High risk pregnancies Flashcards

1
Q

Epidemiology and aetiology of diabetes in pregnancy

A
  • 0.5-5% of pregnancies
  • Women of south Asian and African-Caribbean origin at greater risk
  • Obesity increases risk of type 2 and gestational diabetes
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2
Q

How can gestational diabetes be prevented?

A
  • Preconception advice and optimisation of glycaemic control prior to pregnancy
  • Weight loss
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3
Q

Pathogenesis of gestational diabetes

A
  • Placental hormones e.g. human placental lactogen, cortisol and growth hormone promote insulin resistance
  • Normally beta cells can compensate but this is impaired in pregnancy so hyperglycaemia occurs
  • The rate of complications increases with increasing HbA1c levels
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4
Q

Complications of diabetes in pregnancy

A

Maternal:

  • Hyperglycaemia, ketoacidosis, increasing insulin requirements or need to start insulin, hypoglycaemia, nephropathy, retinopathy, pre-eclampsia, increased risk of caesarean section

Foetal:

  • insulin resistance, vomiting in early pregnancy, microvascular disease, often related to iatrogenic intervention

Babies born to mothers with high blood glucose have high basal levels of insulin to cope and are at risk of hypoglycaemia after birth. This results in hypoxia and erythropoiesis occurs which can cause polycythaemia and jaundice

The complications listed are those that occur in diabetics with poor control

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5
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes during pregnancy

A

Previous GD: offer 2-hour 75g OGTT ASAP after booking (whether 1st/2nd trimester) and further test at 24-28w if the results of first are normal

Screening for gestational diabetes at 24-28 weeks in women at risk done with oral glucose tolerance test

Women at risk:

  • BMI >30
  • Previous big baby
  • FHx of diabetes
  • Previous hx of gestational diabetes

Investigations: 🎶 5,6,7,8 🎶

  • Oral GTT after woman has fasted overnight
  • Serum glucose measured and the test is repeated after 2hrs following drinking a solution containing 75g glucose. Gestational diabetes diagnosed if blood glucose is >5.6mmol/L after fasting or >7.8mmol/L after 2hrs
  • Threshold values are lower than for diabetes outside of pregnancy due to increase risk
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6
Q

Management of diabetes during pregnancy

A

Newly diagnosed - seen in clinic within 7 days

  • High levels of folic acid protect against glucose induced foetal anomalies
  • Lifestyle changes initially then if no changes started on metformin
  • Medication: metformin or glibencamide are safe to use

Add insulin if metforminor glibencamide does not control DM

  • Insulin: requirements increase during pregnancy peaking around 36 weeks. A sudden increase in insulin requirements indicates placental insufficiency so delivery is induced to prevent stillbirth
  • Delivery: induced at 38 weeks to prevent risk of late stillbirth. Macrosomic babies delivered by c-section to reduce risk of shoulder dystocia
  • Post natal: insulin requirements rapidly decrease so women with gestational diabetes immediately stop medication and those with pre-existing diabetes go back to normal regimen

Ideal blood glucose levels: 3.5-5.9mmol/L fasted and <7.8mmol/L 1hr after food

Measure blood glucose 4x day

Diagnosed > joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within 1 week

  • glucose > 7: insulin
  • glucose 6-6.9 + symptomatic (macrosomia/ polyhydramnios): insulin
  • glucose 6-6.9 + asymptomatic: exercise > metformin > insulin
  • delivery: good control + no macrosomia: 38+6; recued movements: surveillance.
  • delivery: good control + macrosomic: induce at 36 weeks
  • delivery: non-reactive CTG: C-section
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7
Q

Define gestational diabetes

A

Defined as glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy. However, changing definition to being diagnosed in 24-28w of gestation that is clearly not overt diabetes

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8
Q

Epidemiology of gestational diabetes

A

Ep: affects 1/20 pregnancies

87.5% have GDM, 7.5% have T1DM, 5% have T2DM

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9
Q

Hypertension in pregnancy

A

Common, classified according to blood pressure

  • Mild = 140-149/90-99 mmHg
  • Moderate = 150-159/100-109 mmHg
  • Severe = >160/110 mmHg

Severe hypertension can cause placental abrupt ion, foetal growth restriction, cerebrovascular accident and maternal and foetal death.

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10
Q

Terms used to describe HTN in pregnancy with or without proteinuria

A
  • Without proteinuria = gestational hypertension
  • With proteinuria = pre-eclampsia
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11
Q

Outline types of HTN in pregnancy

A

Chronic HTN: onset <20 weeks gestation, foetal growth restriction, super-imposed pre-eclampsia, en organ disease, placental abruption, PTB

Gestational HTN: >20 weeks gestation, no significant proetinuria, cause unknown but may be due to abnormal placentation, low risk of maternal or foetal complications

Pre-eclampsia: significant proetinuria, >20 weeks gestation, due to abnormal placentation, failure of invasion of he spinal arteries by trophoblasts, maternal BP increases to compensate for increased vascular resistance, endothelial damage causes proteinuria, causes IUGR, prematurity, eclampsia, HELLP, disseminate intravascular coagulation, maternal and foetal death

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12
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

Hypertension developing after 20 weeks gestation in association with significant proteinuria

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13
Q

What is eclampsia?

A
  • Onset of generalised seizures in a woman with pre-eclampsia
  • Only 1/3 of women with eclampsia have hypertension and proteinuria before their first eclamptic seizure
  • Caused by a loss of cerebral auto regulation which leads to increased blood flow, vessel permeability and oedema
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14
Q

Epidemiology of pre-eclampsia

A
  • 10-15% pregnancies affected by hypertension
  • Eclampsia affects 1% of women with pre-eclampsia in UK, <1% of cases are fatal
  • Higher incidence in low and middle income countries
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15
Q

Women at risk of hypertension in pregnancy

A
  • Hx of hypertension in pregnancy
  • Diabetes
  • CKD
  • Autoimmune disease
  • First pregnancy or >10yrs between pregnancies
  • 40+
  • BMI >35
  • Multiple pregnancy
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16
Q

What medication is recommended for women at risk of HTN in pregnancy?

