High Yield Bullet Points Flashcards

1
Q

UHU formula

A

of transports / fully staffed ambulance hours

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2
Q

Cardiac arrest rate

A

0.5-1 per 1,000 people

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3
Q

Gas law responsible for decompression sickness

A

Henrys law

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4
Q

BLS termination rule

A

Unwitnessed arrest
3 cycles (epi x 3)
No ROSC

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5
Q

System status management

A

Term used to describe fluid deployment of ambulances to meet the changing demands in specific geographic areas

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6
Q

Gas with garlic odor

A

Blistering agents
Organophosphates

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7
Q

Gases with mothball odor

A

Naphthalene
Camphos

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8
Q

Gas with pear odor

A

Chloral hydrate

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9
Q

Gas with rotten egg odor

A

Hydrogen sulfide

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10
Q

Freshly mown hay gas odor

A

Phosgene

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11
Q

Gas with geranium odor

A

Lewisite

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12
Q

What can an EMR do for airway

A

Airway adjuncts, BVM, O2 and suction, AEDs

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13
Q

Lowest level that can give IN narcan

A

EMR

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14
Q

What can EMR do with auto injectors

A

Give to themselves or peers (not to general public)

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15
Q

What meds can an EMT give

A

IM Epi
ASA
Oral glucose
Duonebs
Assist patients in taking own nitro

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16
Q

AEMT Meds

A

Nitro
Epi
Glucagon
D50
Albuterol
Naloxone
NO

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17
Q

Lowest level that can obtain IV access

A

A-EMT

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18
Q

AEMT Airway unique abilities

A

Advanced airway device placement (supraglottic, not ETT)
Suctioning of an already intubated patient
Waveform capnography

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19
Q

3 tests EMT can do

A

12 lead acquisition
Blood glucose
Telemetry

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20
Q

AEMT purpose

A

High benefit, low risk advanced skills for systems that cannot support or justify paramedic care

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21
Q

What is Part 91

A

general operating fight rules, applies to all aircraft

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22
Q

What is part 135

A

Air carrier certificates, commuter and on demand operations, and rules governing persons on board

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23
Q

What is title 14?
What does it say?

A

Federal code for flying
FAA and part 135 holder responsible for for all aviation specific issues, (safety inspections, helicopter license, air traffic control)

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24
Q

“Traditional model” for air EMS

A

Hospital owns aircraft
Another company holds part 135z

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25
Q

What does the airline deregulation act state

A

States have no jurisdiction over aviation aspects of EMS programs or economics of providing services

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26
Q

Cost effective analysis measures

A

Natural units such as years life gained or healthcare resources consumed
Reports as effect per unity cost

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27
Q

Cost utility analysis

A

Measures in quality adjusted life years

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28
Q

Cost benefit analysis

A

Measures effect of intervention in dollars

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29
Q

QA vs QI

A

QA: Emphasis on individuals performance, monitors and measures against a standard, reactive
QI: Emphasis on process, systems approach, proactive

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30
Q

Half of sea level barometric pressure at

A

18k feet or
5500 meters

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31
Q

Temperature decrease at altitude

A

3.5 degrees F or 2 degrees C for every 1k feet of elevation

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32
Q

TASER facts

A

50k voltes
0.36 J
19 pulses for 5 seconds
Operator can terminate/repeat

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33
Q

Most important factor determine outcome from OHCA

A

Systems of community care

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34
Q

AIRWAYS trial

A

No difference in survival or favorable outcome between Igel and ETI

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35
Q

PART trial

A

King LT vs ETI: favor king but overall very low success rate

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36
Q

PARAMEDIC 2 trial

A

epi had higher rate of 30 day survival over placeboes but excess severe neurological impairment in epi group

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37
Q

Smallpox clinical course

A

10-14 days of asymptomatic incubation
2-4 days of prodrome
Exanthem

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38
Q

Smallpox rash timing and distribution

A

Mucus membranes 24 hours before rash
Starts on face/hands/forearms
Spreads to lower extremities then trunk

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39
Q

Smallpox rash description

A

Firm, deep seated vesicles or pustules in the same stage of development without other apparent cause
Macules –> Vesicles –> Pustules –> Scabs

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40
Q

Smallpox vs chicken pox rash

A

Smallpox: centrifugal
Chickenpox: centripetal

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41
Q

Test for continuous data between two groups

A

Students T test

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42
Q

Test for continuous data between 3 or more groups

A

ANOVA

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43
Q

Test for ordinal data between 2 groups

A

Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test

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44
Q

Test for ordinal data between 3 or more groups

A

Kruskall-Wallis test

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45
Q

Test for categorical or binary data?
If less than 5 differences?

