High-yield Flashcards

1
Q

What is the common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children/young adults?

A

Minimal change glomerulonephritis

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2
Q

What are the common presentations of primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Hypertension, hypernatraemia, hypokalemia

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3
Q

What does NICE recommend for vascular dementia?

A

Tight control of vascular risk factors

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4
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP)?

A

More than 35 years old, smoking more than 15 cigarettes/day

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5
Q

When should aciclovir be started in suspected encephalitis cases?

A

In all cases of suspected encephalitis

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6
Q

What is the management for herpes zoster ophthalmicus?

A

Urgent ophthalmological review, 7-10 days of oral antivirals

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7
Q

What can sepsis cause in terms of acid-base balance?

A

Profound lactic acidosis

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8
Q

What should be assessed prior to induction of labor?

A

The Bishop Score

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9
Q

How is mastoiditis typically diagnosed?

A

Clinically

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10
Q

What is the preferred way to support nutrition in patients with motor neuron disease?

A

Percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG)

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11
Q

What are the increased risks associated with the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A

Breast cancer, cervical cancer

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12
Q

What is the first-line treatment for eclampsia?

A

Magnesium sulphate

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13
Q

Should compression stockings be routinely offered to all patients with deep vein thrombosis?

A

No

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14
Q

What is transient synovitis often associated with?

A

A mild fever

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15
Q

What is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Endometriosis

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16
Q

What are the classic symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

Sore throat, fever, headache, bright red tongue, coarse red rash

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17
Q

What is the first step to consider if a patient has a urine output of < 0.5ml/kg/hr postoperatively?

A

Fluid challenge, if no contraindications

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18
Q

Why are inhaled corticosteroids used in COPD?

A

To reduce exacerbations

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19
Q

What virus accounts for the majority of cases of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

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20
Q

What must be done if a person’s death occurs while under the mental health act?

A

Reported to the coroner

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21
Q

What is the first line of treatment for blepharitis?

A

Hot compresses

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22
Q

What is the recommended duration of DOAC treatment for cancer patients with VTE?

A

6 months

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23
Q

What should be screened for with an echocardiogram in Kawasaki disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysms

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24
Q

What is caput succedaneum?

A

A puffy swelling over the presenting part that crosses suture lines

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25
Q

What may a chest x-ray show in transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Hyperinflation, fluid in the horizontal fissure

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26
Q

When should breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation have USS for DDH screening?

A

At 6 weeks regardless of mode of delivery

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27
Q

What can circumstantiality be a sign of?

A

Anxiety disorders, hypomania

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28
Q

What is the only option for hyperacute transplant rejection?

A

Removal of the graft

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29
Q

What is the first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis if general advice has not helped?

A

Enuresis alarm

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30
Q

Where is an inguinal hernia located in relation to the pubic tubercle?

A

Superior and medial

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31
Q

What should be offered if HbA1c has risen to 58 mmol/mol in a patient with T2DM on metformin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, SGLT-2 inhibitor

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32
Q

What is the first step when there is chickenpox exposure in pregnancy?

A

Check antibodies

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33
Q

What is the acute treatment for migraine?

A

Triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol

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34
Q

What is the prophylactic treatment for migraine?

A

Topiramate or propranolol

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35
Q

What condition is Mycoplasma associated with?

A

Erythema multiforme

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36
Q

What are the metabolic abnormalities in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

High potassium, high phosphate, low calcium

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37
Q

What is the cause of sudden painless loss of vision characterized by a dense shadow starting peripherally?

A

Retinal detachment

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38
Q

What should patients with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis be given?

A

An aldosterone antagonist

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39
Q

What are the symptoms of acute haemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion?

A

Fever, abdominal pain, hypotension

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40
Q

What are the symptoms of Roseola infantum?

A

Fever followed later by rash

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41
Q

What condition is made worse when arms are outstretched?

A

Essential tremor

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42
Q

What should you think of when CT head shows temporal lobe changes?

A

Herpes simplex encephalitis

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43
Q

What is a common side effect of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Weight gain

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44
Q

What is the first-line antibiotic for tonsillitis?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

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45
Q

What movement is impaired in adhesive capsulitis?

A

External rotation

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46
Q

What is a missed miscarriage?

A

Gestational sac containing a dead fetus before 20 weeks without symptoms of expulsion

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47
Q

When should persistent oral ulceration of more than 3 weeks be referred to oral surgery?

A

Under the two-week wait

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48
Q

What heart condition is Turner’s syndrome associated with?

A

Ejection systolic murmur due to bicuspid aortic valve

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49
Q

What symptom may duct papilloma present with?

A

Blood-stained discharge

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50
Q

What is the initial management for duct-dependent congenital heart disease?

A

Maintenance of the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins

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51
Q

What is the next step in treating haemodynamically stable SVT patients unresponsive to vagal manoeuvres?

A

Treating with adenosine

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52
Q

In suspected digoxin toxicity, when is the digoxin level monitored?

A

Routinely not monitored, except in suspected toxicity

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53
Q

What can precipitate lithium toxicity?

A

NSAIDs

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54
Q

What is the likely condition when a patient experiences episodic, intense, unilateral eye pain?

A

Cluster headache

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55
Q

What does ptosis and a dilated pupil indicate?

A

Third nerve palsy

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56
Q

What does ptosis and a constricted pupil indicate?

A

Horner’s syndrome

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57
Q

What is the initial investigation for palpitations?

A

Holter monitor

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58
Q

What is an important adverse effect of aminoglycosides?

A

Ototoxicity

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59
Q

What should be the insulin management in the acute management of DKA?

A

Fixed rate insulin while continuing regular long-acting insulin

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60
Q

According to NICE 2017, what should be added first in asthma patients not controlled with SABA + ICS?

A

LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist)

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61
Q

What is the recommended immediate treatment for croup?

A

Single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg)

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62
Q

For vestibular neuronitis, when should prochlorperazine be stopped?

A

After a few days

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63
Q

What are the indicative symptoms of Kawasaki disease?

A

High fever lasting >5 days, red palms with desquamation, strawberry tongue

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64
Q

What is the most common cause of discitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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65
Q

What causes acute epiglottitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

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66
Q

What usually causes mucoid white vaginal discharge in newborn girls?