A

Aspirin is recommended from week 12

Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2 and reverses vasoconstriction that underlies hypertension and improves endothelial function

This reduces the risk of developing pre-eclampsia by 10%

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17
Q

Clinical features of pre-eclampsia

A

Hypertension usually asymptomatic so screening is vital

Symptoms and signs are related to increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid into interstitial spaces: blurred vision, headaches, seizures, swollen face, epigastric pain, vomiting and others

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18
Q

Investigations for HTN in pregnancy

A
  • Dipstick analysis to test for proteinuria
  • Proteinuria in the context of new onset hypertension indicates pre-eclampsia
  • Bloods: to identify end organ damage and HELLP syndrome
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19
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A
  • Haemolysis
  • Elevated liver enzymes
  • Low platelets

Affects 15% of women with pre-eclampsia and has a 25% mortality rate. Mortality is related to liver rupture and cerebral oedema and haemorrhage

Other features of HELLP: renal function impaired, PT and APTT prolonged in the presence of disseminated intravascular coagulation

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20
Q

Clinical features of HELLP

A

RUQ pain

N&V

Headache

Malaise

  • haemolysis (schistocytes, burr cells, polychromasia on smear are diagnostic),
  • elevated liver enzymes (ALT > 70)
  • low platelets (<100,000/microlitre).
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21
Q

Monitoring of HTN in pregnancy

A
  • Chronic hypertension and mild - moderate gestational hypertension are managed in community. USS used to determine foetal growth and amniotic fluid volume at 28 & 32 weeks in cases of chronic hypertension.
  • Severe hypertension and pre-eclampsia are monitored in hospital. Blood pressure checked 4x a day and bloods repeated every 3-4 days to detect HELLP syndrome
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22
Q

Timing of delivery in women with HTN

A
  • Chronic and gestation hypertension have a good prognosis so delivery after 37 weeks
  • Pre-eclampsia delivery after 34 weeks reduces risk of adverse events
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23
Q

Prognosis for foetus following eclamptic seizure

A

Foetal mortality 30% after eclamptic seizure

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24
Q

Medication used to treat eclamptic seizures?

A

Magnesium sulfate IV

Do not use diazepam, phenytoin or other anticonvulsants as an alternative to magnesium sulfate in women wit

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25
Q

Recommended blood pressure medication for women with pre-eclampsia

A

Labetolol 1st line

Nifedipine for those who cannot take abetolol

Methyldopa if the above are not suitable

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26
Q

Timing of birth in women with pre-eclampsia

A

Any adverse features such as

inability to control BP, maternals sats <90%, HELLP syndrome, neurological features, placental abruption, abnormal CTG or reversed end diastolic flow in the umbilical artery

Warrant planned early birth

Timing: <34 weeks continue surveillance unless delivery is absolutely necessary, 34-36 weeks is acceptable, 37 weeks+ initiate birth within 24-48hrs

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27
Q

What is obstetric cholestasis?

A

Liver disease unique to pregnancy, develops in third trimester, resolves after delivery

Slows or stops the normal flow of bile from the gallbladder causing jaundice

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28
Q

Pathogenesis of obstetric cholestasis

A

Increased oestrogen levels impair sulphation of bile acids and inhibit a bile acid export pump in hepatocytes.

This blocks excretion of bile salts and these are deposited in the skin which causes itching and damages hepatocytes.

This can also occur if women take the combined pill because it contains oestrogen

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29
Q

Clinical features of obstetric cholestasis

A
  • Severe itching due to cholestasis, especially on palms and soles
  • Skin excoriation due to scratching
  • Dark urine
  • Pale stools
  • Jaundice
  • Steatorrhoea
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30
Q

Diagnosis and investigations of obstetric cholestasis

A

Unexplained abnormalities in liver enzymes but other causes should be excluded

*symptoms can develop before LFTs are deranged so if symptoms are present, repeat bloods every 1-2 weeks

Investigations:

  • LFTs: increased ALT and GGT, normal pregnancy adjusted ALP and bilirubin
  • Bile acids: most specific test for obstetric cholestasis - raised
  • Viral hepatitis screen to exclude othr causes
  • Autoimmune hepatitis screen to exclude other causes
  • Liver USS: exclude FLD and gallstones
  • BP and urinalysis: exclude pre-eclampsia
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31
Q

What happens to ALP levels during pregnancy

A

Serum ALP levels are elevated in late pregnancy, usually in the third trimester. This increase is mainly due to the production of placental isoenzyme rather than elevation of hepatic isoenzyme

Levels in a pregnant woman can be as much as 2x the normal upper limit

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32
Q

What is acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a rare, potentially fatal complication that occurs in the third trimester or early postpartum period. Although the exact pathogenesis is unknown, this disease has been linked to an abnormality in fetal fatty acid metabolism

Often confused with HELLP

Causes hypoglycaemia, marked increase in serum iron acid conc. and coagulopathy

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33
Q

Managing obstetric cholestasis

A

Supportive, medication to relieve symptoms

Delivery of the baby is the only known cure

Medication:

  • Topical emollients with menthol to block the action of histamine which is responsible for activating C fibres which transmit the sensation of itch
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid 500mg 2-3x a day relieves itching and improves liver function by binding bile acids but not licensed for use in pregnancy
  • If clotting abnormal: vitamin k
  • Vitamin K given to babies when born to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

Delivery:

  • Increased risk of meconium and foetal distress so women give birth in obstetric unit
  • Delivery induced after 37 weeks because of the risk of stillbirth

Prognosis:

  • Improves with delivery, can take time so repeat LFTs at least 10 days after delivery
  • 90% risk of recurrence in future pregnancy
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34
Q

What is polyhydramnios?

