Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Weapons Systems > HGST MAY 2014 > Flashcards

HGST MAY 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

The engagement process is a systematic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission and has five tenets;

A

Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage and Assess (DIDEA). (TC 3-04.45 PG 11-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A target is _______ when it is temporarily taken out of the battle. Neutralizing a unit allows the maneuver commander to decide whether to continue to engage with indirect fires, maneuver to the target and engage with direct fires or bypass a target and proceed with other missions.

A

neutralized (TC 3-04.45 PG 15-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_______ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. A unit with _______ or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force. Direct hits are required on hard materiel targets.

A

Destruction, 30 percent (TC 3-04.45 PG H-23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The method of attacking a target is governed by the results desired: _________, __________, or __________.

A

Suppression, neutralization, or destruction (TC 3-04.45 PG H-23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters are ______, ______, ______, and ______.

A

interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Interior ballistics includes: ______, _______, _______, _______, _______.

A

Barrel Wear, Launcher Tube Alignment, Thrust Misalignment, Propellant Charge, and Projectile Weight (BLTPP). (TC 3-04.45 PG A-7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gravity, Yaw, and Wind Drift are what type of ballistics?

A

Exterior (TC 3-04.45 PG A-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile.

A

Time of flight, Wind speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile (TC 3-04.45 PG A-9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile’s trajectory changing which increases _____. Where would a projectile have its maximum Yaw?

A

Drag, Near the muzzle. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right is called?

A

Projectile Drift (TC 3-04.45 PG A-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_________ and _________ combine to constitute the port-starboard effect.

A

Trajectory shift, projectile drift. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-13).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aerial-fired weapons characteristics derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are___________

A

rotor down-wash error, angular rate error, and turning bank error. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In general, at ranges less than _______, the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges greater than _______, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift.

A

1000 meters, 1000 meters. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AH-64D pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the weapons processor if: a__________ b________

A

a. TADS is the selected LOS (Seven-state Kalman filter)b. FCR is the selected LOS (Scan-to-scan correlation) (TC 3-04.45 PG A-21)***NO lead-angle compensation is computed or added when IHADSS is the selected sight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_____________: Firing to the right produces a downward jump; firing to the left produces an upward jump. ______________ is required in hover if a relative wind exists. Pilots must recognize compensation for aeroballistics drop is accomplished automatically by deriving the munitions angle of attack with respect to wind vector and applying the appropriate jump correction to the aiming algorithm.

A

Projectile Jump, Projectile jump correction (TC 3-04.45 PG A-25)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___________ is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon.

A

Angular rate error (TC 3-04.45 PG A-10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

__________ is effectively negligible for 30-mm projectiles, but it can affect rocket accuracy if rates are appreciable. __________ induce angular rates in the pitch axis up to 10 degrees per second.

A

Angular rate error, Articulating pylons (TC 3-04.45 PG A-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are three factors that effect dispersion?

A

Vibrations, Sights, Boresights (TC 3-04.45 PG A-15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?

A

Terminal Ballistic (TC 3-04.45 PG A-15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as the __________.

A

relative wind effect. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?

A

Thrust Misalignment, Rocket spin (TC 3-04.45 PG A-7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum effective range is defined as:

A

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The MPSM submunition (M73) will land __ degrees off center ___ percent of the time, resulting in a 90% probability of producing personnel injuries within a ___ meter radius.

A

5 degrees, 66 percent, 20 meter (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hellfire II missiles Maximum velocity is approximately _______ per second.

A

475 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG D-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Running fire performed at airspeeds _______ will offer a mix aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.

A

above ETL (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-134)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the weapons processor:_____________________ full table value is applied thereafter until gunfire is terminated.

A

1st round-no compensation, 2nd round-1/2 of the turret bending table value (TC 3-04.45 PG A-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The 30-mm audible signature travels at approximately _______ per second. Engagement at greater than ________ can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts; therefore, getting the first burst accurately on target will be worth the extra seconds to set up the shot.

A

331 meters, 2000 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-44)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The base line TADS can take up _________ to establish a good track history and generate a quality ballistic solution.

A

to three seconds (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-44)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

At approximately ______ indicated forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero.

A

33 knots (TC 3-04.45 PG A-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The TARGET STATE ESTIMATOR is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs: -___________-___________-___________

A
  • Processed range data from the laser range validator.- TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros.- Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI.(TC 3-04.45 PG A-26)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The Apache’s __________ will correct for steady state target movement when the TADS/MTADS or FCR sights are used. However, the TSE assumes that the gunner is smoothly tracking the target. Excessive or inconsistent target tracking by the gunner is misinterpreted by the TSE as target movement and will result in the wrong amount of lead.