A

Normal hormonal changes

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67
Q

When should a referral to secondary care be considered for a family history of breast and ovarian cancer?

A

When there is a family history of breast and ovarian cancer

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68
Q

What can be used to reduce pyrexia in cases of non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction?

A

Paracetamol

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69
Q

What medications are used to promote duct closure in patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Indomethacin or ibuprofen

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70
Q

What are the common features of rosacea?

A

Nose, cheeks, forehead; flushing, erythema, telangiectasia; papules and pustules

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71
Q

What should be tried if analgesia doesn’t help with endometriosis?

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill or a progestogen

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72
Q

What do the risk factors for ovarian cancer relate to?

A

Increased number of ovulations

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73
Q

What can amoxicillin lead to in the presence of URTI symptoms?

A

Rash or glandular fever

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74
Q

What should a person with Addisons’ who vomits do?

A

Take IM hydrocortisone until vomiting stops

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75
Q

What is given for stabilization of the cardiac membrane in the presence of hyperkalaemia?

A

IV calcium gluconate

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76
Q

What can be given to slow the deterioration of visual loss in dry AMD?

A

High dose of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, zinc

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77
Q

What is the investigation of choice for reflux nephropathy?

A

Micturating cystography

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78
Q

What does the ABG triad for chronic CO2 retention consist of?

A

Respiratory acidosis, hypoxemia, normal or increased pH

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79
Q

What are the characteristics of a strong suspicion of PE?

A

Normal pH, High pCO2, High HCO3

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80
Q

What symptoms are associated with acute viral labyrinthitis?

A

Sudden onset horizontal nystagmus, hearing disturbances, nausea, vomiting, vertigo

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81
Q

What potential side effect may be caused by sulphonylureas?

A

Cholestasis

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82
Q

Why is whole breast radiotherapy recommended after a wide-local excision?

A

To reduce the risk of recurrence by around two-thirds

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83
Q

How are most intracranial aneurysms treated following a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

With a coil by an interventional neuroradiologist

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84
Q

What deficits does Alzheimer’s Dementia produce on the Addenbrookes Cognitive Exam?

A

Global deficits

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85
Q

What may arise in a lung cavity developed secondary to previous tuberculosis?

A

An aspergilloma

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86
Q

What treatment is first-line for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

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87
Q

What is the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics?

A

ACE inhibitors/A2RBs

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88
Q

What is a common cause of speech and language delay in young children?

A

Glue ear

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89
Q

What is the classic presentation of episcleritis?

A

A red eye that is not painful

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90
Q

How does a meibomian cyst present?

A

As a firm painless lump in the eyelid

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91
Q

What are the symptoms of anterior uveitis?

A

Acute pain, red eye, photophobia, small pupil, reduced visual acuity

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92
Q

Why is prescribing anaesthetic eye drops not advisable for patients with corneal ulcer?

A

It may cause more harm and delay healing of the ulcer

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93
Q

What is the recommended action for acute sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Urgent referral to ENT for audiology assessment and brain MRI

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94
Q

How can ovulation be confirmed?

A

Take the serum progesterone level 7 days prior to the expected next period

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95
Q

What potential side effect may aromatase inhibitors cause?

A

Osteoporosis

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96
Q

What is the empirical antibiotic of choice for neutropenic sepsis?

A

Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

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97
Q

What potential side effect may macrolides cause?

A

Prolongation of the QT interval

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98
Q

At what age does atopic eczema typically present in children?

A

Before the age of 2 years

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99
Q

What is the typical duration for Finasteride treatment of BPH before results are seen?

A

6 months

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100
Q

What is the risk associated with unopposed oestrogen in HRT?

A

Increased risk of endometrial cancer

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101
Q

What adverse effect may result from the concurrent use of methotrexate and trimethoprim containing antibiotics?

A

Bone marrow suppression and severe or fatal pancytopenia

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102
Q

What is the high-risk association of Clindamycin treatment?

A

C. difficile infection

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103
Q

What condition should be considered if a newborn lacks red reflex?

A

Retinoblastoma

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104
Q

What should be done if 2 pills are missed in week 3 of COCP?

A

Finish the pills in the current pack and start a new pack immediately

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105
Q

By what age should children be able to combine two words?

A

2 years

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106
Q

When must Levonorgestrel be taken?

A

Within 72 hours of UPSI

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107
Q

What are the characteristics of Scleritis?

A

Classically painful, may be associated with reduced visual acuity and blurred vision

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108
Q

Is Trimethoprim considered safe to use during breastfeeding?

A

Yes

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109
Q

What is a red flag symptom related to polyps?

A

Unilateral polyps

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110
Q

How long are ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms typically treated for?

A

6 months

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111
Q

What medication may be used to treat bile-acid malabsorption?

A

Cholestyramine

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112
Q

Is Campylobacter infection often self-limiting?

A

Yes

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113
Q

What may be indicated if Campylobacter infection is severe?

A

Treatment with clarithromycin

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114
Q

What is the most common feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Headache

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115
Q

What is the recommended age for achieving sitting without support?

A

7-8 months, refer if not achieved by 12 months

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116
Q

What is the best first line management for NAFLD?

A

Weight loss

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117
Q

What is an important complication of femoral hernias?

A

Strangulation

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118
Q

What are the red flags for endophthalmitis following intraocular surgery?

A

Red eye, pain, visual loss

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119
Q

What is the recommended treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women?

A

Topical fusidic acid

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120
Q

What potential side effect may loop diuretics cause?

A

Ototoxicity

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121
Q

What action should be taken if a 2-level DVT Wells score is ≥ 2 points?

A

Arrange a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within 4 hours

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122
Q

What is the first line radiological investigation for suspected stroke?

A

Non-contrast CT head scan

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123
Q

How can local anesthetic toxicity be treated?

A

With IV 20% lipid emulsion

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124
Q

In which patients is azithromycin prophylaxis recommended for COPD?

A

Patients who meet certain criteria and continue to have exacerbations

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125
Q

What investigation is required for adult patients with a hydrocele to exclude underlying causes?

A

Ultrasound

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126
Q

What is the antiplatelet choice for managing NSTEMI conservatively?