A

Excess amniotic fluid

Affects 1% of pregnancies

Classification: according to single deepest pool depth

  • Mild: 8-11cm
  • Moderate polyhydramnios: 12-15cm
  • Severe: >16cm
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35
Q

What causes polyhydramnios?

A

Mixture of maternal and foetal factors

Maternal

  • Gestational diabetes
  • Cardiac failure
  • Haemolytic disease of the newborn
  • Placental chorioangioma
  • 80% unexplained

Foetal

  • TORCH infections
  • Oesophageal/ duodenal atresia
  • Diaphragmatic hernia
  • Anencephaly
  • Twin to twin transfusion syndrone
  • Chromosomal abnormalities
  • Skeletal dysplasia
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36
Q

Clinical features of polyhydramnios

A
  • Higher than expected symphysis fundal height
  • Maternal abdo skin is stretched and shiny
  • Tense uterus
  • Difficult to palpate parts of the foetus
  • Splinting of diaphragm by enlarged uterus causes SOB
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37
Q

Investigations into polyhydramnios

A
  • USS to measure amniotic fluid pool depth
  • Amniocentesis offered if generic anomaly suspected
  • Maternal blood checked for evidence of TORCH infection
  • Oral GTT to screen for diabetes
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38
Q

Management and prognosis of polyhydramnios

A

Management:

  • Mild and asymptomatic cases managed expectantly - no intervention
  • Medication: indometacin decreases volume of fluid by reducing urine production by the foetal kidneys but it causes premature closure of DA
  • Surgery: amniocentesis but procedure carries risk of miscarriage and fluid builds up again

Prognosis:

  • Risks of increased uterine stretch:
    • Preterm labour
    • Abruption
    • Rupture of the membranes
    • Post partum haemorrhage
    • Unstable foetal lie
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39
Q

What is oligohydramnios?

A

Reduced amniotic fluid, <500ml at 32-36w

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40
Q

Causes of oligohydramnios

A

Foetal: urethral obstruction, bilateral renal agenesis, ARPKD, chromosomal abnormalities, multiple pregnancies

Maternal: late term, PROM, pre-eclampsia, placental insufficiency

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41
Q

What is Potter’s sequence?

A

Describes the typical physical appearance caused by pressure in utero due to oligohydramnios. It can occur in conditions such as infantile polycystic kidney disease, renal hypoplasia, and obstructive uropathy

Urine is not produced >> oligohydramnios >> baby is squashed in utero and does not develop properly

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42
Q

Investigations into oligohydramnios

A

Abnormal size for dates, ultrasound, Amniotic fluid index (<5cm)

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43
Q

What are the most common causes of perinatal infection?

A

TORCH organisms

Toxoplasmosis

Other: syphilis, varicella-zoster, parvovirus

Rubella

Cytomegalovirus

Herpes

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44
Q

Discuss perinatal toxoplasmosis infection

A
  • Infection with toxoplasma gondii is asymptomatic in the mother in most cases but can present as flu with lymphadenopathy
  • Infections can cause miscarriage especially if within the first 10 weeks of pregnancy
  • Can cause hydrocephalus and intellectual disability in the foetus, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis which can cause blindness later in life
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45
Q

Discuss perinatal infection with varicella-zoster

A
  • Presents in the mother with fever, malaise and a maculopapular rash (chickenpox)
  • No increased risk of miscarriage
  • Can cause foetal varicella syndrome which presents with scarring in dermatomal distribution, eye defects, microcephaly, cortical atrophy, learning disability, bladder and bowel sphincter dysfunction
  • Mortality rate of 30% in babies
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46
Q

Discuss perinatal parvovirus infection

A
  • Asymptomatic in the mother in 20-30% of cases, otherwise presents with a non vesicular (slapped cheek) facial rash, malaise, sore throat, mild fever, arthropathy, anaemia and anaplastic crisis
  • No increased risk of congenital abnormalities
  • Hydrous fetalis (accumulation of fluid in two or more foetal compartments) is a complication of foetal anaemia and cardiac failure
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47
Q

Which virus causes slapped cheek sydrome?

A

Parvovirus 19

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48
Q

Discuss perinatal rubella infection

A
  • Presents in mother with malaise, fever, conjunctivitis, coryzal symptoms, macular rash, arthropathy, post auricular lymphadenopathy
  • Foetal complications: miscarriage, stillbirth, growth restriction, deafness, microcephaly, cataracts, cardiac defects
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49
Q

Discuss perinatal CMV infection

A
  • Most cases asymptomatic in mother but can cause flu like symptoms and lymphadenopathy
  • Foetal complications: hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, intracranial calcification, hearing loss, chorioretinitis, microcephaly and learning disability, growth restriction and stillbirth
  • Of the 5-15% of infected babies symptomatic at birth, 30% die and 80% have serious consequences. 10-15% of asymptomatic babies will develop auditory, visual or neurological defects
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50
Q

Discuss perinatal herpes infection

A
  • Mother: painful genital ulcers, encephalitis, hepatitis and skin lesions if disseminated herpes
  • No increased risk of miscarriage
  • Morbidity <2% with antivirals
  • 70% of cases there is disseminated disease with or without CNS involvement

Herpes can be contracted as the baby passes through birth canal causing baby to be irritable, blisters over body, difficulty breathing, jaundice and easy bleeding

Can be fatal if not treated with antivirals

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51
Q

Investigations for perinatal infection

A
  • HIV+ women have viral load and CD4 levels checked once a trimester
  • Women with hep C or B have viral load assessed early in pregnancy
  • Positive immunoglobulin M antibodies to a TORCH organisms are diagnostic of a recent infection and increasing IgG confirms acute disease
  • Amniocentesis and viral detection by PCR or culture confirm foetal infection
  • Serial USS scans to screen for complications of infection
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52
Q