A

Chi square test
Fishers exact test for when <5 occurrences are measured in each category

46
Q

What does a chi square test measure

A

Whether there is significant differences between treatment and outcomes when hypothesis is true

47
Q

What test compares data from matched pairs

A

Wilcoxon-signed rank test

48
Q

Highway safety act of 1966

A

Authorized funds to develop EMS standards and implement programs to improve ambulance service

49
Q

EMS at crossroads

A

Reflected a very detailed evaluation of EMS, including current organization structure, service delivery, and finance

50
Q

EMS act of 1973

A

Carved up EMS into regions
Gave 300 million
Defined 15 essential components
No focus on patient care

51
Q

Omnibus reconciliation act of 1981

A

Comprehensive cost containment act that converted 25 DHHS funding programs into 7 consolidated block grants

52
Q

EMS agenda for the future (1996)

A

goal to improve quality of community health
First document to emphasize clinical care and integration of EMS into healthcare system

53
Q

EMS agenda for future considered EMS at junction of what 3 things

A

Public health
Public safety
Health care

54
Q

First document to add role of medical director as essential

A

EMS agenda for the future (1996)

55
Q

5 facets of 1996 EMS education agenda for the future

A

All national:
Core content, scope of practice, EMS education standards, EMS education accreditation, EMS certification

56
Q

2 national standards for ambulance design

A

KKK-A-1822 and NFPA 1917

57
Q

3 main components of essential system measures

A
  1. Clinical sophistication
  2. Response time reliability
  3. Economic efficiency
58
Q

What is business logic

A

Used in PCR to conform to defined parameters (can’t put GCS 0 or male pregnant)

59
Q

What is service quality

A

Experiences and perceptions of patients and other stakeholders

60
Q

3 things associated with increased survival in traumatic cardiac arrest

A

Isolated stab wound to chest
Signs of life with EMS
Thoracotomy within 15 minutes

61
Q

When to withhold CPR in blunt traumatic arrest

A
  1. Apneic
  2. Pulesless
  3. No organized electrical activity
62
Q

When to withhold CPR in penetrating traumatic arrest

A
  1. Apneic
  2. Pulseless
  3. No other signs of life (pupillary response, movement, electrical activity)
63
Q

What is regionalization

A

coordinated statewide system of care that combines out of hospital and in hospital components with public health

64
Q

What is categorization

A

review against standards to classify facility capabilities

65
Q

What is designation

A

formal selection for patient referral and transfer by an organizing body that has been given governmental authority to do so

66
Q

What is accreditation

A

Process in which certification of competency or authority is presented

67
Q

Non combustable source of CO

A

Methylene chloride

68
Q

3 learning domains

A

Affective - understanding importance of skill
Cognitive - concepts of skill
Psychomotor - practicing skill

69
Q

What is a CERT

A

Training civilian public in self sufficient disaster preparedness and response
Part of PPD8

70
Q

Cerebral perfusion pressure formula

A

MAP - ICP

71
Q

TBI severity

A

Mild: 14-15
Moderate: 9-13
Severe: 3-8

72
Q

4 R’s for treating intimate partner violence

A

Recognize
Response
Refer
Record

73
Q

4 R’s for trauma informed approach

A

Realization
Recognition
Response
Resist retraumatization

74
Q

O2 L and FiO2 for NC

A

1-6 L
0.24-0.44 FiO2

75
Q

O2L and FiO2 for simple facemask

A

5-8 L
0.4 - 0.6 FiO2

76
Q

O2L and Fio2 for nonrebreather

A

10-15 L
0.9 - 100% FiO2

77
Q

Malcom Bridge quality act

A

1987 - focused on quality standards
Response to ISO 9000

78
Q

How long for DMAT to be self sufficient

A

72 hours

79
Q

What does the national association of state EMS officials do

A

Facilitates interstate cooporation in areas such as patio transfer and reciprocity of EMS personell

80
Q

What does OSHA 1910 state

A

requires departments to have medical screening programs and maintain records for 30 years after resignation

81
Q

Peds ETT measurements

A

Size: 4 + (age/4) - uncuffed
Depth: 12 + (age/2)

82
Q

Peds BP cuff measure

A

2/3 length of upper arm or 2/3 length of thigh

83
Q

Ideal BW meds

A

Morphine, Ketamine, Roc and Vec,, Levo, Lidocaine, procainamide (Ideally MK Rocs PLeLi)

84
Q

Total body weight meds

A

Fentanyl, Etomidate, Diltiazem, Succinylcholine, Benzos, Propofol (Total FEDS BP)

85
Q

Determinant code vs response assignment

A

DC: Static, allowing for comparison among locals
RA: Response to present codes, varies on local EMS agency

86
Q

Prussian blue antidote for

A

Cesium, rubidium, thallium

87
Q

Hep B exposure and no vaccinaton

A

HBIG and begin series

88
Q

Hep Exposure and vaccinated

A

Test: if not responding HBIG x1 and booster
If already known not responder: HBIG x1 and repeat series

89
Q

LAPSS

A

Unilateral findings with facial droop, grip strength (drift), arm strength
Criteria:Over 45 years old, no hx seizures, not bedridden, symptoms < 24 hours, BG between 60-400s

90
Q

Military echelons of care

A

1: scene to aid station
2: aid station to division level facility (forward surgical teams)
3: Transport to higher level of care (initial delivery of hospital care)
4: communications zone-level health service support (general hospital)
5: continental US hospital

91
Q

OSHA part 1904

A

requires employers to keep records and report on work related injuries
Records must be kept for 5 years

92
Q

ESAR-VHP

A

Emergency system for advance registration of volunteer health professionals
Network that pre-verifies credentials of volunteers who agree to serve during disaster

93
Q

Medical reserve coops

A

federally funded network of medical and non medical volunteers who respond to disaster in local jurisdiction

94
Q

Enumerative vs analytical study

A

Enumerative: data set over fixed period, traditional clinical study, clinical data
Analytical: on-going manner, evaluates providers actions on process, performance improvement

95
Q

Types of IRB review

A

Not human subject: database, metaanalysis
Exempt: Less than minimal risk (de identified data, anonymous survey)
Expedited: No greater than minimal risk (retrospective review of clinincal data)
Full review: More than minimal risk

96
Q

Driver diagram used for

A

Identify possible areas for change that may result in performance improvement

97
Q

Levels of evidence in studies

A

I – well designed RCT
IIa – not randomized , well designed
IIb – case control/cohort, well designed
IIc – multiple or overwhelming data from less well designed trials
III – expert opinion

98
Q

Evidence class recommendations

A

A – good evidence, service outweighs risks
B – Fair evidence (NR and R)
C – fair evidence, risks and benefits equivocal (most EMS lit) (LD)
D – fair, risk outweighs benefit
I – Insufficient evidence

99
Q

What act funded NIMS

A

Homeland security presidential directive 5

100
Q

PPD 8 recognizes what

A

recognizes the shared responsibility of government, the business community, and individual citizens in fostering a secure and resilient nation

101
Q

Who grants CLIA

A

Centers for medicare and medicaid services

102
Q

Operational level HAZMAT

A

Trained to protect nearby persons and the environment, and control the scene from a safe distance.
They are typically trained in initial containment, possibly vapor suppression and absorption, but do not enter the hot zone and do not don PPE.

103
Q

Technician level in HAZMAT

A

Trained to control the substance release. They are trained and equipped with whatever level of PPE is needed (A through D). They also have extensive training in substance properties and appropriate tools needed to contain releases

104
Q

Entity that has primary responsibility to coordinate state public health agencies in education the public on issues related to EMS

A

State EMS office

105
Q

Lead agency for NDMS

A

Dept of health and human services

106
Q

What agency manages the Strategic national stockpile

A

Dept of health and human services

107
Q

What does the national medical response team do (NMRT)

A

provides decontamination and specialized care for victims of weapons of mass destruction events

108
Q

Kinetic energy formula

A

(1/2 Mass ) x Velocity(squared)

109
Q

3 essentail components of EMS integration with public health

A
  1. Assessment
  2. Policy development
  3. Assurance
110
Q

Decon vs Disinfection

A

Decon: removal of microorganisms to leave an item safe for handling
Disinfection: inactivation of disease producing microorganisms

111
Q

Degredation vs Adsorption vs Absorption vs Neutralization

A

Degradation: Using one chemical to destroy the hazards of another
Adsorption: Uses a substance that binds the dangerous chemical and allows it to be removed
Neutralization: uses weak acids to neutralize bases and vice versa
Absorption: decreases the amount of the chemical by using towels, pads, etc.

112
Q
A