in primary care?
call an ambulance lie on back without pillow pilocarpine eye drops acetazolamide analgesia and antiemetic
50
What is the acute management of closed angle glaucoma in secondary care?
beta-blockers, alpha agonists prostaglandin analogues carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
51
What is the definitive management of closed angle glaucoma?
Laser peripheral iridotomy (LPI)
52
What is vitreous attachment associated with?
Aging
53
What causes vitreous haemorrhage?
retinal detachment or retinal vein occlusion
54
How are severe cases of vitreous haemorrhage managed?
Vitrectomy
55
What causes retinal artery occlusion?
an atheroma related carotid artery thrombus. or vasculitis.
56
How does retinal artery occlusion present?
sudden onset, painless monocular visual loss
57
How does retinal artery occlusion look on fundoscopy?
'cherry-red' spot at the centre of the macula and pale retina.
58
How is central retinal artery occlusion managed?
Reperfusion therapy
59
What causes central retinal vein occlusion?
Thrombus in the retinal vein
60
how does central retinal vein occlusion present?
Flame haemorrhages and cotton wool spots
61
How is central retinal vein occlusion managed?
Intravitreal anti-VEGF therapy to stop over proliferation of blood vessels dexamethasone implant for the oedema laser photocoagulation to treat the new vessels.
62
explain what diabetic retinopathy is
progressive damage to the retina's blood vessels caused by hyperglycaemia
63
What are the two stages of diabetic retinopathy?
proliferative (early and mild) and non-proliferative (late and severe)
64
Explain how diabetic retinopathy presents
initially no symptoms blurred vision, floaters, dark areas in their visual field, and eventually, significant vision loss.
65
How does diabetic retinopathy look on fundoscopy?
microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton-wool spots & neovascularisation (new blood vessel formation)
66
How is diabetic retinopathy managed?
Laser photocoagulation and anti VEG-F to stop over proliferation of blood vessels
67
what is hypertensive retinopathy?
Damage to retinal blood vessels due to high blood pressure
68
How does hypertensive retinopathy present on fundoscopy?
Copper/silver wiring” (thickened and scleroses arteriole walls reflect more light on examination) AV nipping (arterioles compress veins where they cross) cotton wool spots hard exudates (damaged vessels leak lipids) retinal haemorrhages.
69
How is hypertensive retinopathy managed?
Control BP and manage risk factors
70
How does retinal detachment present?
Sudden loss of vision - curtain coming down Flashes and floaters
71
How is retinal detachment managed?
Laser treatments cryotherapy vitrectomy scleral buckling pneumatic retinopexy to reattach
72
What is macular degeneration?
Degeneration of the central retina (macula).
73
What are the two types of macular degeneration and how do they differ?
Dry = no new neovascularisation wet = new neovascularisation.
74
What is used to diagnose and monitor macular degeneration?
Optical coherence tomography
75
What is the typical finding on fundoscopy in macular degeneration?
Drusen (yellow deposits under the retina)
76
How is dry macular degeneration managed?
zinc & vitamins A,C and E
77
How is wet macular degeneration managed?
Anti VEG-F to stop over proliferation of blood vessels
78
Which nervous system causes pupil constriction, sympathetic or parasympathetic?
Parasympathetic
79
What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?
- Ptosis - Miosis - Anhidrosis
80
What causes a Holme's - Adie pupil and how does it present?
Damage to post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres Dilated & sluggish
81
What causes argyll-robertson pupil and how does it present?
Neurosyphillis Irregular shaped pupil which accommodates but does not react to light
82
What happens to the pupil in anterior uveitis?
Irregular pupil (due to adhesions)
83
What happens to the pupil in Acute angle closure glaucoma?
Vertical oval pupil due to ischaemic damage
84
What is Trichiasis?
Eyelashes grow in the way
85
Diagnosis? (patient is a contact lens user)
Keratitis (corneal infection)
86
Diagnosis?
Conjunctivitis
87
Diagnosis? Patient has ulcerative colitis
Anterior uveitis
88
Diagnosis? Painless
episcleritis
89
Diagnosis? Painful
scleritis
90
Diagnosis?
Cellulitis
91
Diagnosis?
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
92
Diagnosis?
Increased ocular pressure (glaucoma)
93
Diagnosis?
vitreous detachment
94
Diagnosis?
Vitreous haemorrhage
95
Diagnosis?
Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
96
Diagnosis?
Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
97
Diagnosis?
Diabetic Retinopathy
98
Diagnosis?
Hypertensive Retinopathy
99
Diagnosis?
Retinal Detachment
100
Diagnosis?
dry macular degeneration
101
Diagnosis?
wet macular degeneration
102
diagnosis
Horner's syndrome
103
Diagnosis
trichiasis
104
Diagnosis
ectropion
105
Diagnosis
Entropian
106

Ophthalmology for Finals (1 decks)

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