High Risk OB Flashcards
A NB with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) is not responding to conventional treatment. Which measure would the nurse anticipate as possibly necessary for this newborn?
A. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
B. Respiratory support with a ventilator
C. Insertion of a laryngoscope for deep suctioning
D. Replacement of an ET tube via x-ray
A. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
Rationale: If conventional measures are ineffective, then the nurse would need to prepare the newborn for ECMO. Hyperoxygenation, ventilatory support, and direct tracheal suctioning are typically used initially to promote tissue perfusion. However, if these are ineffective, ECMO would be the next step
A nurse is providing care to a newborn. The nurse suspects that the newborn is developing sepsis based on which assessment finding?
A. Increased urinary output
B. Interest in feeding
C. Temperature instability
D. Wakefulness
C. Temperature instability
Rationale: Manifestations of sepsis are typically nonspecific and may include hypothermia, oliguria or anuria, lack of interest in feeding, and lethargy
A nurse is providing care to a newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which action would the nurse most likely include in the plan of care?
A. Keeping the newborn in the supine position
B. Covering the newborn’s eyes while under the bililights
C. Ensuring that the newborn is covered or clothed
D. Reducing the amount of fluid intake to 8 oz daily
B. Covering the newborn’s eyes while under the bililights
Rationale: During phototherapy, the newborn’s eyes are covered to protect them from the lights. The newborn is turned every 2 hours to expose all areas of the body to the lights and is kept undressed, except for the diaper area, to provide maximum body exposure to the lights. Fluid intake is increased to allow for added fluid, protein, and calories
A newborn has been diagnosed with a group B streptococcal infection shortly after birth. The nurse understands that the newborn most likely acquired this infection from which cause?
A. Improper hand washing
B. Contaminated formula
C. Non-sterile catheter insertion
D. Mother’s birth canal
D. Mother’s birth canal
Rationale: Most often, a newborn develops a group B streptococcus infection during the birthing process when the newborn comes into contact with an infected birth canal. Improper hand washing, contaminated formula, and non-sterile catheter insertion would most likely lead to a late-onset infection, which typically occurs in the nursery due to horizontal transmission
Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when a newborn has an unexpected anomaly at birth?
A. Show the newborn to the parents as soon as possible while explaining the defect
B. Remove the newborn from the birthing area immediately
C. Inform the parents that there is nothing wrong at the moment
D. Tell the parents that the newborn must go to the nursery immediately
A. Show the newborn to the parents as soon as possible while explaining the defect
Rationale: When an anomaly is identified at or after birth, parents need to be informed promptly and given a realistic appraisal of the severity of the condition, the prognosis, and treatment options so that they can participate in all decisions concerning their child. Removing the newborn from the area or telling them that the newborn needs to go to the nursery immediately is inappropriate and would only add to the parents’ anxieties and fears. Telling them that nothing is wrong is inappropriate because it violates their right to know
The nurse prepares to administer a gavage feeding for a newborn with transient tachypnea based on the understanding that this type of feeding is necessary because
A. Lactase enzymatic activity is not adequate
B. Oxygen demands need to be reduced
C. Renal solute lead must be considered
D. Hyperbilirubinemia is likely to develop
B. Oxygen demands need to be reduced
Rationale: For the newborn with transient tachypnea, the newborn’s respiratory rate is high, increasing the oxygen demand. Thus, measures are initiated to reduce this demand. Garage feedings are one way to do so. With transient tachypnea, enzyme activity and kidney function are not affected. This condition typically resolves within 72 hours. The risk for hyperbilirubinemia is not increased
Which information would the nurse include when teaching a new mother about the difference between pathologic and physiologic jaundice?
A. Physiologic jaundice results in kernicterus
B. Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth
C. Both are treated with exchange transfusions of maternal O- blood
D. Physiologic jaundice requires transfer to the NICU
B. Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth
Rationale: Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth whereas physiologic jaundice commonly appears around the third or fourth days of life. Kernicterus is more commonly associated with pathologic jaundice. An exchange transfusion is used only if the total serum bilirubin level remains elevated after intensive phototherapy. With this procedure, the newborn’s blood is removed and replaced with non-hemolyses RBCs from a donor. Physiologic jaundice often is treated at home
A nurse is teaching the mother of a newborn experiencing cocaine withdrawal about caring for the neonate at home. The mother stopped using cocaine near the end of her pregnancy. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the mother identifies which action as appropriate for her newborn?
