High Risk Clients Flashcards

1
Q

a disorder, complication or external factor that jeopardies the health of the mother, fetus or both

A

high risk pregnancy

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2
Q

involves at least 1 of the ff:

A
  1. woman or baby is more likely to become ill or die than usual
  2. complications before or after delivery are more likely to occure than usual
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3
Q

high risk pregnancy can be grouped into two (2):

A
  1. with preexisting or newly acquired illness.
  2. developed complications of pregnancy
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4
Q

a women with prexisting or newly acquired illness (6)

A
  1. CVD
  2. DM
  3. Substance Abuse
  4. HIV/AIDS
  5. RH Incompatibility
  6. Anemia
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5
Q

a women who developed complications of pregnancy

A
  1. hyperemesis Gravidarum
  2. ectopic pregnancy
  3. hydatidiform mole
  4. premature cervical dilatation
  5. abortion
  6. placenta previa
  7. abruptio placenta
  8. PROM
  9. PIH
  10. Multiple Pregnancies
  11. DIC (Disseminated Intravascular coagulation)
  12. APAS (Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome)
  13. HELLP (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes and Low Platelets) Syndrome
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6
Q

a risk factors that

originate within the mother or fetus and affect the development or functioning of either or both.

ex: genetic, nutritional status, med-ob disorders

A

biophysical risks

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7
Q

a risk factor that:

comprised of maternal behaviors and adverse lifestyles that have a negative effect on the health of the mother or fetus (both).

Ex: smoking, caffeine, alcohol, drugs, psych status

A

psychosocial risks

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8
Q

a risk factor that:

arises from the mother and her family and place the mother
and fetus at risk.

Ex: lack of prenatal care, low income, marital status, age, residences)

A

sociodemographic risks

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9
Q

a risk factor that:

include hazaards of the workplace and the woman’s general environment

Ex: pesticides, lead, mercury, radiation, infections and pollutatnts

A

environmental risks

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10
Q

assessment of the FHR for whether a good baseline rate and a degree of variability are present

A

rhythm strip testing

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11
Q

how long do you record FHR of rhythm strip testing?

A

20 min

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12
Q

variability categories of rhythm strip testing

_______1. None apparent
_______2. Extremely small fluctuations
_______3. Amplitude range: 6-25 bpm
_______4. Amplitude range: > 25 bpm

A
  1. Absent
  2. Minimal
  3. Moderate
  4. Marked
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13
Q

monitors fetal heart rate in response to movements to assess fetal well-being without causing stress.

A

non stress testing

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14
Q

non stress testing is done for ___-___ min

A

10-20 min

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15
Q

2 results for nonstress testing

A
  1. reactive
  2. nonreactive
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16
Q

define reactive non stress testing

A
  • 2 accelerations of FHR (by 15 beats or more)
  • lasting for 15 seconds occur after movement within chosen time period
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17
Q

define reactive non stress testing

A
  • no acceleration occur with the fetal movements
  • no fetal movments/if there is low short term fetal heart rate variability (less than 6 bpm) throughout period
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18
Q
  • producing a sharp sound
    of approximately
    80 decibels at a frequency of
    80 Hz, startling and
    waking the fetus
  • done in conjunction with
    a nonstress test
  • expected
    response
    acceleration of FHR
A

vibroacoustic stimulation

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19
Q
  • external fetal heart monitor is applied and obtain baseline FHR
  • may be done if NST results are nonreassuring
  • involves nipple stimulation until uterine contraction begin
A

contraction stress testing

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20
Q

negative (normal)

interpretation of CST

A

no fetal heart rate decelerations are
present with contractions

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21
Q

positive (abnormal)

interpretation of CST

A

50% or more of contractions cause a
late deceleration

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22
Q

what is measured in (nst)

A

response of FHR in relation to fetal movement

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23
Q

normal findings for (nst)

A

two or more accelerations of
fetal heart rate of 15 bpm
lasting 15 secs or longer
following fetal movements in a 20-min period

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24
Q

safety consideration for (nst)

A

woman should NOT LIE supine to prevent supine hypotension syndrome

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25
Q

what is measured in (cst)

A

response of FHR in relation to uterine contractions as the nipples are stimulated.

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26
Q

normal findings of (cst)

A

no late decelerations with contractions

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27
Q

safety considerations of (cst)

A

In addition to preventing
supine hypotension syndrome, observe the woman for 30 min afterward to see that contractions are quiet and preterm labor does not begin

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28
Q

measures the response of
sound waves against solid
objects

A

ultrasonography

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29
Q

ultrasonography is used to:

A
  1. Diagnose pregnancy
  2. Confirm the presence, size, and location of the placenta and amount of
    amniotic fluid
  3. Establish that a fetus is growing and has no gross anomalies
  4. Establish sex
  5. Establish the presentation and position
  6. Predict maturity – biparietal diameter
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30
Q

part of ultrasonography that detects how mature the baby is

A

biparietal diameter

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31
Q

biparietal diameter

fetal head:
weigh more than:
fetal age of:

A

fetal head: 8.5 cm greater
weigh more than: 2500 mg (5.5 lbs
fetal age of: 40 wks

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32
Q

device or software used in ultrasonography to measure various fetal parameters for assessing growth, estimating gestational age, and detecting abnormalities.

A

fetal biometry

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33
Q

ultrasonography that measures the velocity @ which RBC in the uterine & fetal blood vessels travel

A

doppler umbilical velocimetry

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34
Q

ultrasonography that determines the calcium deficit

A

placental grading

35
Q

placental grading has 4 grades: 0, 1 ,2, 3.

what grade determines if the baby’s lung has matured already and ready for birth

36
Q

an ultrasonography that detects the level of amniotic fluid in baby

A

amniotic fluid volume assessment

37
Q

measuring afi:

for gestations <20 wks divided into ??

A

2 vertical halves

38
Q

measuring afi:

for gestations >20 wks divided into ??

A

4 quadrants

39
Q

normal afi levels?

40
Q

a hydramnios afi levels

41
Q

a oligohydramnios afi levels

42
Q

fetal ECG’s may be recorded as early as )))

but inaccurate before___

A

11th week

20 weeks

43
Q

most helpful in diagnosing complications such as ectopic pregnancy
or trophoblastic disease

A

magnetic resonance imaging

44
Q

Begins to rise at 11 weeks’ gestation and then steadily
increase until term

Levels are abnormally high in maternal serum if the
fetus has an open spinal or abdominal defect

Levels are abnormally low if the fetus has a
chromosomal defect

45
Q

High maternal serum indicates

A

open spinal/abdominal defect

46
Q

abnormally low msafp indicates

A

chromosomal defect

47
Q

blood tests performed during the second trimester of pregnancy @15-20 wks to assess the risk of certain birth defects:

mostly preventing downsyndrome diseases/chromosomal problems

A

triple and quad screening

48
Q

triple screening measures (3) three substances in the mother’s blood:

A
  1. Estriol
  2. Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin
    3 Alpha-fetoprotein
49
Q

quad screening measures (4) four substances in the mother’s blood:

A
  1. Estriol
    2 Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin
  2. Alpha-fetoprotein
  3. Inhibin A
50
Q

it involves collecting a small sample of cells from the chorionic villi — tiny finger-like projections of the placenta — either through the cervix (transcervical) or abdominal wall (transabdominal), guided by ultrasound.

A

chorionic villus sampling

51
Q

transcervical is through a

A

cervix into uterus

52
Q

transabdominal

A

a proble/needle in abdomen

53
Q

when is chorionic villus sampling diagnosed

A

10-12 weeks, but maximum of 14 weeks

54
Q

involves extracting amniotic fluid from the uterus using a needle to detect genetic disorders, chromosomal abnormalities, or fetal lung maturity.

A

amniocentesis

55
Q

when is amniocentesis scheduled?

A

14-16 weeks

56
Q

amniotic fluid is analyzed for (9)

A
  1. AFP
  2. Bilirubin Determination
  3. Chromosome Analysis
  4. Color
  5. Fetal Fibronectin
  6. Inborn Errors of Metabolism
  7. L/S (lecithin, sphingomyelin) Ratio
  8. Phosphatidyl Glycerol
  9. Disaturated Phosphatidylcholine
57
Q

to collect fetal blood from the umbilical cord, used to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities, blood disorders, infections, and fetal anemia.

A

PUBS (percutaneous umbilical blood sampling)

58
Q

minimally invasive procedure that allows direct visualization of the fetus inside the uterus using a small, fiber-optic instrument called a fetoscope.

59
Q

fetoscopy is oned in

A

16th or 17th week of AOG

60
Q
  • visual inspection of the amniotic fluid
  • used to detect meconium staining
A

amnioscopy

61
Q

biophysical profile have (5) parameters

A
  1. fetal heart reactivity
  2. fetal breathing
  3. etal body movement
  4. fetal tone
  5. amniotic fluid volume
62
Q

check notes (how do you assess the 5 biophysical profile) ppt

63
Q

biophysical profile:

8-10 indicates that the fetus is

A

doing well

64
Q

biophysical profile:

6 indicates that the fetus is

A

suspicious

65
Q

biophysical profile:

6 indicates that the fetus is in

66
Q

materna lassessment of fetal movement

A

kick count/ daily fetal movement

67
Q

how do you count for kick counting?

A

count once a day for 60 min

Count 2 or 3 times daily for 2 hours or until 10
movements are counted or all fetal movements in a 12
hour period each day until a minimum of 10 movements
are counted

68
Q

what is considered a fetal alarm signal

A

if fetal movements cease for 12 hours

69
Q

if < 3 fetal movements in 1 hr

if cessation of fetal movement for 12 hrs

what would you do for both?

A

for evaluation

70
Q

To determine blood type
and Rh

Identifies possible causes of
incompatibility with the fetus that
may cause jaundice

A

blood grouping

71
Q

To detect anemia; often
checked several times
during pregnancy

Hgb <11g/dl in the 1st and 3rd
trimesters or <10.5g/dl in the 2nd
trimester may indicate a need for
additional iron supplementation.

72
Q

To detect infection,
anemia, or cell abnormalities

12,000/mm3 or more white blood cells or decreased platelets require follow up

73
Q

To check for possible
maternal-fetal blood
incompatibility

If mother is Rh-negative and father is Rh-positive or
antibodies are present, additional testing and treatment are
required; if Rh (-) and
unsensitized, RhoGAM will be given at 28 weeks

A

RH factor and antibody screen

74
Q

to screen for syphilis

Treat if results are positive;
retest at 36 weeks

A

VDRL and RPR (rapid plasma reagin)

75
Q

to determine immunity

if titer is 1:8 or less, mother
is not immune; immunize
postpartum if not immune

A

rubella titer

76
Q

to screen for tuberculosis

If results are positive, refer
for additional testing or
therapy

77
Q

To screen for sickle cell trait
if client is of African
American descent

If mother is positive, check
partner; infant is at risk only
if both parents are positive

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

78
Q

to detect presence of antigens in maternal blood

If present, infants should be
given hepatitis immune
globulin and vaccine soon
after birth

A

hepatitis b screening

79
Q

to detect renal disease of infection

Reassess if positive for more
than a trace protein (renal
damage, preeclampsia, or
normal), ketones (fasting or
dehydration), or bacteria
(infection)

A

urinalysis

80
Q

to screen for cervical neoplasia

Treat and refer if abnormal
cells are present

A

papanicolaou test (pap smear)

81
Q

To detect group B
streptococci and sexually
transmissible diseases

Treat and retest as necessary,
treat group B streptococci
during labor

A

cervical culture

81
Q

to screen for possible gestational diabetes

If elevated, a 3-hour glucose
tolerance test is
recommended.

A

maternal blood glucose challenge test