A

target state estimator (TSE) (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The TSE is not considered settled, and target handover to the missile will not occur, unless all of the following conditions are satisfied: -________-________-________-________

A
  • Continuous lasing has occurred for a minimum of four seconds.- Multiple LRV range updates have been received within a specified timeframe.- The derived target velocity estimates exhibit a sample to sample standard deviation less than a specified value.- When the above conditions are satisfied, the weapons processor translates the TADS LOS and TSE target states to NED coordinates and initiates handover to the priority RF missile. (TC 3-04.45 PG A-26)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The ___________ is used to preprocess laser range data received from the TADS LRF/D. When the laser trigger is depressed to the second detent, the LRV processes the range returns and derives a range rate “profile”. When the data indicates that a valid range profile exists, the _______ is presented in the range field of the high action display. If a subsequent range return is not consistent with the established range profile, the subject range return is rejected and the _________ briefly to alert the operator that spillover or other undesirable ranging phenomena are occurring. The range profile is reset and re-established when the _________ and re-pulled or when subsequent range returns fail to match the established range profile for a specified timeframe.

A

laser range validator, asterisk, asterisk is flashed, laser trigger is released (TC 3-04.45 PG A-26)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Crewmembers will not use ________ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion.

A

friendly (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-203)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately _______from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run.

A

8 to 10 KM (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-134)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Transmission of the 5-Line CCA Brief (Ground-to-Air) constitutes clearance to fire except in a _______________.

A

danger close situation. JFIRE (NOV 2012) pg 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The 4 “T”s associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are?

A

Target, Torque, Trim, Target re-verified. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-22)(TC 3-04.42 pg4-134)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

__________ is the recommended mode of operation as the gun turret is positioned and rocket pylons articulate based on the commands computed by the ballistic solution. In _________, the gun turret is positioned to 0-degrees azimuth and +6-degrees elevation. Ballistic correctors are computed and used to position the fixed-mode reticle.

A

Normal mode, fixed mode (TC 3-04.45 PG A-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The four techniques of fire are _______, _______, _______, _______.

A

hover fire, running fire, diving fire, and low altitude bump. (TC 3-04.42 pg 134)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

__________maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300- to 1,000-foot bump about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target.

A

Low altitude bump (TC 3-04.42 134)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The AMC will select the appropriate team employment technique and will brief the team utilizing TPM-R: _______ (Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump), _______ (Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L-attack, Figure 8, Butterfly pattern, 45-degree attack, Circular/Wheel pattern), _______, _______.

A

Technique, Pattern, Munitions, Range (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-175)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based on the tactical situation utilizing the following terminology:

A

Shooter/cover, Shooter/shooter, Looker/shooter. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-173)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ____________________. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ____________________.

A

greater than ETL but less than 40KTAS, 40 KTAS and the aircraft velocity never exceed (Vne) (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The three techniques of applying burst on target corrections _________________________.

A

are Laser Range-Finder Method, Mil Relationship Method, and Recognition Method. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is the _____________ or “Kentucky Windage” method of BOT.

A

recognition method (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which miss long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket’s impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is the ________________ of BOT.

A

laser rangefinder-method (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When the LRF/D is not working, referencing target size vs. symbology to determine range to target is known as the _________________.

A

Mil Relationship Method. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Steep dive angles (________) result in large rates of change in aircraft flight parameters and present flight safety challenges

A

> 25 degrees (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Steeper dive angles compress the range error for rockets significantly and result in less ___________ around the rocket aim point.

A

dispersion (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pilots must plan the _________ in time to avoid abrupt recovery maneuvers._________may cause a pilot to fly the aircraft into the ground.

A

dive recovery, target fixation (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

________ may make dive recoveries difficult. If the aircraft enters _______, the pilot must reduce the severity of the dive recovery by reducing the amount of aft cyclic and/or reducing the collective pitch on the rotor system.

A

Mushing, mushing (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile.

A

Time of flight, Wind speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile (TC 3-04.45 PG A-9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The two types of fires are _______ and ________.

A

Direct, Indirect (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is known as _________.

A

Indirect fire (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the three levels of safing?

A

a. Weapons trigger switch releasedb. Weapons action switch deselectedc. SAFE/ARM button – SAFE(ATM, pg. 4-133)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

(AWS) The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

A

500m 75m/246’1000m 95m/312’1500m 115m/378’JFIRE (NOV 2012) pg 151

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?

A

Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings (TC 3-04.45 PG B-16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round?

A

Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings (TC 3-04.45 PG B-16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

To accomplish AWS dynamic harmonization, maintain a heading to target of ________, at a range of ________.

A

+/-5 degrees, 500-1500 meters (TC 3-04.42 pg 160)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The nominal burst radius is _______; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, _______, _______, ___________.

A

4 meters, impact angle, velocity, and the target type. (TC 3-04.45 PG B-19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the time of flight for a 2Km 30mm shot?

A

5.8 sec (TC 3-04.45 PG B-17)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When viewed from above the fragment pattern of each individual round is a flattened “X” shape with the majority of the fragments moving to the side and slightly forward, with the highest concentration spiking at the ______________.

A

2:00 and 10:00 o’clock positions (TC 3-04.45 PG B-20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the crew selects a DMPI selection should be ___________ of the target to achieve the desired effects.