Management of perinatal infections

A

Aim is to reduce transmission

Termination offered to women with TORCH infections depending on the organism, gestation when infection occurred and presence of foetal abnormalities

Medication:

  • HIV: women continue antiretrovirals throughout pregnancy. Cabergoline is used to suppress lactation. Some retrovirals cause gestational diabetes
  • Hepatitis: antivirals used in third trimester for women with hep B and high viral load. No safe treatment for hep C in pregnancy
  • Toxoplasmosis: spiramycin given prophylactically to reduce risk of parasite transmission, doesn’t reduce risk of foetal anomalies. If foetus is infected, pyrimethamine and spiramycin are given to reduce severity.
    • *pyrimethamine is teratogenic so not used in first trimester. It also antagonises folate so supplements are needed to prevent folate deficiency
  • Parvovirus: no drug treatment available, intrauterine infusions to treat foetal anaemia
  • Rubella: no drug treatment available, cochlear implants and cardiac surgery may be needed after birth
  • CMV: antivirals given to babies with congenital infection to reduce risk of hearing loss
  • Herpes: primary disease treated with aciclovir and given from 36 weeks to reduce need for c-section
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53
Q

Do all women with HIV have to have c-section?

A

No

HIV: viral load <50 RNA copies/mL at 36 weeks means woman can have vaginal delivery otherwise c-section. If load >1000 IV zidovudine is given

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54
Q

Woman has a primary herpes infection in 3rd trimester - how is delivery managed

A

Indication for c-section

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55
Q

Breastfeeding with perinatal infections

A
  • HIV: avoid in high income countries
  • Hep B and C: encouraged
  • TORCH: all ok apart from CMV but even in CMV transmission is rare
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56
Q

What vaccinations are given to babies born to mothers with neonatal infection

A
  • Babies born to mothers with hep B receive the first dose of the vaccine and a dose of hep B immunoglobulin within 12hrs birth
  • Further doses of hep B vaccine given at 1 and 6mo
  • No vaccinations against TORCH
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57
Q

Why do babies infected with parvovirus suffer with anaemia?

A

Parvovirus suppresses EPO

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58
Q

Treatment of perinatal parvovirus infection

A

No treatment

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59
Q

Pregnant woman has come into contact with varicella zoster virus - what is done?

A

VZV IgG antibodies:– if not immune (IgG negative give VZIG ASAP - effective up to 10d after exposure

Acyclocir within 24h of rash

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60
Q

Most common TORCH infection?

A

CMV - affects 1/100

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61
Q

What % of pregnant women in the UK have a BMI >30?

A

20%

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62
Q

What are the risks of maternal obesity?

A

To mother:

  • Gestational diabetes
  • Gestational HTN and pre-eclampsia
  • Difficulty with epidurals
  • Wound infection
  • PPH
  • VTE

To foetus:

  • Miscarriage
  • Foetal anomalies: neural tube defects, cardiac defects, omphalocele
  • Stillbirth
  • Prematurity
  • Shoulder dystocia
  • Childhood obesity
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63
Q

What advice, regarding weight, is given to obese pregnant women?

A

Advised to maintain weight neutral pregnancy meaning they don’t lose or gain weight but light exercise and diet modification is recommended

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64
Q

Pregnant woman is obese, what investigations are done?

A
  • USS to screen for abnormalities, assess growth
  • Blood pressure and urinalysis for pre-eclampsia
  • Organ GTT for gestational diabetes
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65
Q

Management of delivery in obese women

A
  • BMI >35 - babies delivered in obstetric led centres
  • BMI >40 - heparin injections for at least 1 week after delivery
66
Q

What is the most common neurological condition in pregnant women?

A

Epilepsy

Affects 0.5% women of childbearing age

67
Q

Investigations for epilepsy in pregnancy

A

First seizure - measure blood pressure and urinalysis for proteinuria

  • first seizure in pregnancy is eclampsia until proven otherwise

Bloods to check platelets, renal and liver function, coagulation tests, glucose levels and calcium concentration, drug screen to check for other causes of seizure

CT or MRI head to exclude mass lesions or haemorrhage

EEG if epilepsy suspected

68
Q

Management of epilepsy in pregnancy

A
  • Balance between teratogenic risk of drugs and worsening seizure control
  • Medication: many are teratogens and cause neural tube defects, cleft lip and palate, cardiac defects
  • Sodium valproate has the highest rate of genetic abnormalities, twice that of other anti-epileptics
  • Carmabazepine and lamotrigene have a 2-2.5% incidence of malformations
  • Generally drugs should be continued because risk of seizure is higher than risk to foetus but women on sodium valproate are encouraged to switch to a different drug before pregnancy. If sodium valproate is the only drug that works, the dose is split over the day
  • All anti-epileptics have the potential to cause foetal anticonvulsant syndrome
69
Q

Women prescribed liver enzyme inducing drugs such as carbamazepine are given what from 36 weeks?

A

Vitamin K from 36 weeks to reduce risk of vitamin K dependant clotting deficiency

70
Q

What is advised, regarding delivery, in women with epilepsy?

A

No indication for c-section but seizures can be triggered by pain, anxiety and lack of sleep so early epidural may be beneficial

71
Q

Epidemiology of maternal cardiac disease

A
  • Increasing as more women with congenital cardiac disease are surviving into adulthood
  • In high income countries 80% of cardiac disease in pregnancy is congenital
  • Outside of Europe and North America rheumatic heart disease is the most common cause of cardiovascular disease
72
Q

Causes of maternal cardiac disease

A
  • Rising incidence of obesity leading to cardiovascular disease
  • Peripartum cardiomyopathy is a dilated cardiomyopathy, cause unknown, causes loss of cardiac function. Unique to pregnancy and presents between the last month of pregnancy and 6 months after birth
73
Q

Why might cardiac disease become apparent during pregnancy?