A. Wrapping the newborn snuggly in a blanket
B. Waking the newborn every hour
C. Checking the newborn’s fontanels
D. Offering a pacifier
B. Waking the newborn every hour
Rationale: Stimuli need to be decreased. Waking the newborn every hour would most likely be too stimulating. Measures such as swaddling the newborn tightly and offering a pacifier help to decrease irritable behaviors. A pacifier also helps to satisfy the newborn’s need for non-nutritive sucking. Checking the fontanels provides evidence of hydration
A newborn is suspected of having fetal alcohol syndrome. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess?
A. Bradypnea
B. Hydrocephaly
C. Flattened maxilla
D. Hypoactivity
C. Flattened maxilla
Rationale: A newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome exhibits characteristic facial features such as microcephaly, small palpebral fissures, and abnormally small eyes, flattened or absent maxilla, epicanthic folds, thin upper lip, and missing vertical groove in the median portion of the upper lip. Bradypnea is not typically associated with fetal alcohol syndrome. Fine and gross motor development is delayed, and the newborn shows poor hand-eye coordination but not hypoactivity
After teaching the parents of a newborn with pet ventricular hemorrhage about the disorder and treatment, which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful?
A. “We’ll make sure to cover both of his eyes to protect them”
B. “Our newborn could develop a learning disability later on”
C. “Once the bleeding ceases, there won’t be any more worries”
D. “We need to get family members to donate blood for transfusion”
B. “Our newborn could develop a learning disability later on”
Rationale: Perventricular hemorrhage has long-term sequels such as seizures, hydrocephalus, periventricular leukomalacia, cerebral palsy, learning disabilities, vision or hearing deficits, and phototherapy. The bleeding in the brain can lead to serious long-term effects. Blood transfusion aren’t used to treat periventricular hemorrhage
A newborn has an Apgar score of 6 at 5 minutes. Which action would be the priority?
A. Initiating IV fluid therapy
B. Beginning resuscitative measures
C. Promoting kangaroo care
D. Obtaining a blood culture
B. Beginning resuscitative measures
Rationale: An Apgar score below 7 at 1 or 5 minutes indicates the need for resuscitation. IVF therapy and blood cultures may be done once resuscitation is started. Kangaroo care would be appropriate once the newborn is stable
While reviewing a newborn’s medical record, the nurse notes that the CXR shows a ground glass pattern. The nurse interprets this as indicative of
A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Transient tachypnea of the NB
C. Asphyxia
D. Persistent pulmonary HTN
A. Respiratory distress syndrome
Rationale: The CXR of a NB with RDS reveals a reticular pattern. For TTN, the CXR shows lung overaeration and prominent perihilar interstitial markings and streakings. A CXR for asphyxia would reveal possible structural abnormalities that might interfere with respiration, but the results are highly variable. An echocardiogram would be done to evaluate persistent pulmonary HTN
A NB is suspected of developing persistent pulmonary HTN. The nurse would expect to prepare the newborn for which procedure to confirm the suspicion?
A. CXR
B. Blood cultures
C. Echocardiogram
D. Stool for occult blood
C. Echocardiogram
Rationale: an echocardiogram is used to reveal right-to-left shunting of blood to confirm the Dx of persistent pulmonary HTN. CXR would be most likely used to aid in the Dx of RDS or TTN. Blood cultures would be helpful in evaluating for neonatal sepsis. Stool for occult blood may be done to evaluate for NEC
A preterm newborn is receiving enteral feedings. Which finding would alert the nurse to suspect that the newborn is developing NEC?
A. Irritability
B. Sunken abdomen
C. Clay-colored stools
D. Feeding intolerance
D. Feeding intolerance
Rationale: The newborn with NEC may exhibit feeding intolerance with lethargy, abdominal distention and tenderness, and bloody stools
The nurse frequently assesses the respiratory status of a preterm newborn based on the understanding that the newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome because of
A. Inability to clear fluids
B. Immature respiratory control center
C. Deficiency of surfactant
D. Smaller respiratory passages
C. Deficiency of surfactant
Rationale: A preterm newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome because of a surfactant deficiency. Surfactant helps to keep the alveoli open and maintain lung expansion. With a deficiency, the alveoli collapse, predisposing the newborn to RDS. An inability to clear fluids can lead to transient tachypnea. Immature respiratory control centers lead to an increased risk for apnea. Smaller respiratory passages led to an increased risk for obstruction