A

offset and/ or short (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-44)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid ___________ when HMD is the selected sight.

A

manual range (AWS Student Handout pg D-62)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When FXD is selected by the pilot, the ____ will only be displayed in the ____ format symbology. When FXD is selected by the ____, both crewmembers will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats.

A

CCIP, PLT, CPG (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-161)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Fixed gun may be utilized during degraded system operations (IHADSS Invalid LOS). When selecting FXD gun, the gun will be commanded to _________ in elevation and forward in azimuth to the helicopter armament datum line (ADL).

A

+.87 degrees (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-161)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The gun duty cycle is as follows: _______________ between bursts followed by a ________ cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50 – no more than ________ within ________ before allowing gun to cool for ________, after which the cycle can be repeated.

A

6, 50 round bursts w/ 5 seconds, 10 minute, 300 rounds, 60 seconds, 10 minutes (-10-2, pg. 4-107)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___________have been fired in the preceding ________ , and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for _________. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

A

300 or more rounds , 10 minutes, 30 minutes (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The maximum effective range of the 30mm is _____ to _________.

A

1500 to 1700 meters (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-160)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a safety inhibit. When firing the ___________, ___________, and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent.

A

AWS in FIXED mode, LOS INVALID becomes a performance inhibit (AWS Student Handout pg D-50)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of _______ left or right of the helicopter centerline, _______ elevation, ( _______ elevation within ______ of aircraft centerline), and _______ depression.

A

86 degrees, +11 degrees, +9 degrees, 10 degrees, -60 degrees (-10-2, pg. 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

T / F (circle) Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.

A

True (-10-2, pg. 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The 30mm is limited to _________ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.

A

+/-60 degrees (AWS SHO PG D-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The 30mm is limited to _________ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.

A

52 degrees (AWS SHO PG D24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “______” weapon status field message will be displayed and the _____________ anytime the trigger is pulled.

A

“GUN FAIL” , LOS reticle will flash (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-160)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

A

The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground. (-10-2, pg. 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be _____________________. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.

A

Stowed in elevation (-10-2, pg 4-106)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?

A

2640 fps (TC 3-04.45 PG A-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm?

A

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death (-10-2, pg. 4 - 107)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of _______.

A

4200 meters. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-160) -10-2, pg. 4-89)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is _________.

A

1200 rounds (-10-2 pg. 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The 100-gallon auxiliary fuel cell includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ______.

A

300 rounds. (-10-2 pg 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to _______ in elevation to prevent ______ during landing

A

+11 degrees, dig in (-10-2 pg. 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _______. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ___________.

A

inhibited, return to the stowed position. (–10-2, pg. 4-19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is ________.

A

625 +25. (-10-2 pg. 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

________ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30 mm cannon.

A

Turret bending (TC 3-04.45 PG A-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticle (GUN DH reticle) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the ___________.

A

Store/Update Switch (ORT LHG). (-10-2, pg. 4-109)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The Sideloader/ Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions?

A

Counting of 30mm rounds, control of the carrier drive assembly, control of the loader assembly for uploading and downloading. (-10 pg 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The 30mm can accommodate 3 different types of rounds?

A

HEDP M789, HEI M799 and TP M788 (-10 pg 4-105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?

A

888 (-10 pg.4-128)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

(ARS 2.75” HE Rockets Mk 146/151/229) The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

A

300m 140m/460’800m 210m/689’1500m 305m/1001’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

(ARS 2.75” Mk 149/255 Flechette) The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

A

1000m 170m/558’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?

A

A- 24, B-8, E-6 (-10, pg 4-110)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

M439/M261 (MPSM)/M66 engagements at ranges less than _______ and/or speeds greater than________ are not authorized.

A

1000 meters, 90 knots (-10-2, pg. 4-111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

__________ that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and maycause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket.

A

ACCEL Limit is a safety inhibit (ARS Student Handout pg D-44)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The ____________ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPGhas rockets actioned via the ______ and the pilot actions rockets, _______________ is in effect.

A

last crewmember, LHG WAS, cooperative moding (-10-2, pg. 4-6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and provides range settings from _____ meters to about ______meters.

A

500 meters, 7000 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-34)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _____ of armor.

A

4 inches (TC 3-04.45 PG C-16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

There are ____ submunitions in each M261 MPSM warhead.

A

Nine (TC 3-04.45 PG C-18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

An MPSM submunition that lands ____ off center has a ____ probability of producingcasualties within a ____ radius and a submunition landing ____ off center has a ____probability producing casualties within a ____ radius.

A

5 degrees, 90 percent, 20 meter, 30 degrees, 90 percent, 5 meter (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The MPSM submunition (M73) will land ____ off center ____ of the time and ____off center ____ of the time.

A

5 degrees, 66 percent, 30 degrees, 33 percent (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ____ with two ____ launchers every ____ seconds or fire with only ___ outboard launcher installed without restrictions.

A

pairs, outboard, three seconds, one (-10-2, pg. 4-111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The target area coverage achieved by one M261 MPSM warhead ________ as range increases.

A

decreases (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and ___ smoke producing submunitions.

A

six, three (TC 3-04.45 PG C-18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is a RAD and what does it do as it relates to the MPSM rocket?

A

Ram Air Decelerator. Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.

A

51 meters (-10-2, pg.4-111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is ________.

A

HMD, TADS, or FCR. (-10-2, pg.4-95)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When rockets are in the cooperative mode the WP will use the ________ and will disregard the _______.

A

CPG Sel LOS and range data in the fire control solution, PLT LOS and range data. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-155)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode.

A

Yes, during the rocket coop mode, both the CPG and PLT share a common WPN’s RKT page. Both may view, access, edit or fire RKT’s) (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-155)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What does the inclusion of a HERO filter provide for a rocket?

A

Hazard of Electronic Radiation to Ordnance, prevents the rocket from inadvertent ignition due to electromagnetic radiation (radio waves). (TC 3-04.45 PG C-18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

The “10 pounder” M151 HEDP natural fragmentation of the brittle cast-iron warhead case results in a significant number of small “nuisance” or non-lethal fragments, with the primary fragment beam spray covering 60 to 120 degrees (_____________) perpendicular to the warhead. Approximately 55 percent, of the cast-iron case breaks up into small fragments of less than one grain, with approximately five grains considered the minimum lethal size.

A

classic “bowtie” pattern (TC 3-04.45 PG C-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

The “10 pounder “rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at _________ will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the effective beam spray.

A

High dive angles (TC 3-04.45 PG C-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range.

A

150 meters (ARS SHO PG D-26)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _________ without changing aircraft pitch angle.

A

4500 meters (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-153)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes __,__,__,__,__,and__.

A

6PD, 6RC,6IL, 6SK, 6MP and 6FL. (-10-2, pg. 4-111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ___, and for all other flight conditions of ___, is not authorized.

A

7 feet AGL, 5 feet AGL (-10-2 pg 4-111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is ____. The effective range withMK66 rocket motors is ____. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than 3Km.

A

800 meters, 1 to 3km (-10-2 pg 4-111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When forward airspeed exceeds ____, do not use M229/M423 (17 pounder PD) warhead/fuze combination for engagement of targets under _____ distance, andensure the line of fire is clear of obstruction(trees/buildings) for at least _____.

A

10 KTAS, 140 meters, 140 meters (-10-2 pg 4-111)

119
Q

When at a hover or forward air speed is less than ____, engagement distanceand the requirement for line of fire to be clear of obstruction may be reduced to ____. Firing this combination with the ballistics for the M151 (10 pounder) warheadwill result in reduced rocket range.

A

10 KTAS, 110 meters (-10-2 pg 4-111)

120
Q

Re-inventory and attempting to fire __,__,and___ rocket types, after aNO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. Therockets should not be used for at least ____ to allow the M439 (Base MountedResistance Capacitance) fuze to reset.

A

6MP, 6FL and 6SK, 10 days (-10-2 pg 4-111)

121
Q

The ________ (overt) warhead provides one million candlepower for 100 seconds or more.

A

M257 Illumination (TC 3-04.45 PG C-13)

122
Q

The M278 IR Illumination (covert) warhead will provide IR light for ______.

A

three minutes (TC 3-04.45 PG C-15)

123
Q

(AGM-114 K/M/N/FA/L) The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

A

All ranges 110m/361’JFIRE (NOV 2012) pg 151

124
Q

Firing the missile near the edge of constraints reduces the missiles probability of hit (Ph). Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both _______________, to the gun target line prior to firing.

A

horizontally and vertically (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-141)

125
Q

An offset of _____ degrees, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV.

A

3 to 5 degrees (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-141) (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-55)

126
Q

SAL Hellfire Missile Performance Detractors: __________________.

A

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Spot Jitter, Beam Divergence, Attenuation, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium effect. (TC 3-04.45 PG F-5)

127
Q

Backscatter can NOT be overridden by the trigger second detent ______.

A

(SAFETY INHIBIT). (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-141)

128
Q

Under sever backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL. In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a __________ to provide missile guidance. “Buddy LASE”

A

remote designator (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-56)

129
Q

To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL-Direct, and use a minimum of ______ of delay from missile separation (about three seconds after trigger pull.

A

two seconds (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-56)

130
Q

Missile constraints box driver:

A

a. LOBL – Missile Seekerb. LOAL DIR – selected LOSc. LOAL LO or HI – target coordinates stored in the WP in the acquisition selection (B5). (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-18)

131
Q

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window. True / False

A

False (It is from the acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position) (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-143)

132
Q

The missile seeker has a ________ seeker limit from the missile centerline.

A

+/- 30 degree (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-33 )

133
Q

LOAL HI/LO maximum engagement range is ____.

A

8 KM. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-58)

134
Q

LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is ____.

A

7 KM. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-56)

135
Q

LOBL maximum engagement range is ____.