A

Increased strain on the heart

Circulating volume inceases so heart is working overtime

74
Q

Investigating cardiac disease in pregnancy

A

Maternal:

ECG: palpitations or arrhythmias

Echo: ventricular and valve function

Exercise testing: Functional capacity and heart failure

Foetal:

  • Cardiac USS: detect congenital heart disease
  • Genetic testing: to identify abnormalities associated with congenital heart disease e.g. Down’s
  • Serial assessment of foetal growth from 28 weeks: detect placental dysfunction and foetal compromise (increased risk if mother has cardiac disease)
75
Q

Management of heart disease in pregnancy

A

Extent of intervention depends on extent of cardiac function

Medication: aspirin used prophylactically in women with coronary artery disease

Women with metallic heart valves take warfarin outside of pregnancy but it is a teratogenic so it is avoided. Heparin is safe but thrombosis more likely

Delivery:

  • Takes place in obstetric led departments
  • Vaginal delivery preferred
76
Q

Prognosis of heart disease in pregnancy

A

Outcome is good if woman has left to right shunt and minimal symptoms but those with stenotic valves and reduces ventricular function do less well

Pulmonary hypertension is a contraindication to pregnancy because the maternal mortality rate is 30-50%

77
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A
  • Severe form of anaemia caused by incompatibility between maternal and foetal blood.
  • Caused by passage of maternal RBC across the placenta to foetus.
  • The antibodies are created in response to previous exposure to incompatible blood

Most commonly the rhesus group of antigens but also ABO and Kell and Duffy antigens

78
Q

Epidemiology of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • Atypical antibodies are detected in 1.2% of pregnancies but only 0.4% are clinically relevant
  • Severe haemolytic disease of the newborn affects 7-8 per 100,000 pregnancies
79
Q

Pathophysiology of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

IgM antibodies are produced when cells of the maternal immune system are exposed to a foreign antigen on foetal RBCs

This doesn’t affect the current pregnancy because the mothers immune system is exposed to a small amount of antigen but the immune system is sensitised for subsequent pregnancies.

This results in immune mediated haemolysis in the foetus which results in haemolytic disease of the newborn

  • Most commonly caused by rhesus antibodies which are produced when a rhesus negative woman becomes pregnant by a rhesus positive father and the foetus is rhesus positive
  • The rhesus incompatibility between the mother and the foetus causes immune sensitisation in the mother in the first pregnancy and destruction of foetal RBCs in future pregnancies - IgG antibodies cross the placenta and mediate this
80
Q

Clinical features of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • Anaemia
  • Increased erythropoiesis and hepatosplenomegaly
  • Jaundice arising from hyperbilirubinaemia
  • Oedema and polyhydramnios as a consequence of high output heart failure
  • In severe cases foetal death can occur
81
Q

Diagnosis of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • Blood group screening to detect atypical antibodies if offered at the first booking visit and 28 weeks
  • Women with clinically significant antibodies are referred
82
Q

Investigation for haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • Antibody titres are used to guide management
  • Significantly high antibodies warrants foetal genotype being determined
  • To detect anaemia in at-risk pregnancies Doppler USS is used weekly to measure blood velocity in middle cerebral artery of foetus
  • An anaemia foetus tries to maintain oxygen delivery by increasing cardiac output
  • Blood viscosity of the foetus is also reduced because of decreased RBCs
  • The combination of an increased CO and decreased viscosity results in high blood flow velocity in the middle cerebral artery
  • If the velocity is >1.5x the median for gestation a sample of foetal blood is taken from the umbilical cord or hepatic vein to determine Hb concentration
83
Q

Management and prognosis of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Management:

  • Depends on gestation and degree of foetal compromise
  • Delivery: brought forward when the risk of the foetus remaining in the womb > risk of prematurity - usually at 37-38 weeks
  • Intrauterine transfusion: can be carried out weekly to treat significant anaemia but not used after 35 weeks as delivery more appropriate at that time

Prognosis:

  • 50% of affected babies have normal Hb
  • 25% have moderate disease requiring transfusion
  • 25% have severe disease
  • Survival is 84-90%
  • <40% survival if cardiac failure is not reversed in utero
84
Q

What risks are associated with multiple pregnancy?

A
  • Increased risk of most pregnancy related complications such as pre-eclampsia, growth restriction and pre-term birth
  • Twin-twin transfusion syndrome if a single placenta is shared
85
Q

Epidemiology of multiple pregnancy

A
  • Multiple births = 1-2% of all but proportion is increasing due to fertility treatments
  • 1 in 80 naturally conceived pregnancies produce twins and 1 in 6400 produce triplets
86
Q

Discuss chronionicity and amnionicity

A

Refers to whether a multiple pregnacy shares amniotic sac and foetal part of placenta (chorion)

  • Chorionicity - can be dichorionic or monochorionic - refers to whether the foetuses have one or two placenta between them
  • The chorionicity and amnionicity of monozygotic twins is determined by the time at which the zygote splits, or cleaves. If the cleavage occurs by day 3, you will have two separate blastocysts, and therefore, two sites of implantation, resulting in dichorionic-diamniotic (di-di) twins
  • This can be determined using USS before 14 weeks gestation
87
Q

How is chorionicity diagnosed?

A

USS

Dichorionic = 2 placentas (in twin pregnancy) - accounts for 80%

Monochorionic = 1 shared placenta - 20% and higher risk

88
Q

Investigations during multiple pregnancies

A
  • Combined test is used to screen for Down’s syndrome in twin pregnancies whereas nuchal thickness and maternal age are use in triplet pregnancies - both performed <14 weeks
  • Serum screening for downs is used if the nuchal thickness can’t be measured
  • It’s difficult to measure foetal growth in multiple pregnancy so serial ultrasound is used from 24 weeks - a size discordance of >25% is clinically significant
  • Monitoring is more frequent in early stages of monochorionic pregnancies because of twin-twin transfusion syndrome so fortnightly USS are carried out from 16-24 weeks
89
Q

Management of multiple pregnancies

A

Management:

  • Managed in obstetric led units
  • Monoamniotic and triplet pregnancies are referred to tertiary foetal medicine units

Delivery:

  • Preterm delivery is common
  • 60% twins arrive before 35 weeks and 75% of triplets
  • To reduce risk of late stillbirth delivery is induced at 36 weeks
  • Labour is induced for twin pregnancies when the first twin presents cephalically regardless of how the other one is presenting
  • Monochorionic monoamniotic twins are the exception - they should be delivered at 32 weeks by c-section to reduce risk of cord entanglement
90
Q

Incidence of multiple pregnancy

A

Twine 15:1000

Triplets 1:5000

Quads 1: 360 000

1 in 34 children in the UK are a twin or triplet

91
Q

Cause of multiple pregnancy

A
  • Prev. mutliple pregnancy
  • Family hx
  • Increasing parity
  • Increasing maternal age
  • Assisted reproduction
92
Q

Risks to foetus in multiple pregnancy

A

IUGR

PTB

Cerebral palsy

Disability

Miscarriage

93
Q

When does embryonic split occur in dichorionic, dizygotic twins?

A

Early on - at the morula stage before implantation has occurred and the the two separate blastocysts implant

94
Q

When does the split occur in monochorionic diamniotic twins?

A

3-8 days after fertilisation

Single placenta but 2 amniotic sacs

95
Q

When does the split occur in monochorionic monoamniotic twins?

A

8-13 days after fertilisation

Same amniotic sac, same placenta

96
Q

Absence of lambda sign on USS in mutliple pregnancy indicates what?

A

Monochorionicity

97
Q

When is delivery offered in multiple pregnancy?

A

37-38 weeks

98
Q

What are the maternal risks of multiple pregnancy?

A

HG

Anaemia

Pre-eclampsia (5x risk)

Gestational DM

Antepartum and PPH

Polyhydramnios

Placenta praevia

Operative delivery

99
Q

What is twin to twin transfusion syndrome?

A

Caused by shared circulation in monochronionic twins

Affects 8-25% of monochorionic pregnancies

80% mortality of not treated

Caused by abberant vascular anastomosies in the placenta which redistibute foetal blood from one to the other but not in the opposite direction

One twin receives too much blood and the other too little

100
Q

Monitoring and treatment of twin to twin transfusion syndrome

A

MC twins monitored by USS every 2 weeks from 16-24 weeks

Then monitored every 3 weeks until delivery

Treatment:

  • Laser ablation of placental anastamoses
  • Selective foetice if the condtion is not retractable
101
Q

Consequence of twin to twin transfusion syndrome

A

Donor: hypovolaemia, anaemia, oligohydramnios, IUGR

Recipient: hypervolaemia, polycythaemia, large bladder, polyhydramnios, cardiac overload and failure, foetal hydrop

Recipient twin is at greater risk than donor

102
Q

Discuss delivery in mutliple pregnancy

A

Second twin is at higher risk of perinatal mortality

Usually induced at 38 weeks although many deliver before then

Foetal distress is more common so CTG is carried out - esp. after first baby has been born due to risk of foetal hypoxia in the second

Increased risk of uterine atony so oxytocin and syntometrine infusion recommended

103
Q

Antenatal management of diabetes

A

Pre pregnancy: counselling - achievement of optimal control

Screening for retinopathy, nephropathy, heart defects

5mg folic acid due to increased risk of NTD

Antenatal: monitor glucose 4x daily, monthly HbA1c measurements (normal = <39mmol or 5.7%), dietician review

Anomaly scan: those with DM are at 5-10x increased risk of foetal anomalies depending on control

104
Q

When is DM screened for in pregnancy?

A

24-28 weeks for those at risk: obese, previous macrosomia, FHx DM

Unless hx of GD in which case screening ASAP (@booking visit)

5678 rule

<5.6mmol/L when fasted, <7.8mmol/L after OGTT

Threshold values are lower than DM outside of pregnancy due to the risk of DM during pregnancy

105
Q

Timing of delivery in mothers with DM

A

Some advise IOL at 38-39 weeks

Vaginal delivery preferred, CTG advised

Consider elective CS if EFW >4.5kg

Shoulder dystocia is more common in DM regardless of EFW

Sliding scale used during labour - insulin rate depends on blood glucose

106
Q

What is the blood glucose range aimed for in the post partum period?

A

4-9mmol/L

*50% of those with GD develop T2DM over the next 25yrs

107
Q

Normal BP changes during pregnancy

A

BP decreases until 24 weeks due to decreased systemic vascular resistance

BP increases after 24 weeks due to increased stroke volume

BP decreases again after delivery but may peak again 3-4 days PP

108
Q

What is considered HTN in pregnancy?

A

>140/90 OR an increase of >30/>15 compared to booking visit

BP should be measured sitting or supine with a left sided tilt because the uterus can compress the IVC and give a falsely low BP reading

109
Q

How can development of pre-eclampsia be predicted?

A
  • 7x increased risk if PMHx in previous pregnancy
  • Low PAPP = increased risk of pre-eclampsia
  • USS uterine artery dopplers at 11-13 weeks or 22-24 weeks are predictive of early onset/ severe pre-eclampsia
110
Q

Are most cases of pre-eclampsia symptomatic?

A

No - most are asymptomatic

111
Q

Headache types associated with pre-eclampsia

A

Frontal headache associated with flashing lights

112
Q

Oedema of which part of the body is associated with pre-eclampsia?