A

Not specified

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127
Q

What is the recommended medication combination for a patient with aspirin and high bleeding risk?

A

Clopidogrel

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128
Q

What is the first-line treatment for polycythaemia vera to maintain normal haemoglobin levels?

A

Venesection

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129
Q

What is the recommended treatment for acute presentation of atrial fibrillation with signs of haemodynamic instability?

A

Electrical cardioversion

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130
Q

What condition is indicated by fluctuating confusion/consciousness?

A

Subdural haematoma

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131
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for thyrotoxicosis with a tender goitre?

A

Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis

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132
Q

What is the cause of cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

Compression of the ulnar nerve

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133
Q

What should be considered in the differential diagnosis for women presenting with a breast lump and a history of trauma?

A

Fat necrosis

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134
Q

What type of hearing loss does presbycusis present with?

A

Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss

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135
Q

What may cause painless, monocular loss of vision in Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Lens dislocation

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136
Q

What requires an immediate CT scan to assess for raised ICP and tentorial herniation?

A

A unilaterally dilated pupil that responds sluggishly to light

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137
Q

What can erythromycin cause in terms of cardiac function?

A

Prolonged QT interval

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138
Q

What is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Breech presentation

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139
Q

What should be added if blood glucose targets are not met with diet/metformin in gestational diabetes?

A

Insulin

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140
Q

What are the treatment options for latent tuberculosis?

A

3 months of isoniazid with pyridoxine and rifampicin, or 6 months of isoniazid with pyridoxine

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141
Q

What is refractory anaphylaxis defined as?

A

Respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persisting despite 2 doses of IM adrenaline

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142
Q

What should be added for COPD patients still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA?

A

LABA + ICS

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143
Q

What are the symptoms of delirium?

A

Impairment of conscious level, often involves psychotic symptoms

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144
Q

What is the transfusion threshold for patients with ACS?

A

80 g/L

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145
Q

What should be considered in Raynaud’s phenomenon with extremity ischaemia?

A

Buerger’s disease

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146
Q

What are the symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Ocular pain, decreased visual acuity, worse with mydriasis

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147
Q

What should be added for COPD patients still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and having asthma/steroid responsive features?

A

LABA + ICS

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148
Q

What are the symptoms of delirium?

A

Impairment of conscious level and often involves psychotic symptoms

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149
Q

What are the symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Ocular pain, decreased visual acuity, worse with mydriasis, haloes around lights

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150
Q

What is the differential for raised paraproteins in the blood?

A

MGUS

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151
Q

What is cavernosal blood gas analysis useful for?

A

Investigation for priapism

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152
Q

What is the difference between affect and mood?

A

Affect is the current, observed emotional state, whereas mood is the more pervasive, predominant state over a longer period

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153
Q

What does the ‘M rule’ stand for in primary biliary cholangitis?

A

IgM, anti-Mitochondrial antibodies (M2 subtype), Middle aged females

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154
Q

Is antibiotic prophylaxis routinely recommended in the UK for dental and other procedures to prevent infective endocarditis?

A

No

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155
Q

What is recommended for the acute management of renal colic?

A

Use of IM diclofenac

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156
Q

What are the characteristics of Broca’s dysphasia?

A

Speech non-fluent, comprehension normal, repetition impaired

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157
Q

What can rifampicin cause?

A

Orange tears/urine

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158
Q

What is the first-line treatment for lichen planus?

A

Potent topical steroids

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159
Q

What is a contraindication to statin therapy?

A

Pregnancy

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160
Q

Is sickle cell anemia an autosomal recessive condition?

A

Yes

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161
Q

What can precipitate thrombotic crises in sickle cell?

A

Infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation

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162
Q

What does tangentiality refer to?

A

Wandering from a topic without returning to it

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163
Q

Is new LBBB always pathological?

A

Yes, it is always pathological and never normal

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164
Q

What is a potential consequence of obesity with abnormal LFTs?

A

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

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165
Q

What may Methotrexate cause as a side effect?

A

Lung fibrosis

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166
Q

What can lead to complete heart block following a myocardial infarction?

A

Right coronary artery lesion

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167
Q

What is a life-threatening side effect of clozapine?

A

Agranulocytosis/neutropenia

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168
Q

What should be given to all patients with Bell’s palsy within 72 hours of onset?

A

Oral prednisolone

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169
Q

How should otitis externa in diabetics be treated to cover Pseudomonas?

A

With ciprofloxacin

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170
Q

Do pleural plaques undergo malignant change and require follow-up?

A

No, they are benign and do not undergo malignant change

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171
Q

What does a pizza pie appearance on fundoscopy indicate?

A

Chorioretinitis

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172
Q

What commonly causes an itchy rash affecting the face and scalp distribution?

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

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173
Q

What should be done if the cervical cancer screening sample is hrHPV positive and cytologically normal?

A

Repeat smear at 12 months

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174
Q

What should be assessed following ocular trauma to determine the need for immediate decompression?

A

Orbital compartment syndrome

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175
Q

How long should the symptoms be present to make a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

3 months

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176
Q

When should stages 1 & 2 of chronic kidney disease be diagnosed?

A

If supporting evidence accompanies eGFR

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177
Q

At what age does bow legs in a child under 3 usually resolve?

A

By the age of 4 years

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178
Q

What may topical corticosteroids cause in patients with darker skin?

A

Patchy depigmentation

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179
Q

How can the risk of peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid be reduced?

A

By prescribing pyridoxine

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180
Q

What can cause blurring of vision years after cataract surgery?

A

Posterior capsule opacification

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181
Q

When is pure tone audiometry typically done in most areas of the UK?

A

At school entry

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182
Q

What may cause pelvic pain in women around ovulation with no PV bleeding?

A

Mittelschmerz

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183
Q

What does an ACE inhibitor cause?

A

Hyperkalaemia

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184
Q

What does allopurinol increase the risk of?

A

Azathioprine toxicity

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185
Q

What is the association of SSRIs?

A

Hyponatremia

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186
Q

What should be added for an adult with uncontrolled asthma by SABA?

A

Low-dose ICS

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187
Q

What is Kocher’s criteria used for in children?

A

Assessing the probability of septic arthritis

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188
Q

What should be tried if metformin is not tolerated due to GI side-effects?

A

Modified-release formulation

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189
Q

How should oral bisphosphonates be taken?

A

With plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast (or another oral medication); the patient should stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking

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190
Q

What is recommended for symptom control in non-CF bronchiectasis?

A

Inspiratory muscle training + postural drainage

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191
Q

What is the increased risk associated with antipsychotics in the elderly?

A

Stroke and VTE (Venous Thromboembolism)

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192
Q

What are PDE 5 inhibitors contraindicated by?

A

Nitrates and nicorandil

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193
Q

What is caput succedaneum?

A

Scalp edema that crosses suture lines

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194
Q

What is the Barlow manoeuvre used for?

A

Attempted dislocation of a newborn’s femoral head

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195
Q

What are the characteristics of acute epiglottitis?

A

Rapid onset fever, stridor, and drooling

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196
Q

What testing is recommended in patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease to aid diagnosis of liver fibrosis?

A

Enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) testing

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197
Q

What does amaurosis fugax affect?

A

The retinal/ophthalmic artery

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198
Q

What are typically raised in iron-deficiency anaemia?

A

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) + transferrin levels

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199
Q

What are topical aluminium chloride preparations first-line for?

A

Hyperhidrosis

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200
Q

What is prominent and severe in Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Mucosal involvement

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201
Q

What is Ulipristal (EllaOne)?

A

A type of emergency hormonal contraception

202
Q

How long after UPSI can Ulipristal (EllaOne) be used?

A

Up to 120 hours

203
Q

What type of inhibitor is imatinib in chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

204
Q

What should ‘fasciculations’ make you think of?

A

Motor neuron disease

205
Q

What are the symptoms of retinitis pigmentosa?

A

Night blindness and tunnel vision

206
Q

In which condition should ACE-inhibitors be avoided?

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

207
Q

What is associated with optic neuritis?

A

Relative afferent pupillary defect

208
Q

What do low-level gonadotrophins indicate in secondary amenorrhoea?

A

Hypothalamic causes

209
Q

When do capillary haemangiomas develop rapidly?

A

In the first month of life

210
Q

What can cause bilateral gritty, sore eyes?

A

Dry eye syndrome

211
Q

What does a section 135 allow the police to do?

A

Remove a person from their property for a mental health assessment or treatment

212
Q

Why are tricyclic antidepressants used less commonly now for depression?

A

Due to the danger in overdose

213
Q

What severe side effect may antipsychotics cause?

A

Akathisia (severe restlessness)

214
Q

What is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer?

A

Human papillomavirus infection (particularly 16, 18 & 33)

215
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity?

A

Diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, coarse tremor, weakness, seizures, muscle twitches, and blurred vision

216
Q

What can cause pruritus?

A

Chronic kidney disease

217
Q

What can quinine cause?

A

Drug-induced thrombocytopenia

218
Q

What are the signs of central retinal vein occlusion?

A

Sudden painless loss of vision, severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy

219
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for the development of Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

GORD (Gastroesophageal reflux disease)

220
Q

Under what supervision should oral isotretinoin be used?

A

Specialist supervision

221
Q

What are Gottron’s papules seen in?

A

Dermatomyositis

222
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

Facial muscle spasm triggered by percussion over the facial nerve in hypocalcemia

223
Q

What is the first-line treatment for syphilis?

A

Intramuscular benzathine penicillin

224
Q

What is the first-line treatment for seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Topical ketoconazole

225
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution?

A

Oral fidaxomicin

226
Q

What can constipation cause in the elderly?

A

Delirium

227
Q

What are the characteristics of otosclerosis?

A

Conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, positive family history

228
Q

What type of disorder is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

229
Q

What does ocular pain, tearing, and photophobia with corneal uptake of fluorescein indicate?

A

Corneal ulcer

230
Q

How is blepharitis initially managed?

A

With good lid hygiene techniques

231
Q

What should be added for poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor?

A

A calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic

232
Q

Who should be treated for threadworms?

A

Household contacts, even if they have no symptoms

233
Q

What is the treatment of choice for biliary colic?

A

Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy

234
Q

What should be tried if a formula-fed baby is suspected of having mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance?

A

Extensive hydrolysed formula

235
Q

How is symphysis-fundal height measured after 20 weeks of gestation?

A

In centimeters, which is equal to the gestation in weeks

236
Q

What is the first-line management for patients with hypercalcaemia?

A

IV fluid therapy

237
Q

What may patients allergic to aspirin also react to?

A

Sulfasalazine

238
Q

What are the main components for managing sickle cell crisis?

A

Analgesia, oxygen, and IV fluids

239
Q

What symptoms warrant urgent ENT evaluation for a deeper airway infection?

A

Acute sore throat with no obvious oropharyngeal signs, inability to swallow, sepsis, or trismus

240
Q

What is a useful test of exocrine function in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Faecal elastase

241
Q

What should be considered in the case of disproportionate microcytic anemia?

A

Beta-thalassemia trait

242
Q

What are the symptoms associated with vestibular neuronitis?

A

Recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours to days, associated with nausea

243
Q

What is a stye?

A

Infection of the glands of the eyelids

244
Q

What is the first-line management for young females with small fibroadenomas?

A

Watchful waiting without biopsy

245
Q

What is Marfan’s syndrome associated with?

A

Repeated pneumothoraces

246
Q

What is the treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Oral aciclovir and corticosteroids

247
Q

What are the symptoms of osteomalacia?

A

Bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (waddling gait)

248
Q

What condition is associated with an acute onset of tear-drop scaly papules on trunk and limbs?

A

Guttate psoriasis

249
Q

What is rouleaux formation seen in?

A

Myeloma

250
Q

Why can sickle cell anaemia and other haemoglobinopathies give falsely low HbA1c readings?

A

Due to the decreased lifespan of RBCs

251
Q

What is the diagnosis for a young woman who has stopped seeing her old friends due to fear of criticism?

A

Avoidant personality disorder

252
Q

What are the typical symptoms of conversion disorder?

A

Loss of motor or sensory function, possibly caused by stress

253
Q

What is the first-line medication used to prevent angina attacks?

A

Beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker

254
Q

What should be done in the case of major bleeding while on warfarin?

A

Stop warfarin, give intravenous vitamin K 5mg, prothrombin complex concentrate

255
Q

What causes hyperacute transplant rejection?

A

Pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens

256
Q

What are the NICE guidelines for NSTEMI/unstable angina based on?

A

6 month mortality risk

257
Q

What are the features of ankylosing spondylitis known as the ‘A’s?

A

Apical fibrosis, Anterior uveitis, Aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, Amyloidosis

258
Q

What deficiency can isoniazid therapy cause?

A

Vitamin B6 deficiency causing peripheral neuropathy

259
Q

What is the first-line treatment for otitis externa?

A

Topical antibiotics with or without steroid

260
Q

In which patients is Donepezil generally avoided?

A

Patients with bradycardia

261
Q

What is the initial management for epistaxis?

A

Adequate first aid - pinch the nasal ala (nostrils) firmly and lean forward for 20 minutes

262
Q

How can spider naevi be differentiated from telangiectasia?

A

By pressing on them and watching them fill

263
Q

How does spider naevi fill when pressed?

A

From the centre

264
Q

How does telangiectasia fill when pressed?

A

From the edge

265
Q

What is the classic presentation of IgA nephropathy?

A

Visible haematuria following a recent URTI

266
Q

What is the investigation of choice for suspected aortic dissection?

A

CT angiography (depending on stability of patient)

267
Q

What is the primary use of Propofol?

A

As an antiemetic for patients at high risk of post-operative vomiting

268
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of the Progestogen-only pill?

A

Irregular vaginal bleeding

269
Q

What is the breakthrough dose in relation to the daily morphine dose?

A

1/6th

270
Q

What is the recommended treatment for flexural psoriasis?

A

Topical steroid

271
Q

What causes secondary hypothyroidism?

A

Pituitary failure

272
Q

What is a potential side effect of Lithium?

A

Tremor

273
Q

What is the initial management for suspected pulmonary embolism?

A

Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

274
Q

What are common complications of seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Otitis externa and blepharitis

275
Q

What is the management for children under 5 years with nocturnal enuresis?

A

Reassurance and advice

276
Q

What does a left homonymous hemianopia indicate?

A

Visual field defect to the left, i.e. lesion of right optic tract

277
Q

When can plasma paracetamol levels obtained less than 4 hours since ingestion be interpreted?

A

Cannot be interpreted

278
Q

How is mild acute pancreatitis defined?

A

By the absence of both organ failure and local complications

279
Q

What are the medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage secondary to uterine atony?

A

Oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol

280
Q

What worsens lateral epicondylitis?

A

Resisted wrist extension/suppination while elbow extended

281
Q

What is the recommended action if chorioretinitis is suspected?

A

Must do an HIV test

282
Q

What is the diagnostic maneuver for BPPV?

A

Dix-Hallpike maneuver

283
Q

What additional medication is recommended for poorly controlled hypertension if already taking a calcium channel blocker?

A

Add an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic

284
Q

What is Curling’s ulcer?

A

A stress ulcer that can occur after severe burns

285
Q

How is NSTEMI management determined?

A

By a risk assessment score such as GRACE

286
Q

What is the recommendation for surgery/sulfonylureas on the day of surgery?

A

Omit on the day of surgery, except for morning surgery in patients who take BD - they can have the afternoon dose

287
Q

What is the preferable medication for rate control in atrial fibrillation?

A

Beta blockers

288
Q

What examination is required for patients taking hydroxychloroquine long-term?

A

Baseline ophthalmologic examination

289
Q

What should be done during testicular torsion surgery to prevent torsion of the other testes?

A

Fixation of both testes

290
Q

What neurotransmitter changes result in alcohol withdrawal?

A

Decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission

291
Q

What type of condition is Bell’s palsy?

A

Lower motor neuron condition

292
Q

What is the likely cause of stepwise deterioration in cognitive function?

A

Vascular dementia

293
Q

What is the recommended procedure if a colonic tumor is associated with perforation in an emergency setting?

A

End colostomy

294
Q

What are the common gastrointestinal side-effects associated with metformin?

A

Diarrhoea and bloating

295
Q

What is infrapatellar bursitis associated with?

A

Kneeling, as seen in clergymen

296
Q

What condition is indicated by a patient’s inability to complete sentences?

A

Severe asthma

297
Q

What is Gower’s sign seen in?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

298
Q

What symptoms does a positive Dix–Hallpike test recreate?

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

299
Q

What may diltiazem cause the precipitation of?

A

Digoxin toxicity

300
Q

What side effect may pioglitazone cause?

A

Fluid retention

301
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Memantine?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

302
Q

What is an important form of acute dystonic reaction caused by antipsychotics?

A
303
Q

What is an important form of acute dystonic reaction caused by antipsychotics?

A

Oculogyric crisis

304
Q

What is the characteristic metabolic disturbance in Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

305
Q

What adverse effect can Ciprofloxacin lead to?

A

Tendinopathy

306
Q

What can GPs use Section 4 of the Mental Health Act for?

A

To transfer a patient as an emergency for psychiatric assessment

307
Q

What are the causes of scarring alopecia?

A
  • Trauma/burns
  • Radiotherapy
  • Lichen planus
  • Discoid lupus
  • Tinea capitis
308
Q

What adverse effect can Tamoxifen cause?

A

Hot flushes

309
Q

What does RUQ pain with raised inflammatory markers in a patient with a history of gallstones point to?

A

Acute cholecystitis or cholangitis rather than biliary colic

310
Q

What is the recommended dose of adrenaline to give during advanced ALS?

A

1mg

311
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Dermatophyte nail infections?

A

Use oral terbinafine

312
Q

How long should antidepressants be continued after remission of symptoms to decrease the risk of relapse?

A

At least 6 months

313
Q

What is the most common organism causing a UTI in both children and adults?

A

E. coli

314
Q

When is the anomaly scan done during antenatal care?

A

At 18-20 + 6 weeks

315
Q

What are port wine stains?

A

Vascular birthmarks that do not spontaneously resolve

316
Q

What are polyurethane condoms used for?

A

Latex allergies

317
Q

What may thiazides cause in relation to digoxin?

A

Precipitation of digoxin toxicity

318
Q

How is surgical excision of sebaceous cyst performed to prevent reoccurrence?