A

7KM. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-56)7KM. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-56)

136
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement range:

A

a. 0 degree offset: 500 metersb. 20 degree offset: 700 meters

137
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range:

A

a. 0 degree offset: 1,500 metersb. 7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters

138
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range:

A

a. 0 degree offset: 2,000 metersb. 7.5 degree offset: 2,500 meters

139
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range:

A

a. 0 degree offset: 3,500 metersb. 7.5 degree offset: 3,500 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-59)

140
Q

What is the minimum engagement ranges for a LOBL SAL “K” missile at zero degree offset? At 20 degree offset?

A

500 meters, 700 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-58)

141
Q

What is the minimum engagement ranges for a LOAL DIR SAL “K” missile at zero degree offset? At 7.5 degree offset?

A

1500 meters, 1700 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-59)

142
Q

What is the minimum engagement range of a LOAL-LO SAL “K” missile with a 0 degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? With a 7.5 degree offset?

A

2000 meters, 2500 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-59)

143
Q

What is the minimum engagement range of a LOAL-HI “K” missile with a 0 degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? With a 7.5 degree offset?

A

3500 meters, 3500 meters (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-59)

144
Q

The LOBL missile constraint box is _____.

A

+ -20 degrees. (-10-2, pg. 4-30)

145
Q

The LOAL missile constraint box is _____.

A

+ -7.5 degrees. (-10-2, pg. 4-30)

146
Q

LOAL LO will clear a ____ mask with a ____ standoff.

A

260 feet, 600 meters (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-51)

147
Q

LOAL HI will clear a ____ mask with a ____ standoff.

A

1000 feet, 1500 meters (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-53)

148
Q

Due to seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for LOAL engagements should be increased as follows:

A

a. Increase minimum range by 500 meters for launch altitudes between 50 to 400 feet above target altitude.b. Increase minimum range by 1,000 meters for launch altitudes between 401 and 800 feet above the target altitude. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-60)

149
Q

Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than ______ the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot.

A

800 feet above (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-59)

150
Q

What is the definition of Ripple fire?

A

Multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-139)

151
Q

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within ____ of the gun target line nor more than ____ from the target centerline.

A

30 degrees, 60 degrees (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-72)

152
Q

The three conditions that will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed in the HAD are the following:

A

1) the firing ACFT’s LRFD code does not match the requested (PRI) code, 2) the selected sight is HMD, 3) the laser if off. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-143)

153
Q

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ____. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is ____.

A

active, not active (-10-2, pg. 4-8)

154
Q

The minimum cloud ceiling to fire a “K” model missile in LOBL mode) is?

A

300 feet at 3 Km, 500feet and 5Km 600 feet at 7 Km. (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-58)

155
Q

Targets shall be a minimum of ____ from the firing point when firing AGM-114M/N/K2Amissiles.

A

800 meters (AWR 2007D-A05)

156
Q

When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the ground just short of thetarget may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion.

A

When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the ground just short of thetarget may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion. (AWR 2007D-A05)

157
Q

Do not fly faster than ____ when firing the AGM-114F-A missile.

A

90 KTAS (AWR 2013D-A19)

158
Q

Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no greater than ____ during running fireof the Hellfire AGM-114K2A and AGM-114M/N missiles.

A

90 knots (Safety of Use Message 07-004)

159
Q

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, thatmissile is selected as _______ in the firing sequence.

A

the next missile to be launched (-10-2, pg. 4-115)

160
Q

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WPreserve for the priority channel?

A

3 (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-139)

161
Q

To achieve the best missile performance, keep the data latencies to a minimum. Sometimes, thisrequires a new FCR scan or TADS new laze for handover. Some guidelines for use are—

A

-Moving targets tracking on the rail can tolerate trigger pull latency.-For RF inhibit FCR moving target, trigger pull latency no more than 15 seconds.-For FCR stationary targets, trigger pull latency no more than 15 seconds.-For RF handover engagements, trigger pull latency no more than 15 seconds.-For TADS stationary target, trigger pull latency no more than 5 seconds.(TC 3-04.45 PG D-16)

162
Q

To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over no longer than ______ after the TARGET DATA message disappears.

A

5 to 7 seconds (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-68)

163
Q

Target velocities are set to ____ during TADS to RF handover, if target velocities are under a specific threshold.

A

zero (V13 Differences Training WPN Slide 7)

164
Q

________ is transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform, which occurs automatically, whether inflight or not, at missile power up with no pilot action required.

A

Transfer alignment ( -10-2 pg 4-118)

165
Q

___ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and that the missile is ready to receive a target.

A

R (-10-2 pg 4-118)

166
Q

______ occurs from the time that the WP transfers target data to the missile until the missile is either launched or returns to the standby mode.

A

Prelaunch mode (TC 3-04.45 PG D-13)

167
Q

______ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.

A

Doppler beam sharpening (TC 3-04.45 PG D-20)

168
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of _______ . If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL.

A

1KM to 2.5KM (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-148) **Terminal track acquisition

169
Q

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at ___________. This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned.