A

Face

113
Q

What are the signs of pre-eclampsia?

A

HTN: >140/90

>0.3g proteinuria/ 24hrs

Hyperreflexia

IUGR

114
Q

Management of pre-eclampsia

A

Cure = delivery of placenta

Oupatient monitoring is suitable if BP <160/110, no or low proteinuria and asymptomatic

Mild-moderate pre-eclampsia: <160/110 with significant proteinuria and no complications

Admission advised when proteinuria occurs:

  • 4x BP measurement daily
  • 24hr urine collection for protein
  • 2x weekly doppler
  • 2x monthly USS

If BP >160/110 - start labetolol

115
Q

Management of severe pre-eclampsia

A

BP >160/110 and presence of significant proteinuria (>1g/ 24hrs or 2++ on urine dip)

  • Involve senior midwives and obstetricians

Indications for immediate delivery:

  • Worsening thrombocytopenia, worsening liver or renal function
  • Severe maternal symptoms e.g. RUQ pain and derranged LFTs
  • HELLP
  • Eclampsia
  • Foetal distress
116
Q

Medication choices in pre-eclampsia

A

Labetolol = first line

Nifedipine if labetolol not tolerated

Methyldopa = 3rd line

If expediting delivery and <34 weeks: give steroids

117
Q

What is used to treat and prevent eclamptic seizures?

A

Magnesium sulfate

⚠️ Can cause resp. depression - this is counteracted by calcium gluconate

Treatment is continued for 24hrs after delivery or 24hrs after last seizure

If seizures continue, give diazepam

118
Q

What are the signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A

Confusion, loss of reflexes, resp. depression and hypotension

119
Q

What % of women with pre-eclampsia are affected by HELLP?

A

15%

25% mortality rate due to liver rupture, cerebral oedema and haemorrhage

120
Q

How does pre-eclampsia cause HELLP?

A

HTN causes endothelial dysfunction and vasoconstriction

Vasoconstriction leads to Na+ retention and this causes vasospasm

Vasospasm reduces blood flow to liver causing injury, elevated liver enzymes and RUQ pain which is essentially hepatic angina

Low platelet levels due to endothelial injury which causes clot formation which consumes platelets

121
Q

3 key symptoms of HELLP

A
  1. Epigastric or RUQ pain: liver hypoxia
  2. N&V
  3. Tea coloured urine: haemolysis
122
Q

Woman presents with itching, dark urine and pale stools

On examination there are excoriation marks but no rash

Diagnosis?

A

Obstetric cholestasis

Typically causes itchy palms

1/3 have a FHx of obstetric cholestasis

Diagnosis of exlusion when bloods show abnormal LFTs, raised bile acids in the absence of any other cause of hepatic dysfunction

123
Q

What are the blood results in obstetric cholestasis?

A

Bile acids: raised = most specific

LFTs: ALT raised, GGT raised

PTT increased because there is reduced fat absorption therefore less vitamin K available to make clotting factors

Liver USS needed to exclude gallstones and acute fatty liver of pregnancy

124
Q

What are the risks of having obstetric cholestasis?

A

Vitamin K deficiency - PPH

PTB

Stillbirth

Increased risk of meconium stained liqour

125
Q

Is obstetric cholestasis common?

A

Faily - affects 0.5-1% pregnancies

126
Q

What is given to women with obstetric cholestasis?

A

Water soluble vitamin K

Topical menthol emollients

Ursodeoxycholic acid

90% risk of recurrence in future pregnancies

127
Q

How is polyhydramnios categorised?

A

Single deepest amniotic pool depth

Mild: 8-11cm

Moderate: 12-15cm

Severe: >16cm

128
Q

Classical appearance of an woman with polyhydramnios

A

Higher than expected SFH

Maternal skin stretched and shiny

Tense uterus

Difficult to palpate foetus

SOB due to enlarged uterus

129
Q

Management of polyhydarmnios depending on severity

A

Mild/ aysmptomatic: no intervention

Indometacin: decreases fluid volume by reducing fluid made by foetal kidneys but cases premature DA closure

Amniocentesis

130
Q

Volume of fluid classified at oligohydramnios?

A

<500mL at 32-36 weeks

Amniotic fluid index <5cm

131
Q

How does rubella cause congenital defects?

A

Virus disrupts mitosis and retards cellular division which causes vascular damage in baby

Major malformations occur during organogenesis and severity decreases as gestation increases

Defects: sensorineural deafness, cardiac anomalies, cataracts, glaucoma, microcephaly

132
Q

Can rubella vaccine be given during pregnancy

A

No

133
Q

Risk of rubella associated defects based on gesation

A

<13 weeks: almost all infection, TOP offered

13-16 weeks: main issue is deafness, can be diagnosed by foetal blood sampling

>16 weeks: rarely causes defects, reassure

134
Q

What are Kolpiks spots?

A

White spots in mouth - pathognomonic for measles

135
Q

Does maternal measles infection cause congenital defects?

A

No but associated with foetal loss and PTB

136
Q

How can anaemia be tested for in a foetus?

A

Peak systolic velocity in MCA via USS

  • The greater the velocity the greater the chance of anaemia
137
Q

What is CMV?

A

Common herpes virus transmitted through bodily fluids

138
Q

Rates of congenital CMV infection following maternal infection

A

40% foetuses will be infected

90% normal at birth: 20% go on to develop minor sequelae

10% symptomatic at birth: 33% die, 67% have long term problems

139
Q

Woman is in contact with someone with chicken pox - what is done?

A

Check if good hx of having chicken pox, if not then test VZV IgG antibodies

  • If antibodies detected within 10 days of contact, reassure
  • If antibodies not detected, give VZ immunoglobulin within 10 days of exposure
140
Q

Foetal risks of VZV infection

A

If mother exposed <20 weeks 1-2% risk of foetal varicella syndrome - consider TOP

If exposed >20 weeks not associated with congenital abnormality

If exposed in 2nd or 3rd trimester: 1-2% risk of shingles in infancy

Exposed within 4 weeks of delivery 20% develop neonatal varicella syndrome which is fatal in 20% - give VZIG ASAP

141
Q

How is VSV exposure in pregnancy managed?

A

If <20 weeks and not immune give VZIG ASAP within 10 days exposure

If >20 weeks and not immune then VZIG or aciclovir given 7-14 days after exposure (not given immediately)

142
Q

Which type of herpes simplex is a problem in pregnancy?

A

HSV2

143
Q

Neonatal risk of herpes infection

A

Transmission if mother has 1st degree infection during vaginal delivery

Neonatal herpes occurs during first 2 weeks - 25% confined to eyes and mouth, 75% widely disseminated and 70% die

Management: aciclovir may decrease severity and duration of primary attack if given <5 days within symptom onset

  • Deliver via CS
144
Q

Gold standard test for herpes?

A

Culture of vesicle fluid

145
Q

Foetal risks of toxoplasmosis infection

A

Spontaneous miscarriage is common if infected in 1st trimester

If exposed <12 weeks, 17% infected and 75% chance of congenital abnormality

146
Q

Management of toxoplasmosis in pregnancy

A

Spiramycin @ diagnosis may decrease risk of foetal infection

If foetus has infection confirmed - combination anti-toxoplasmosis therapy given: leukovarin, pyrimethamine (teratogen, do not give in 1st trimester), sulphadiazine

Pyrimethamine - antifolate so give supplement

147
Q

Recommendation for future pregnancies following toxoplasmosis infection

A

Avoid until maternal IgM cleared - can take 12 months

148
Q

Babies born to mothers with acute or chronic hep B infection shoudl recieve what within 24hrs of birth?

A

Hep B IgG and vaccination

Up to 95% effective in preventing neonatal HBV infection

149
Q

Can hep B be transmitted via breastmilk?

A

No

150
Q

What is group B strep?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

20% women carry it vaginally

Asymptomatic

151
Q

Management of maternal group B strep infection

A

Not routinely screened for

Women who’ve had GBS in previous pregnancy have 50% risk of recurrence - offer antibiotic prophylaxis or testing in late pregnancy then give antibiotics if positive

Swabs done at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks before anticipated delivery

152
Q

Discuss GBS infection in neonates

A

Early onset: <4 days from delivery

  • 20% mortality, presents within pneumonia, sepsis of unknown origin, meningitis

Late onset: >7 days from delivery

  • not associated with maternal GBS carriage, 20% mortality, 50% have neuro deficits e.g. cortical blindness, deafness
153
Q

Discuss syphillis infection in pregnancy

A

Treponema pallidum spirochaete bacterium - causes syphilis - can cross placenta

Can cause PTB, stillbirth and congenital syphilis

  • 8th nerve deafness
  • Saddle nose
  • Sabre shins

Management: penicillin

154
Q

Epidemiology of HIV in pregnant women in UK

A

1/700 women giving birth are HIV+

HIV+ women have viral load and CD4 levels checked once/ trimester

Continue anti-retrovirals during pregnancy

Cabergoline to suppress lactation

If viral load <50 then can deliver vaginally

155
Q

Vaccination during pregnancy

A

Live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated e.g. MMR, rubella, polio

Passive immunisation via specific immunoglobulin is safe e.g. VZIG

Vaccinations for travel on case by case basis

156
Q

Women with a BMI of 40 are given which medication for 7 days PP?

A

Heparin

157
Q

What is post partum thyroiditis?

A

Autoimmune condition causing destructive thyroiditis

Presents PP as immunity returns to normal following a period of suppresion during pregnancy

Pre-formed T4 is released = initial hyperthyroid state

Hypothyroidism develops as T4 is used up

Most recover spontaneously

If hyperthyroid state needs treatment b-blockers are used

158
Q

Risk of hypothyroidism to foetus

A

Miscarriage, brain damage, GD

Management: contnue thyroxine - often dose is increased in pregnancy due to higher requirement

159
Q

Risk of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

IUGR, PTB, miscarriage

Management: propythiouracil in 1st trimester

Can use carbimazole but lowest dose

Radioactive iodine is contraindicated

160
Q

Discuss haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Severe form of anaemia cuased by incompatability between maternal and foetal blood - caused by passage of maternal RBCs across the placenta to the foetus

  • Most commonly Rh group

Epidemiology: abnormal antibodies are detected in 1-2% pregnancies, 0.4% are clinically relevant

Severe HDN affects 7-8 per 100,000 pregnancies

Aetiology:

  • IgM antibodies produced when cells of the maternal immune system are exposed to a foreign antigen on foetal RBCs
  • Sensitisation occurs during 1st pregnancy and this causes immune mediated haemolysis in the newborn

Prevention:

  • Anti-D given to Rh negative women during pregnancy to mop up any foetal RBCs in the mother’s circulation before she becomes sensitised

Clinical features:

  • Anaemia
  • Increased erythropoesis
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Oedema and polyhydramnios
  • Jaundice
  • If severe: foetal death

Investigation:

To detect anaemia in foetus

  • Anaemic foetus will increase HR to maintain o2 delivery, blood is less viscious because fewer RBCs
  • This causes higher velocity blood flow in MCA detected via doppler
  • If 1.5x median for gestationa. sample of foetal blood is taken from umbilical cord or hepatic vein to test Hb conc.

Management:

  • Depends on gestation
  • Delivery usually expedited to 37-38 weeks
  • Intrauterine transfusion can be carried out weekly to treat significant anaemia but not used beyond 35 weeks as delivery more apt

Prognosis

  • 50% have normal Hb
  • 25% moderate disease and need tranfusion

25% severe disease: survival 84-90%