A

As a whole structure

319
Q

What is the time until effectiveness for contraceptives if not used on the first day of the period?

A
  • Instant: IUD
  • 2 days: POP
  • 7 days: COC, injection, implant, IUS
320
Q

What is the significance of drusen in the context of eye health?

A

Dry macular degeneration

321
Q

What are the side effects of calcium channel blockers?

A
  • Headache
  • Flushing
  • Ankle edema
322
Q

How can Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) be diagnosed in adults?

A
  • Increase in creatinine by more than 26µmol/L in 48 hours
  • Increase in creatinine by more than 50% in 7 days
  • Decrease in urine output to less than 0.5ml/kg/hr for more than 6 hours
323
Q

What can a right coronary infarct cause after infarction?

A

Arrhythmias due to the supply to the AV node

324
Q

What is a characteristic sign of aortic regurgitation?

A

Wide pulse pressure

325
Q

In what condition can caffeine be used as a respiratory stimulant in newborn babies?

A

Apnea of prematurity

326
Q

What medical condition is anterior uveitis associated with?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

327
Q

What medication should be added for a newly diagnosed hypertensive patient under 55 years old?

A

An ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker

328
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Finasteride?

A

It inhibits 5 alpha reductase, which converts testosterone into DHT

329
Q

What type of blood product has the highest risk of bacterial contamination?

A

Platelet transfusions

330
Q

What does progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia suggest?

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

331
Q

What is the recommended score to help identify outpatients with a pulmonary embolism?

A

Pulmonary Embolism Severity Index (PESI) score

332
Q

What is calcitonin a marker for in medullary thyroid cancer?

A

Tumour marker

333
Q

How does retinitis pigmentosa classically present on fundoscopy?

A

Black bone-spicule pigmentation

334
Q

How could orbital lymphoma present?

A

Like a chronic unilateral conjunctivitis resistant to treatment

335
Q

Should amiodarone be avoided in breastfeeding?

A

Yes

336
Q

What may precipitate Pompholyx eczema?

A
  • Humidity (e.g. sweating)
  • High temperatures
337
Q

What should be given to patients undergoing fibrinolysis for a STEMI?

A

An antithrombin drug

338
Q

What does somatization refer to?

A

Symptoms

339
Q

What does hypochondria refer to?

A

Cancer

340
Q

How long is the warfarin treatment for provoked venous thromboembolism?

A

3 months

341
Q

How long is the warfarin treatment for unprovoked venous thromboembolism?

A

6 months

342
Q

What do small testes in precocious puberty indicate?

A

An adrenal cause of the symptoms

343
Q

What complication can result from damage to parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery?

A

Hypocalcemia

344
Q

What is carbamazepine?

A

A P450 enzyme inducer

345
Q

What condition should be considered with raised FSH/LH in primary amenorrhea?

A

Gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. Turner’s syndrome)

346
Q

What visual changes can be secondary to Viagra?

A

Blue vision

347
Q

What visual changes can be secondary to digoxin?

A

Yellow-green vision

348
Q

What condition is commonly associated with anterior uveitis?

A

HLA-B27 conditions

349
Q

What does red eye, gritty sensation, swollen conjunctivae, and discharge crusting the eyelashes indicate?

A

Conjunctivitis

350
Q

What is idarucizumab used for?

A

Reversal agent for dabigatran

351
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Type IV

352
Q

What medication should be added for a newly diagnosed patient of black African or African–Caribbean origin with hypertension?

A

Calcium channel blocker

353
Q

What is the medical term for the sensation of smelling roses without losing consciousness?

A

Focal aware seizure

354
Q

What further tests are offered to women with a ‘higher chance’ combined or quadruple test result?

A

NIPT or diagnostic tests (amniocentesis, CVS)

355
Q

What do statins inhibit in hepatic cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

356
Q

What is the positive predictive value (PPV) of FOB in colorectal cancer screening?

A

5-15%

357
Q

What is the adjuvant hormonal therapy for ER +ve breast cancer in post-menopausal women?

A

Anastrozole

358
Q

What are the three symptoms of Charcot’s cholangitis triad?

A
  • Fever
  • Jaundice
  • Right upper quadrant pain
359
Q

What is an epididymal cyst a cause of?

A

Scrotal swelling

360
Q

What is the most commonly performed operation for rectal tumors, except in lower rectal tumors?

A

Anterior resection

361
Q

How long can a Section 136 be used for?

A

Up to 24 hours

362
Q

What does pulmonary fibrosis cause in spirometry?

A

Restrictive pattern (FEV1:FVC >70%, decreased FVC)

363
Q

What does pulmonary fibrosis cause in gas exchange?

A

Impaired gas exchange (reduced TLCO)

364
Q

Are antibiotics indicated in uncomplicated acute sinusitis?

A

No

365
Q

What may loop diuretics cause?

A

Hypokalemia

366
Q

In ALS, what is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?

A

30:2

367
Q

What may trigger an exacerbation in psoriasis?

A

Lithium

368
Q

What is the next step in cervical cancer screening if the 1st repeat smear at 12 months is hrHPV negative?

A

Return to routine recall

369
Q

What are antihistone antibodies associated with?

A

Drug-induced lupus

370
Q

What does the presence of Auer rods on a blood film strongly suggest?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

371
Q

When should the dose of metformin be reviewed according to NICE recommendations?

A

If the creatinine is > 130 micromol/l (or eGFR < 45 ml/min)

372
Q

When should metformin be stopped according to NICE recommendations?

A

If the creatinine is > 150 micromol/l (or eGFR < 30 ml/min)

373
Q

What is the most common reason for total hip replacements to be revised?

A

Aseptic loosening

374
Q

What does maternal mortality include?

A

Any death in pregnancy and labor as well as up to six weeks postpartum

375
Q

What extrapyramidal side effect can metoclopramide cause, mainly as the earliest symptom?

A

Acute dystonia

376
Q

What may antipsychotics cause?

A

Tardive dyskinesia

377
Q

What is associated with schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?

A

DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation)

378
Q

What is telogen effluvium?

A

The loss and thinning of hair in response to severe stress

379
Q

What surgical procedure is recommended for caecal, ascending, or proximal transverse colon cancer?

A

Right hemicolectomy

380
Q

In autosomal recessive conditions, if both parents are carriers, what is the chance of having an affected child?

A

25%

381
Q

What should be checked before starting treatment with Azathioprine?

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency (TPMT)

382
Q

What is the consequence of pneumothorax in relation to deep sea diving?

A

A lifelong ban

383
Q

What condition is associated with micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers?

A

Edward’s syndrome

384
Q

What may laughter trigger in individuals with cataplexy?

A

Fall/collapse

385
Q

What are the characteristics of Fitzpatrick skin type 1?

A
  • Pale skin
  • Freckles
  • Blue eyes
  • Red hair
  • Always burns, never tans
386
Q

What condition may volatile liquid anaesthetics cause?

A

Malignant hyperthermia

387
Q

What are the common features associated with fragile X syndrome in a young boy?

A
  • Learning difficulties
  • Macrocephaly
  • Large ears
  • Macro-orchidism
388
Q

What is chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis?

A

A benign, painful nodule on the ear, more common in men than women

389
Q

What does an anion gap of > 14 mmol/L typically indicate?

A

A raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

390
Q

What can obesity cause in children?

A

Snoring

391
Q

What is a known effect of beta-blockers on plaque psoriasis?

A

Exacerbation

392
Q

Is it considered safe to use cephalosporins while breastfeeding?

A

Yes

393
Q

What is a common symptom of organophosphate insecticide poisoning?

A

Bradycardia

394
Q

What are the features of Grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy?

A
  • Tortuosity
  • Silver wiring
395
Q

What route is no longer recommended for giving drugs in ALS if IV access cannot be achieved?

A

Tracheal route

396
Q

What is a characteristic feature of benign rolandic epilepsy?

A

Partial seizures at night

397
Q

What is the antidote for opiate overdose?

A

Naloxone

398
Q

What is the Rinne result in conductive hearing loss?

A

Bone conduction > air conduction in affected ear, Air conduction > bone conduction in unaffected ear

399
Q

What is the Weber result in conductive hearing loss?

A

Lateralises to affected ear

400
Q

What are Brushfield spots associated with?

A

Down syndrome

401
Q

What is the probable condition with short stature and primary amenorrhoea?

A

Turner’s syndrome

402
Q

What are the characteristics of Cotard syndrome?

A

Believing they are dead or non-existent

403
Q

What syndrome is associated with a webbed neck, pulmonary stenosis, ptosis, and short stature?

A

Noonan syndrome

404
Q

What surgical procedure is indicated for rectal cancer on the anal verge?

A

Abdomino-perineal excision of rectum

405
Q

What type of COX inhibitor is aspirin?

A

Non-reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor

406
Q

What may cause anal ulceration?

A

Nicorandil

407
Q

What are the characteristic features of Patau syndrome?

A
  • Microcephaly
  • Small eyes
  • Low-set ears
  • Cleft lip
  • Polydactyly
408
Q

What treatment may be useful for keloid scarring?

A

Intra-lesional steroids

409
Q

What may anthracyclines (e.g. doxorubicin) cause?

A

Cardiomyopathy

410
Q

What are the GCS components and their respective points?

A
  • Motor (6 points)
  • Verbal (5 points)
  • Eye opening (4 points)
411
Q

What mnemonic can be used to remember GCS components and their points?

A

‘654…MoVE’

412
Q

What type of conditions are autosomal recessive conditions?

A

‘Metabolic’

413
Q

What are the exceptions for autosomal recessive conditions?

A

‘Inherited ataxias’

414
Q

What type of conditions are autosomal dominant conditions?

A

‘Structural’

415
Q

What are the exceptions for autosomal dominant conditions?

A

‘Gilbert’s, hyperlipidemia type II’

416
Q

What is Capgras syndrome?

A

The delusion that a friend or partner has been replaced by an identical-looking impostor

417
Q

When is an intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) particularly useful?

A

When patients have underlying medical problems (e.g. hypertension) and/or menstrual problems such as heavy periods

418
Q

What is the recommended management for congenital inguinal hernias?

A

Repair ASAP

419
Q

What is the recommended management for congenital umbilical hernias?

A

Manage conservatively

420
Q

Who should be referred to gynaecology for investigation?

A

All patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea

421
Q

What are non-hormonal methods that may help vasomotor symptoms of menopause?

A
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
  • Venlafaxine
422
Q

When should Methotrexate be stopped before conception in both men and women?

A

At least 6 months before conception

423
Q

What should be corrected before giving bisphosphonates?

A

Hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency

424
Q

What is oesophageal adenocarcinoma associated with?

A

GORD or Barrett’s

425
Q

When is external pacing used for symptomatic bradycardia?

A

If atropine fails

426
Q

How may acute lymphoblastic leukaemia present?

A

With haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications due to DIC

427
Q

When should circumcision not be performed for infants with hypospadias?

A

The foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure

428
Q

What does metabolic acidosis with low pCO2 indicate?

A

Respiratory compensation

429
Q

What is the combined oral contraceptive pill a protective factor for?

A

Endometrial cancer

430
Q

What infection classically triggers Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

431
Q

When should patients ≤ 25 years started on an SSRI be reviewed?

A

After 1 week

432
Q

What are women with diabetes considered at high risk of conceiving?

A

Child with neural tube defects

433
Q

How can premature menopause be diagnosed in women?

A
  • Irregular menstrual cycle before age 45
  • Blood tests showing raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol
434
Q

What is the management required for bronchiolitis in children?

A

Supportive management only, no antibiotics

435
Q

What are the typical symptoms associated with phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • Sweating
  • Headaches
  • Palpitations
  • Severe hypertension
436
Q

What is the indication for surgical management in the context of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Presence of a foetal heartbeat on ultrasound

437
Q

What condition is suggested by the presence of raised haemoglobin, plethoric appearance, pruritus, splenomegaly, and hypertension?

A

Polycythaemia vera

438
Q

What should children with new-onset purpura be immediately referred for investigations to exclude?

A

ALL and meningococcal disease

439
Q

What is the first-line management for ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Exercise regimes and NSAIDs

440
Q

What should a patient suspected of TIA within 7 days receive immediately?

A

300mg aspirin

441
Q

What is the initial empirical therapy for meningitis if > 3 months of age?

A

IV 3rd generation cephalosporin

442
Q

What is the first-line treatment for pediatric migraine?

A

Ibuprofen

443
Q

What should pregnant women with a BMI >= 30 kg/m² receive daily until the 13th week of pregnancy?

A

5 mg folic acid

444
Q

When are topical antibiotics recommended for stye?

A

If associated with conjunctivitis

445
Q

What is the first-line pharmacological treatment of COPD?

A

SABA or SAMA

446
Q

What are the early signs of necrotising enterocolitis?

A
  • Feeding intolerance
  • Abdominal distension
  • Bloody stools
447
Q

What is a good first-line anti-emetic for intracranial causes of nausea and vomiting?

A

Cyclizine

448
Q

What is tested as the first step in cervical smear samples?

A

hrHPV

449
Q

What is the initial approach for acute onset of atrial fibrillation if ≥ 48 hours?

A

Rate control initially, then delay cardioversion until maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for a minimum of 3 weeks

450
Q

What is gastroschisis associated with, in contrast to exomphalos?

A

Stand alone bowel condition

451
Q

What should be avoided in patients co-prescribed warfarin?

A

SSRIs

452
Q

At what age is a child assumed competent to consent for treatment?

A

Over 16 years old

453
Q

Is intermittent squint in newborns less than 3 months normal and needs investigation?

A

No, it is normal and does not need investigation

454
Q

What is the initial management for atrial fibrillation if present for 48 hours or more?

A

Rate control initially, then delay cardioversion until maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for a minimum of 3 weeks.

455
Q

What is gastroschisis associated with in contrast to exomphalos?

A

Stand alone bowel condition.

456
Q

What should be avoided in patients co-prescribed warfarin?

A

SSRIs.

457
Q

At what age is a child assumed competent to consent for treatment?

A

Over 16 years old.

458
Q

Is intermittent squint in newborns less than 3 months normal and needs investigation?

A

No, it is normal and does not need investigation.

459
Q

What is contraindicated for ventricular tachycardia?

A

Verapamil.

460
Q

What are the characteristics of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

(Paradoxically) prolonged APTT + low platelets.

461
Q

What is the treatment for life-threatening C. difficile infection?

A

ORAL vancomycin and IV metronidazole.

462
Q

What condition should be considered if dysphagia affects both solids and liquids from the start?

A

Achalasia.

463
Q

What should be given to patients with an uncertain tetanus vaccination history?

A

Booster vaccine + immunoglobulin, unless the wound is very minor and < 6 hours old.

464
Q

What is the screening test for adult polycystic kidney disease?

A

Ultrasound.

465
Q

What daily supplement should all pregnant women take?

A

10 micrograms of vitamin D.

466
Q

At what stage of pregnancy are women offered the pertussis vaccine?

A

Between 16-32 weeks.

467
Q

What should patients with ascites and low protein concentration be given as prophylaxis?

A

Oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin.

468
Q

What is Citalopram associated with?

A

Dose-dependent QT interval prolongation.

469
Q

When should proton pump inhibitors be stopped before an upper GI endoscopy?

A

2 weeks before.

470
Q

What is St John’s Wort’s effect on the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A

Reduces effectiveness.

471
Q

Is jaundice in the first 24 hours always pathological?

A

Yes.

472
Q

What are the recommended medications for hiccups in palliative care?

A

Chlorpromazine or haloperidol.

473
Q

How long is the Mirena intrauterine system licensed for use as the progesterone component of HRT?

A

4 years.

474
Q

What is the first-line treatment for pneumonia in children who are not allergic to penicillin?

A

Amoxicillin.

475
Q

What should all patients be offered following an ACS?

A

Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent).

476
Q

What type of drug is an ACE inhibitor?

A

It is an antihypertensive drug.

477
Q

What is the main function of a beta-blocker?

A

To reduce blood pressure and treat heart conditions.

478
Q

What is the primary purpose of a statin?

A

To lower cholesterol levels.

479
Q

What should be given to reduce the risk of GI bleeding when combining SSRI and NSAID?

A

A PPI (Proton Pump Inhibitor).

480
Q

What is a potential side effect of GnRH agonists like goserelin used in prostate cancer management?

A

Gynaecomastia.

481
Q

Why is diclofenac now contraindicated with any form of cardiovascular disease?

A

Due to increased cardiovascular risk.

482
Q

What is the characteristic feature of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Abrupt onset of bilateral early morning stiffness in the over 60s.

483
Q

Why should a child with suspected acute epiglottitis not undergo an oral or throat examination?

A

To avoid triggering airway obstruction.

484
Q

What risk can PPIs increase in patients?

A

Osteoporosis and fractures.

485
Q

What is a risk factor for macular degeneration?

A

Smoking.

486
Q

What is the first-line treatment for moderate/severe obstructive sleep apnoea following weight loss?

A

CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure).

487
Q

How is Trichomonas vaginalis treated?

A

With oral metronidazole.

488
Q

What is an important and common interaction with statins?

A

Erythromycin/clarithromycin.

489
Q

What are the requirements for a urea breath test?

A

No antibiotics in the past 4 weeks, no antisecretory drugs (e.g. PPI) in the past 2 weeks.

490
Q

When should allopurinol be offered to patients?

A

After their first attack of gout.

491
Q

What condition is associated with no mucosal involvement?

A

Bullous pemphigoid.

492
Q

What condition is associated with mucosal involvement?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris.

493
Q

What is a loop ileostomy used for?

A

To defunction the colon and protect an anastomosis.

494
Q

What are actinic keratoses?

A

Premalignant skin lesions.

495
Q

What may varicoceles be associated with?

A

Infertility.

496
Q

What is the triad of the shaken baby syndrome?

A

Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy.

497
Q

What is a possible differential diagnosis for a child presenting with petechiae and no fever?

A

ITP (Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura).

498
Q

What would favor a calcium channel blocker over a thiazide for a patient with hypertension already taking an ACE inhibitor and a history of gout?

A

A history of gout.

499
Q

What are the first-line antibodies tested for coeliac disease?

A

Tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

500
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for psychotic disorders?

A

Family history.