A

10 minute intervals (LBHMMS Student Handout pg. D-65)

170
Q

A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following sources:

A

TADS, FCR, IDM. (-10-2 pg 4-118)

171
Q

The _________ is initiated when the firing command (weapon trigger pull) occurs.

A

postlaunch mode (TC 3-04.45 PG D-19)

172
Q

The target acquisition and tracking modes are terms used to explain the different ways that the missile seeker improves its chances of locating and hitting LOBL and LOAL targets.a. The missile has three target acquisition modes:b. The missile has two tracking modes:

A

a. Preterminal track acquisition, Terminal track acquisition, and Moving target acquisition.b. Preterminal track and Terminal track. (TC 3-04.45 PG D-23)

173
Q

When a stationary target is handed over to the RF missile between 0.5 KM and 1.0 KM, the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. IF the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message _______ will be displayed and firing will be inhibited.

A

“NO ACQUIRE” (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-148)

174
Q

When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the ____ side of the target.

A

Right (TC 3-04.45 PG D-26)

175
Q

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

A

NA (-10-2, pg. 4-126)

176
Q

How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

A

30 minutes (–10-2, pg. 4-126)

177
Q

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does this symbol mean?

A

OT, Overtemperature (-10-2, pg. 4-117)

178
Q

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

A

To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-148)

179
Q

What does the message “TARGET DATA?” mean in the HAD?

A

Indicates no target data is available (i.e. MSL WAS’D, RF MSL selected and, TADS is selected LOS) (-10-2, pg. 4-33)

180
Q

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection ______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.

A

narrows (SHWS, pg. D-65)

181
Q

The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ______ RF missile during a _______ target engagement.

A

primary, stationary (-10-2, pg. 4-126)

182
Q

A RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called ________.

A

Doppler Beam Sharpening. (TC 3-04.45 PG D-24)

183
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of _______.

A

1KM to 2.5KM. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-148)

184
Q

At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of _______ at 8 km.

A

990 meters (SHWS, pg. B-91)

185
Q

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window. True / False.

A

False (It is from the acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position) (ATM, pg. 4-145)

186
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to ____, the allowable constraints angle is _______.

A

1 KM, 20 degrees (-10-2, pg. 4-28)

187
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than ____, the allowable constraints angle is ______.

A

1 KM, 5 degrees (-10-2, pg. 4-28)

188
Q

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

A

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose (TC 3-04.45 PG D-12)

189
Q

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile?

A

105.1 lbs (-10-2, pg. 6-14)

190
Q

In what three modes does the RF missile operate?

A

Standby, Prelaunch, Post Launch (TC 3-04.45 PG D-12)

191
Q

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

A

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present (-10-2 pg. 4-125)

192
Q

The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data (position error data taken from both aircraft and/or FCR range deviation error data) has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?

A

“NAV DATA INVALID” (-10-2, pg. 4-32)

193
Q

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV __ degrees, MFOV __ degrees, NFOV __ degrees and ZFOV __ degrees.

A

90 degrees, 45 degrees, 30 degrees 15 degrees (-10-2, pg. 4-58)

194
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets?

A

A (-10-2, pg. 4-65)

195
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?

A

B. (-10-2, pg. 4-65)

196
Q

Which Priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?

A

C (-10-2, pg. 4-65)

197
Q

A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give __ scans.

A

3 (-10-2, pg. 4-49)

198
Q

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ___ and ___, it will radiate and attempt _____.

A

.5 KM and 8 KM, LOBL (ATM, pg. 4-151)

199
Q

__________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification.

A

Scan-To-Scan-Correlation (-10-2, pg. 4-50)

200
Q

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the ___ target is _____ and the NTS symbol will become ____.

A

NTS, frozen, solid (-10-2, pg. 4-55)

201
Q

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the _______ will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and ___________.

A

ANTS symbol, flash for 3 seconds (-10-2, pg. 4-55)

202
Q

The ______ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.

A

CUED Search (-10-2, pg. 4-68)

203
Q

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within _______ of the _______.

A

+ / - 90 degrees, Aircraft Centerline (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-83)

204
Q

Up to __ RFI emitters can be displayed.

A

10 (-10-2, pg. 4-54)

205
Q

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _________ around the threat Symbol and target type.

A

Home Plate Symbol (-10-2, pg. 4-67)

206
Q

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ____, the symbols will change to ______. After ____ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ____.

A

30 seconds, partial intensity, 90 seconds, blank (-10-2, pg. 4-67)

207
Q

Powering the RLWR ON enables up to ___ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.

A

ten, inside (-10-2, pg. 4-130)

208
Q

Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.

A

ten, outside (-10-2, pg. 4-67)

209
Q

The RFI system detects and processes __________________ radar signals.

A

pulse, pulse doppler, and continuous wave (CW) (-10-2, pg. 4-131)

210
Q

When the Radar Jammer is transmitting a ____________ in the center of the Ownship Icon will be present.

A

a flashing lightning bolt (-10-2, pg 4-135)

211
Q

What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?

A

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available (-10-2, pg. 4-33)

212
Q

What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

A

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components. (-10-2, pg. 4-65)

213
Q

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?

A

The display zoom area will be centered on the NTS target. (-10-2, pg. 4-12)

214
Q

Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.

A

64 symbols (-10-2, pg. 4-64)

215
Q

CAUTION: ______ selection in extreme cold weather (-10 deg C or colder) could result in damage to the FCR.

A

FCR BIT ORIDE (-10-2, pg. 4-65)

216
Q

A shot-at symbol will be displayed ______ target symbols ________ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.

A

beneath, during/after, on top of (-10-2, pg. 4-50)

217
Q

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed __________________. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when the ground speed ________________.

A

decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots, increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots(-10-2, pg. 4-63)

218
Q

Selecting an RFI detected emitter using the display cursor will command _____________ to the line of bearing of the selected emitter.

A

the FCR centerline (-10-2, pg. 4-68)

219
Q

Continuing to press and release the cued switch will _______________.

A

continuously cycle the cued search through the existing list of detected emitters. (-10-2 pg. 4-68)

220
Q

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in ______.

A

CYAN, YELLOW (-10-2 pg. 4-67)

221
Q

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places ___________ over that emitter.

A

an inverse video home plate (selected emitter symbol) (-10-2 pg. 4-68)

222
Q

The configuration of the laser sensors of the Laser Detecting Set provides for ____ of coverage in azimuth and ____ in elevation about the helicopter with substantial overlap.

A

360 degrees, +/- 45 degrees (-10-2, pg 4-131)

223
Q

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?”

A

Training (-10-2, pg. 4-128)

224
Q

Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?

A

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10-2, pg. 4-32)

225
Q

Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?

A

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10-2, pg. 4-40)

226
Q

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using ________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.

A

the CPG’s sight and range source (-10-2, pg. 3-104)

227
Q

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a _________ in the center of the _______ Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.

A

flashing lightning bolt, Ownship (-10-2, pg. 4-118)

228
Q

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?

A

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity) (-10-2, pg. 4-118)

229
Q

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the______________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the _______________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ________________.

A

FCR centerline to the TADS LOS, TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS, TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS(-10-2, pg. 4-15)

230
Q

The RF missile can engage stationary targets between ___________.

A

.5KM and 8KM (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-148)

231
Q

When operating at ________, ensure anti-ice is in the manual mode. Failure of theanti-ice/detector during _______ could result in severe Np/Nr droop.

A

high power settings, high power settings (-10-2, pg. 8-12)

232
Q

_________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS orPNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if _______________ cannot bemaintained.

A

Crew Coordination, ground and obstacle clearance (-10-2, pg. 4-74)

233
Q

When ___________, or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, thelauncher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in theARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to _____.

A

icing conditions exist, icing (-10-2, pg. 8-3)

234
Q

Pilot and CPG shall perform their _________________ prior to entering the Forward AreaRefuel Point (FARP).

A

armament safety check (-10-2, pg. 8-14)

235
Q

Target fixation is known problem in creating a catashrophic loss of airfrcraft and crew. While onthe range we will not fly any closer than ______________ and the hard deck for divingfire is _______.

A

500 meters from the target, 500 feet AGL

236
Q

Explain LOW altitude recovery procedure as outlined in the ATM.

A

Should at any time the LOW ALTITUDE WARNING audio sound, theaircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* willensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to precludeaccelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential intercommunicationsystem (ICS) shall cease until the P* states “BACK ABOVE” to the P.

237
Q

Deadeye

A

Laser designator system inop. “Gun-01 is Deadeye”

238
Q

Shift(direction)

A

Shift Laser/IR/Radar device energy.Can be used to shift from the offset position onto the target. Also used during multi-aircraft attack to shift laser energy to the next target.

239
Q

Ten seconds

A

Standby for “LASER ON” call in approximately 10 seconds.

240
Q

Terminate

A

Stop laser illumination of target

241
Q

Burn

A

EO/IR illuminator is being used to provide illumination of surface points of interest

242
Q

Pulse

A

Illuminate/illuminating an enemy position with flashing IR energy

243
Q

Steady

A

Stop oscillation of IR pointer

244
Q

Stop

A

Stop IR illumination of a target

245
Q

A solid asterisk is displayed in front of the range indicates;

A

Receiving Valid Range Data (-10, pg 4-33)

246
Q

A flashing asterisk in the *XXXX message indicates;

A

Receiving multiple target returns (–10, pg 4-33)

247
Q

What is the maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered?

A
  1. (-10-2, pg 4-121)
248
Q

____ of laser energy in one second are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent.

A

Three bursts (-10-2 pg 4-15)

249
Q

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?”

A

Training (-10-2, pg. 4-128)

250
Q

The second detent of the trigger activates the laser transmitter for ranging and target designation. The range displayed in the HAD will remain _________ for up to 10 seconds following release of the second detent.

A

dynamic (-10-2 pg 4-12)

251
Q

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately ____ with a ____ look down angle.

A

33 ft AGL, one-degree (SHWS, pg. D-16)

252
Q

On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1 – L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an ____________.

A

acquisition source. (-10-2, pg. 3-128)

253
Q

Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, or CXX) is selected as _______ source and the _______ is pressed.

A

the acquisition, RHG SLAVE (-10-2, pg. 4-15)

254
Q

The CPG is required to _______ the selected sight to the acquisition LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically ______.

A

manually “slave”, set to off (-10-2, pg. 4-14)

255
Q

Medium field of view should be used for target acquisition and ____________ field of view should be used for target recognition and engagement.

A

narrow or zoom (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-79 )

256
Q

While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate dynamic range must be maintained to target. _____ should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving.

A

LMC (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-79 )

257
Q

When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the ORT left handgrip, a TXX message will be displayed where?

A

In the Pilot/CPG weapon inhibit field for four seconds (-10-2 pg 4-39)

258
Q

The target and threat file has up to __ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set.

A

25 (-10-2, pg 3-101)

259
Q

The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity green to full intensity ____ when TADS is lasing.

A

white (-10-2, pg 3-102)

260
Q

What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present?

A

The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected. If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view (Zoom). (-10-2 pg 4-26)

261
Q

Describe what will happen to the TADS if the Laser Spot Tracker is in Manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy?

A

The thumbforce controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off. (-10-2 pg 4-45)

262
Q

The initial internal boresight takes approximately 2 minutes due to the cue search process. Subsequent boresights (same power cycle) take approximately _____ as they use AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight.

A

30 seconds (MTADS Operator Course slide 56)

263
Q

If you have been operating the MTADS/MPNVS on the ground for ______ or longer, perform a SANUC before takeoff.

A

15 minutes (-10-2 pg 8-13)

264
Q

What does the LRFD in the “Last” position do?

A

WP uses last laser return. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-139)

265
Q

An aircraft equipped with an Upper Receiver (UR) is capable of receiving _________.

A

C, L, S, and KU band. (V13.1 Differences Training Slide 2 **Shadow, Hunter, Grey Eagle require a UR IOT receive video feed)

266
Q

An aircraft equipped with an Air to Air, Air to Ground (AAG) antenna is capable of receiving ________.

A

KU band. (V13.1 Differences Training Slide 2)

267
Q

OH-58D and One Station Remote Viewing Terminal (OSRVT) are fixed to transmit in the ground mode.

A

** To communicate with another AAG system, the two systems must be set up in “opposite” modes. (V13.1 Differences Training Slide 46)

268
Q

BLIND

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position. Opposite of VISUAL.

269
Q

CAPTURED

A

Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

270
Q

CONTACT

A
  1. Sensor SA at the stated position. 2. (Air-to-Surface [A/S]) Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).
271
Q

LOOKING

A

[A/S][UAS] Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight (opposite of CONTACT).

272
Q

LOWDOWN

A

A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest.

273
Q

MOVER(S)

A

Unidentified surface vehicle(s) in motion.

274
Q

NO JOY

A

[A/A][A/S][S/A] Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET/BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY.

275
Q

PLAYTIME

A

Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g., ONE PLUS THIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).

276
Q

POSTURE

A

[A/S] Communicates sensor posture (offensive, defensive, or neutral) by the JTAC to assets. Does not imply the friendly ground forces’ tactical situation.

277
Q

REMINGTON

A

[A/A][A/S] No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.

278
Q

SQUIRTER

A

[A/S][S/S][UAS] A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.

279
Q

SUNSHINE

A

[A/S] Illuminating target with artificial illumination.

280
Q

TALLY

A

[A/A][A/S] Sighting of a target, nonfriendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY.

281
Q

VISUAL

A

[A/A][A/S] Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND.

282
Q

WINCHESTER

A

No ordnance remaining.

283
Q

CEASE (activity)

A

Discontinue stated activity; e.g., CEASE BUZZER, CEASE LASER, CEASE SPARKLE, etc.

284
Q

LASER ON

A

Start / acknowledge laser designation.

285
Q

LASING

A

The speaker is firing the laser.

286
Q

NEGATIVE LASER

A

Laser energy has not been acquired.

287
Q

SPOT

A
  1. [A/S] Acquisition of laser designation. 2. Platform is LST capable.
288
Q

STARE (with laser code and reference point)

A

Cue the laser spot search / tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point.

289
Q

ROPE

A

[A/S] Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position.

290
Q

SNAKE

A

[A/S] Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

291
Q

SPARKLE

A
  1. [A/S][S/S][UAS] Mark / marking target by IR pointer. 2. Platform is capable to IR point.
292
Q

HANDSHAKE

A
  1. [A/S][UAS] Video data link established. Opposite of HOLLOW.
293
Q

HOLLOW

A
  1. Any data link message not received. 2. [A/S][UAS] Lost video data link. Opposite of HANDSHAKE.

Weapons Systems (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions