Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PCM2 > High yield > Flashcards

High yield Flashcards

1
Q

what are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?

A

superior mandable lateral by the medial border of the sternocleidomastoid m, medially by the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

border of posterior triangle

A

medial border is sternocliedomastoid m, clavicle is inferior border and trap is lateral border/ the spinal accesory nereve runs through the posterior triangle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a virchows node and what does it suggest

A

left sided enlarged supraclavicular lymph node that suggest malignancy of thorax or abdoman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does a right sided englarged supraclacicular lymph node suggest

A

malignancy of lungs, mediasteinum, esophogus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what muscle attaches to the labrum of the shoulder

A

biceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does O’Brians test test for?

A

O’Brien’s test: positions the arm for resistance testing in a way that specifically targets a SLAP (superior labrum anterior to posterior) labral tear.
Flex arm to 90°and adduct across the chest
Internally rotate with the thumb pointing down and push down on the arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does the apprehesnsion test test for?

A

Apprehension test: positions the shoulder in abduction and external rotation that reduces stability of the joint and can promote anterior dislocation. Patient may become apprehensive in this position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drop arm test

A

Drop arm: used to assess a severe tear or full rupture of the supraspinatus tendon. ROM 0-90° = supraspinatus, 90-120° (or so) = deltoid. When a full supraspinatus tear exists, the patient cannot hold the arm in a position between 0-90° .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

speeds test

A

Speed’s test: resisted bicep flexion reproduces pain localized to the tendon suggesting tendonitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cervical compression test

A

aka Axial/Vertical Compression Test

Apply direct vertical compression without sidebending or rotation to provoke symptoms of a pinched nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

spurlings maneuver

A

**Sidebending to the affected side with compression down along the spinal axis. Reproduces radicular symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

distraction test

A

Alleviates radicular symptoms and supports a diagnosis of radiculopathy pull up on head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Roo’s test

A

Arms abducted to 90°, externally rotated
Elbows flexed at 90°
Patient slowly opens and closes his hands for 3 minutes.
tests for thoracic outlet syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adson’s test

A

The arm of the standing (or seated) patient is abducted 30 degrees at the shoulder and maximally extended.
• The radial pulse is palpated and the examiner grasps the patient’s wrist.
• The patient then extends neck and turns the head toward the symptomatic shoulder and is asked to take a deep breath and hold it.
• The quality of the radial pulse is evaluated in comparison to the pulse taken while the arm is resting at the patient’s side.
• Some clinicians have patients turn their heads away from the side tested in a modified test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

lift off test

A

: With arm internally rotated so dorsum of hand rests on low back, have patient lift the hand off their low back posteriorly against your resistance.

tests for subscap injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

crossover test

A

Adduct the arm across the chest which compresses the acromioclavicular joint and causes pain if there has been disruption of the AC joint or arthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

neers impingement sign

A 
Stabilize scapula
Internally rotate and flex arm
Subacromial impingement
Supraspinatus pathology
hail hitler one
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hawkins impingment sign

A

The patient is examined while sitting with their shoulder flexed to 90° and their elbow flexed to 90°. The examiner grasps and supports proximal to the wrist and elbow to ensure maximal relaxation, the examiner and the patient then quickly rotate the arm internally. Pain located below the acromioclavicular joint with internal rotation is considered a positive test result for subacromial impingement or rotator cuff tendinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

medial epicondylititis test what

A

flex wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

lateral epicondylitits test what

A

extend wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

finkelsteins test

A

Patient grips thumb inside fist. Examiner gently ulnar-deviates the wrist. If pain occurs along the thumb or wrist, the test is positive for tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus (De Quervain’s Disease).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tinels test or sign

A

tap over median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

phalens sign

A

median nerve impingment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

reverse phalens sign

A

median nerve impingemnt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe visceral pain

A

source is usually hollow organ caused by distension or stretching. Comes and goes, crescendo/decrescendo pattern. Not well localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe parietal pain

A

Caused by inflammation of the peritoneum. Steady aching pain that is usually well localized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what refers pain to the right shoulder?

A

glabladder/liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what refers pain to the back?

A

aorta/pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What refers pain to the left shoulder?

A

spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What refers pain to the flank and groin?

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is adequate exposure of the abdomen

A

xiphoid to the pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is rovsings sign?

A

deep palpation of llq cause pain in rlq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is lloyds sign?

A

tenderness as CVA striking of back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Condyloma acuminata caused by ?

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Condylomata lata caused by?

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

five f’s of acute cholyctstitis

A

The 5 “f’s” – female, fat, fertile, fair, flatulent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is murpheys sign?

A

RUQ pain and sudden arrest of inspiration during palpation of the liver and gallbladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the diagnostic triad for acute cholectystits?

A

RUQ pain, fever and leukocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

presentation of chlaymdyia?

A

elevated WBC non gonococcal urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

presentation of Gonhearra

A

WBC with Gm(-) intracellular diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

hypospadias def

A

congenital displacement of the urethral meatus on the inferior surface of the penis along the urethral groove.
Important in a new born exam. Maybe associated with congenital renal abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

epispadias def

A

congenital displacement of the urethral meatus on the superior surface of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

causative organism and path of primary syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum – causative organism
Syphilitic Chancre – painless round or oval erosion or ulcer. Non-tender enlarged inguinal lymph nodes are common.
RPR and VDRL are positive, screening test, many false positives.
FTA- ABS is positive or Dark Field Microscopy, confirmatory test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

gentital herpes pathology?

A

cluster of small vesicles. Burning and painful. Progress to ulcers on a erthymic base. Dx – viral culture of the fluid in the vesicle.
Herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 – causative organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what causes venereal warts?

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

gonococcal urethritis gram stain

A

Gram-negative intracellular diplococci of GC
WBC = neutrophils
abrupt incubation period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

non-gonococcal urethritis gram stain

A

polymorphonuclear leukocytes NGU=chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

define menorrhagia

A

excessive bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

define Metrorrhagia –

A

Metrorrhagia – bleeding between periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

where does LNMP info go?

A

very fist sentence of HPI

51
Q

how should you insert a speculum?

A

horizontally and inferiorly gently downward posterior force

52
Q

what is the purpose of a pap smere?

A

To find “pre-cancerous” (i.e., DYSPLASIA) lesions of the cervix

53
Q

what is version?

A

Version is the relationship between the fundus of the uterus and the vagina

54
Q

what is flexion for cervix?

A

Flexion is the relationship between the fundus of the uterus and the cervix – think of uterus as having a HINGE at internal os of cervix

55
Q

what supplies the breast with blood

A

(1) perforating branches of the internal mammary artery
(2) lateral branches of the posterior intercostal arteries
(3) branches from the axillary artery, including the highest thoracic, lateral thoracic, and pectoral branches of the thoracoacromial artery.

56
Q

where does the axilary tail of the breast drain lymph?

A

subscapular group of axillary nodes.

57
Q

where does the upper portion of the breast drain lymph?

A

into infra clavicular group.

58
Q

Most of the lymph from subareolar and submammary plexus is drained to the?

A

anterior or pectoral group of axillary nodes

59
Q

Medial part of the breast is drained by

A

sub mammary plexus of the opposite

breast and also to the lymph glands along the internal thoracic artery and then to the mediastinal nodes

60
Q

The inferior part of the breast is drained by?

A

lymphatics of abdominal wall and to the extra peritoneal lymphatic plexus.

61
Q

when is the optimal time to examine the breast?

A

5-7 days from “day 1” of the LNMP (estrogen is lower, thus less swelling/tenderness w/exam)

62
Q

stages of change for motivational interviewing?

A 
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance
Relapse
63
Q

torticollis pathology

A

spasm of sternocleidomastoid causing ipsilateral sidebending and contralateral roatation

64
Q

in thoracic outlet syndrome adsons tests what?

A

tests the radial pulse for compression of the subclaciamn artery betweeen the MIDDLE AND ANTERIOR SCALENE and 1st rib…extension with abduction test for pec minor impingment

65
Q

trap primary action

A

Superior portion- elevates scapula
Middle portion- retracts scapula
Lower portion- depresses scapula

66
Q

Pectoralis major action

A

Depresses, adducts, internally rotates humerus

67
Q

Coracobrachialis action

A

Flexes and adducts humerus

68
Q

Deltoid action

A

Anterior portion- flexes humerus
Middle portion- abducts humerus after 90°
Posterior portion- extends humerus

69
Q

Teres Major action

A

Internally rotates humerus

70
Q

Rhomboids action

A

Retracts scapula

71
Q

Latissimus Dorsi action

A

Internally rotates and extends humerus

72
Q

Serratus Anterior action

A

Protracts and stabilizes scapula/ assocaited with winged scapula due to damage of long thoracic nerve

73
Q

Supraspinatus action

A

Abducts up to 90°

74
Q

Infraspinatus action

A

Externally rotates humerus

75
Q

Teres Minor action

A

Externally rotates humerus

76
Q

Subscapularis action

A

Internally rotates humerus

77
Q

the crossover test checks?

A

AC joint pathology or arthritis of AC joint

78
Q

what ligament holds the radial head in place?

A

annular ligament

79
Q

what fracture is associated with snuffbox tenderness?

A

scaphoid bone… problematic because of limited blood supply

80
Q

pathology of mallet finger?

A

Mallet finger reflects an avulsion of the extensor tendon at the DIP joint.

81
Q

Boutonniére Deformity pathology

A

Boutonniére Deformity reflects an avulsion of the extensor tendon at the PIP joint.

82
Q

what does homans sign test for?

A

Evaluates for DVT (deep venous thrombosis)

Dorsiflex patient’s ankle with leg extended at knee. Pain in calf is a positive sign.

83
Q

FABER testing?

A

Patrick’s test or FABER test (for Flexion, ABduction, and External Rotation) is performed to evaluate pathology of the hip joint or the sacroiliac joint. The test is performed by having the tested leg flexed and the thigh abducted and externally rotated.

84
Q

what is the thessely test for?

A

standing and twisting tests for meniscal tears more specific than mcmurry test

85
Q

what does mcmurrays test for?

A

meniscal tear the knee is held by one hand, which is placed along the joint line, and flexed to complete flexion while the foot is held by the sole of the foot with the other hand. The examiner then places one hand on the medial side of the knee to pull the knee towards varus position,pulling the knee laterally (bow legged). The other hand rotates the leg internally while extending the knee.

86
Q

thompson test?

A

test for the rupture of the Achilles tendon. The patient lies face down with feet hanging off the edge of the bed squeeze calf.

87
Q

Kleiger test

A

Maneuver used to determine stability of the deltoid ligament. The examiner stabilizes the leg just above the ankle with one hand and everts the foot with the other. Pain or instability suggests injury to the deltoid ligament.

88
Q

motor, reflex and sensation for L4

A

motor: anterior tibialis
reflex: patellar tendon
sensation: medial aspect of foot

89
Q

motor, reflex and sensation for L5

A

motor: extensor hallucis longus
reflex: none
sensation: medial aspect of dorsal and plantar foot surfaces not including heel

90
Q

motor, reflex and sensation S1

A

motor: gastroc/soleus (repetitive toe raises)
reflex: achiles tendon
sensation: lateral aspect of foot

91
Q

straight leg raises tests for?

A

sciatica

92
Q

what describes true hip pain?

A

pain in groin

93
Q

what is the thomas test?

A

patien supine grab knee and bring it to chest
If the iliopsoas muscle is shortened, or a contracture is present, the lower extremity on the involved side will be unable to fully extend at the hip.

94
Q

what is ballottment test?

A

indicates increased fluid in the suprapatellar pouch over the patella at the knee joint. To test ballottement the examiner would apply downward pressure towards the foot with one hand, while pushing the patella backwards against the femur with one finger of the opposite hand. A “milking” motion is used with the downward pressure. If a bogginess around the joint occurs, then the test is positive for ballottement.

95
Q

where is the pes anserine bursa located?

A

medial and just below the tibial plateau

96
Q

what does lachmans test for?

A

ACL injury pull anterior and externally rotate

97
Q

What are the most common ligaments injured in an ankle sprain?

A

Anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular

98
Q

components of a plumb line

A

ear shoulder greater trochanter, fibular head, lateral malleolus

99
Q

stance phase and swing phase percent of gait cycle

A

60 stance 40 swing

100
Q

T3 spinous process is at what level?

A

spine of scapula

101
Q

t7 spinous process is at what level?

A

inferior angle of the scapula

102
Q

L4 spinous process at what level?

A

level of iliac crest

103
Q

Small intestine vicerosomatic reflex?

A

T10-T11

104
Q

colon and rectum vicerosomatic reflex?

A

T12-L2

105
Q

Bladder vicerosomatic reflex?

A

T12-L2

106
Q

Ovaries/testes viscerosomatic reflex?

A

T10-T11

107
Q

Uterus/prostate vicerosomatic reflex

A

T12-L2

108
Q

what is the most common site of injury to the lumbar spine

A

L5/S1

109
Q

what is reiter syndrome?

A

triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis

110
Q

osteoarthritis pathology

A

degenerative disc disease common in L5-S1
Deterioration and loss of cartilage and normal bone
Low grade inflammatory issue

111
Q

osteoporosis pathology

A

thinning of bones

112
Q

sciatic nerve cord levels

A

l4-s3

113
Q

what type of joint is the hip?

A

Hip is Spheroidal
Synovial
Joint

114
Q

what test is most specific to the hip joint?

A

FABER test figure four may elicit SI tenderness

115
Q

the pes anserinas is the attachment point for what muscles?

A

sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus

116
Q

what is a bakers cist

A

Cyst in the popliteal fossa, most often medial

Leg extended check posterior/medial aspect of knee for swelling or fullness, sometimes tenderness as well

117
Q

Prepatellar Bursitis: Anterior pathology

A

associated with excessive kneeling pain is equal active and passive ROM for bursitis

118
Q

what does apelys compression test check for?

A

Patient prone with knee flexed to 90˚
Stabilize thigh with one hand while leaning onto heel compressing medial and lateral menisci. Rotate heel during compression noting any pain

119
Q

what does a valgus stress on the knee check for?

A

medial meniscus tear Push medially against knee while laterally against ankle

120
Q

what does a varus stress in the knee check for?

A

lateral meniscus tear Push laterally against knee while medially against ankle

121
Q

what does the talar tilt test for?

A

Pt is sitting with legs dangling off table
Doc inverts the calcaneus
If the talus gaps or rocks in the ankle mortise, the ATF & calcaneofibular ligs are torn and the test is positive

122
Q

what is a high ankle sprain?

A

Syndesmosis between Fibula and Tibia

123
Q

when should you perform a foot x-ray

A

Pain around the malleolus and tenderness in posterior malleolar area or tip of fibula
OR
Pain around the malleolus and unable to weight bear immediately and more than 4 steps in ED
OR
Pain in mid-foot and either
1. Tenderness at base of 5th metatarsal or navicular, OR
2. Inability to weight bear immediately OR more than 4 steps in ED

PCM2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions