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HGST, 3-17 ARB, JAN 2015 > HGST, JAN 2015 > Flashcards

HGST, JAN 2015 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The two types of fire are–
A
  • Direct fire-fires directed at a target within the shooter’s line of sight (LOS).
  • Indirect fire-fires directed at a target which the shooter cannot observe.

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-2, par.14-6)

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2
Q

Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is known as _____________.

A

indirect fire

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-2, par.14-6)

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3
Q

The four modes of fire are–

A

Hover fire, Moving fire, Running fire, Diving fire

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-2, par.14-7

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4
Q

If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings, the individual points of impact will be scattered about the aim point. The degree of scatter of those rounds is called

_______________, which is caused by the combination of ____________________ and ____________________.

A

dispersion, weapons design, ballistic errors

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-1, par.A-2)

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5
Q

RMAX is _____

A

the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated) (TC 3-04.45, p.A-4, par.A-10)

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6
Q

Maximum effective range (RMe) is __________________________________________________________________.

A

the distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target

(TC 3-40.45, p.A-4, par.A-10)

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7
Q

The four types of ballistics are _______________, _______________, _______________, and _______________.

A

interior, exterior, aerial, terminal

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-6, par.A-12)

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8
Q

Air resistance, gravity, yaw, projectile drift and wind drift are what types of ballistics?

A

Exterior ballistics. (TC 3-04.45, p.A-7, par.A-22)

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9
Q

Yaw is the angle between a projectile’s centerline and trajectory. Yaw causes ______________ to change and __________ to increase. Yaw direction constantly changes in a spinning projectile. Yaw maximizes _________________________ and gradually subsides as the projectile stabilizes.

A

trajectory, drag, near the muzzle

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-8, par.A27)

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10
Q

When viewed from the rear, most projectiles spin in a ________________ direction. Spinning projectiles act like a gyroscope and exhibit gyroscopic precession, causing the projectile to move __________ in a horizontal plane. This is known as _________________________, which increases as range to target increases.

A

clockwise, right, projectile drift

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-8, par.A-30)

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11
Q

The effect of wind on a projectile in flight is wind drift. What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?

A

The amount of drift depends on projectile time of flight (TOF) and the wind speed acting on the projectile’s cross sectional area.

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-9, par.A-32)

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12
Q

___________________ is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as the projectile leaves the weapon. This error affects _________________ weapon systems.

A

Angular rate error, unguided (TC 3-04.45, p.A-10, par.A-40)

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13
Q

Angular Rate Error is an example of what type of ballistic?

A

Aerial Ballistics.

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-10, par.A-40)

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14
Q

For off-axis shots within plus 90 degrees of aircraft heading, ________________________ causes the round to hit left or right of the target.

A

trajectory shift

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-13, par.A-48)

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15
Q

_________________________________ is produced when trajectory shift and projectile drift combine.

A

Port-starboard effect

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-13, par.A-49)

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16
Q

Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistics?

A

Terminal ballistics.

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-14, par.A-54)

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17
Q

Neutralization knocks the target out of the battle temporarily. ______ percent or more casualties usually neutralize most units. The unit becomes effective again when casualties are replaced and equipment repaired.

A

Ten

(TC 3-04.45, p.H-23, par.H-60)

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18
Q

True or False: Neutralization requires weapons effect to hit the target and cause damage to it. Unlike suppressive fire, target neutralization cannot be achieved by rounds that miss the target. Neutralizing damage to a target can temporarily remove it from the battle. High explosive (HE) and multipurpose sub-munitions (MPSM) rockets as well as 30-mm high explosive dual purpose (HEDP) are capable of target neutralization.

A

True.

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-133, TASK 1422: 2, c.)

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19
Q

Running fire is performed at airspeeds _______________ and offers a mix of aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy. Airspeeds above ____________ eliminate rotor downwash error and provide increased accuracy.

A

above ETL, 30 knots (TC 3-04.42 p.4-134, TASK 1422: 2, e. 2)

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20
Q

You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters, you then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target 10 meters and fire again, hitting the target. What technique did you use?

A

Burst on target (BOT) method.

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-20, par.14-75)

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21
Q

The muzzle velocity of the 30-mm chain gun is ________ ft/s (______ m/s).

A

2640, 805

(TC 3-04.45, p.B-15, tab.B-20)

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22
Q

____________ fire is more accurate than ____________ fire due to greater aircraft stability and ____________ fire is more accurate than ____________ due to the smaller beaten zone in reduced Range Error Probable (REP).

A

running, hover, diving, running (TC 3-04.45, p.B-17, tab.B-26)

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23
Q

The M789 HEDP projectile is an ____________________ and ____________________ round capable of defeating lightly armored vehicles.

A

anti-materiel, anti-personnel

(TC 3-04.45, p.B-18, par.B-29)

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24
Q

The M789 round steel case generates explosively driven fragments. The nominal burst radius is _______________; however the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the ___________________, ___________________, ________________ and the _____________________.

A

4 meters, surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, target type (TC 3-04.45, p.B-19, par.B-32)

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25
Q

The maximum effective range of the 30-millimeter varies based upon target type and desired effect. Point targets can be accurately engaged out to __________ to __________________. The WP will provide a ballistic solution up to a range of __________________. The WP will use the range data from the crew station in which the AWS was activated. If the range provided to the AWS exceeds the maximum elevation or azimuth limit, the message

“__________________” will appear in the HAD.

A

1,500, 1,700 meters, 4,200 meters, EL/AZ LIMITS

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-160, TASK 1464: 2, d. 1)

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26
Q

When conducting dynamic harmonization, maintain a heading to target of _______________, at a range of _________________________.

A

±5 degrees, 500-1500 meters

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-160, TASK 1464: 2, g. 1)

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27
Q

Using FXD-gun mode, when WASed, the gun will relocate and remain at the fixed position (_______________ azimuth and _______________ elevation) until de-WASed.

A

0 degrees, +0.87 degrees

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-161, TASK 1464: 2, i. 2)

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28
Q

For maximum firing platform (aircraft) stability, the crew should consider using running or diving fire. Use of slower forward speed (______ to ______ knots) will provide a stable firing platform, yet support standoff.

A

40, 80

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-161, TASK 1464: 2, i. 2 c)

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29
Q

The crew may perform simultaneous wing store pylon weapon (missiles or rockets) and gun engagements. The gun will be inhibited from firing during any wing store pylon weapons launch for _______________. Attempts to fire the gun during this time period will result in a/an “_______________” message being displayed in the HAD weapon control status field. Gun firing will also inhibit wing store firing for _______________.

A

seconds, ALT launch, 2 seconds

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-162, TASK 1464: 2, l. 3 a)

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30
Q

What is the color of the M788 Target Practice (TP) round? The M789 High Explosive Dual Purpose (HEDP) round?

A

The M788 TP has a blue projectile with a white stripe and lettering and an aluminum nosepiece. The M789 HEDP has a black projectile with a yellow band below the fuze with yellow lettering.

(AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-15, D-16)

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31
Q

M789 High Explosive Dual Purpose (HEDP) round has shaped charged liner for piercing in excess ____________ of

Rolled Homogenous Armor (RHA) at _______________ and a fragmentation radius of ____________ for soft targets.

A

inches, 2500 meters, 4 meters

(AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-16)

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32
Q

With the AWS is actioned and the next-to-shoot missile on the inboard rail of the inboard launcher, the gun turret assembly is limited to ______ to the next-to-shoot missile side of the aircraft centerline.

A

52° (AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-23, D-24)

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33
Q

A minimum of __________ tang(s) must be seated into the nut on the flash suppressor.

A

two (2) (AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-29)

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34
Q

When conducting AWS harmonization, the CPG positions the Dynamic Harmonization (DH) reticle over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI), then _______________________________________________________.

A

left handgrip STORE/UPDATE switch press to the STORE position (AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-65)

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35
Q

In the event of IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is ____________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______________________.

A

inhibited, return to the stowed position

(-10-2, p.4-19: 4-11, WARNING)

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36
Q

What is the elevation of the gun in the FIXED mode?

A

+0.87°

(-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a.)

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37
Q

The software ballistic range limit is _______________.

A

4200 meters

(-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a.)

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38
Q

What is the caution associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch?

A

CAUTION: There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground. (-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. CAUTION)

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39
Q

AWS will / will not [circle one] continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode.

A

will

(-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. CAUTION)

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40
Q

In the event of a power loss, the gun is spring driven to ________ in elevation to prevent __________ during landing.

A

+11°, dig-in (-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. NOTE)

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41
Q

What is the 30mm rate of fire?

A

625 ±25 rounds per minute. (-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. 1)

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42
Q

What are the 30mm gun turret azimuth and elevation limits?

A

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86° left or right of the helicopter centerline.

Elevation travel is +11° (+9° within ± 10° of centerline), and -60° depression.

(-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. 1)

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43
Q

The maximum capacity of the AWS ammunition handling system is _______________.

A

1200 rounds (-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. 3)

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44
Q

The 30mm can accommodate 3 different types of rounds. What are they?

A

High explosive dual purpose (HEDP M789), ADEN/DEFA, and TP (M788).

(-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. 3)

*ADEN are British brass cartridges “Armament Development Enfield”, DEFA are French steel cartridges “D’Etude Et Fabrication D’Armament”.

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45
Q

The Sideloader/Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions. What are they?

A

The three functions are counting of 30mm rounds, control of the Carrier Drive Assembly, and control of the Loader Assembly for uploading and downloading 30mm ammunition.

(-10-2, p.4-102: 4-31, a. 4)

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46
Q

What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm duty cycle?

A

WARNING: Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.

(-10-2, p.4-104: 4-31, b. WARNING)

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47
Q

What is the gun duty cycle?

A

Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period.

For BURST LIMIT settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated.

(-10-2, p.4-104: 4-31, b.)

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48
Q

If ________ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding _____________, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for _____________. Crewmembers should

________________________________________________________________________________________.

A

300, ten minutes, 30 minutes, remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control

(-10-2, p.4-104: 4-32, WARNING)

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49
Q

How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?

A

888 gun rounds.

(-10-2, p.4-125: 4-45, a.)

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50
Q

When ADEN (brass cartridges) are used, multiply weight and moment by __________. When DEFA (steel cartridges) are used, multiply weight and moment by __________.

A

1.354, 1.343

(-10-2, p.6-13: NOTE)

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51
Q

Use the four T’s (____________, ____________, ____________, and ____________) as a cue to enhance the accuracy of the aircraft weapon systems.

A

target, torque, trim, target

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-22, par.14-78)

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52
Q

MPSM (M261) sub-munition (M73) will land approximately _____ degrees off center, _____ percent of the time, having a _____ percent probability of producing casualties against prone, exposed personnel, within a _____ meter radius.

A

5, 66, 90, 20 (TC 3-04.45, p.14-30, par.14-120)

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53
Q

The MPSM (M261) sub-munition (M73) will land approximately _____ degrees off center, _____ percent of the time, having a _____ percent probability of producing casualties against prone, exposed personnel, within a _____ meter radius.

A

30, 33, 90, 5

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-30, par.14-120)

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54
Q

The target area coverage achieved by an MPSM (M261) warhead _______________ as range ______________.

A

decreases, increases

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-31, fig.14-8)

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55
Q

Free-flight rockets have an inherent ______________________________, which is the greatest cause of error in free flight; ______________________________ during motor burn reduces the effect.

A

thrust misalignment, spinning the rocket

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-7, par.A-21)

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56
Q

Are rockets more accurate when fired from IGE or OGE?

A

OGE

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-10, fig.A-10)

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57
Q

When a pilot files an aircraft out of trim (horizontally, vertically, or both), the change in the crosswind component deflects the rocket as it leaves the launcher. Since the extended fins are the largest surface area of the rocket, the rocket will pivot about its CG into the relative wind. As the rocket leaves the launcher and accelerates, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose to turn into the wind. This is known as ______________________________________.

A

the relative wind effect (TC 3-04.45, p.A-12, par.A-45)

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58
Q

M261 is a MPSM warhead for _______________ and _______________ applications. The M261 contains ________ individual M73 sub-munitions with a shaped charge warhead for perforating _______________ (top attack) and fragmenting steel case for __________________ effects.

A

anti-materiel, anti-personnel, nine, light armor, anti-personnel (TC 3-04.45, p.C-16, par.C-48)

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59
Q

Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 warheads is limited to ranges greater than _______________, and forward airspeeds of less than _______________.

A

1,000 meters, 90 knots

(TC 3-04.45, p.C-16, par.C-52)

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60
Q

An MPSM (M261) shape-charge (M73) can penetrate approximately ____________, (____________) of armor, however internal lethal effects are limited (along the jet shot-line)

A

4 inches, 100mm

(TC 3-04.45, p.C-16, par.C-52)

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61
Q

The M267 MPSM is the M261 training warhead producing a smoke/bang signature. It is an operational, physical, and ballistic match to the M261. ________ M75 practice submunitions and ________ inert submunition load simulators take the place of the _____ HE submunitions in the M261 warhead.

A

three, six, 9

(TC 3-04.45, p.C-18, par.C-55)

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62
Q

What is a HERO filter and what function does the filter provide to the MK66 rocket motor?

A

HERO stands for “hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordinance”. The HERO filter prevents the MK66 motor from inadvertent ignition by electromagnetic radiation, especially by radio frequencies found aboard Navy ships. (TC 3-04.45, p.C-18, par.C-57)

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63
Q

In the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to a fixed position of ____________________.

A

+3.48 degrees

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-153, TASK 1462: 2, a. 4)

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64
Q

crewmember firing the ARS will select the sight most appropriate for the mode of fire and the type of engagement being conducted. The PLT and the CPG may utilize _____ and the _____ as lines of sight. The CPG may additionally utilize the _____.

A

HMD, FCR, TADS

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-153, TASK 1462: 2, a. 6)

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65
Q

During running ARS fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the ____________ while maintaining __________________.

A

cyclic, aircraft trim (TC 3-04.42, p.4-154, TASK 1462: 2, d. 1 c)

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66
Q

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?

A

Yes. The cooperative rocket mode WPN’s RKT page will be a common page and available for display in both the CPG and the PLT station. Since the CPG controls the cooperative rocket mode, the available WPN’s rocket page is actually the CPG’s. Either the PLT or the CPG may make changes to the common cooperate rocket mode WPN’s RKT page.

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-155, TASK 1462: 2, e. 2)

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67
Q

When the ARS is in the cooperative mode the WP will use the ________________________________________ in the fire control solution and will disregard the ___________________________________.

A

CPG-selected LOS and range data, PLT LOS and range data

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-155, TASK 1462: 2, e. 3)

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68
Q

How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page? If so, how?

A

The Load Maintenance Panel (LMP) provides the capability to check/verify rocket type within each of the rocket zones on preflight. The WPN UTL LOAD page is provided on the MPD to permit aircrews to modify (override) the LMP zone inventory in the event an entry error is made by the load crew during munitions loading or an LMP failure occurs.

(AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-9)

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69
Q

PEN button allows for a penetration selection in increments of ____________, from ____________ to ____________, a BNK selection to defeat bunkers up to ____________ (____________) thick, and a SPQ which sets to detonate when the fuze makes contact with any object.

A

5 meters, 10 meters, 45 meters, 3 meters, 9.84 feet (AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-18)

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70
Q

The M151 Warhead HE is __________________, __________________ and referred to as the “10 pounder”. This warhead contains 2.3 pounds of composition B with a bursting radius of _______________ and a lethality radius of more than _______________.

A

anti-personnel, anti-material, 10 meters, 50 meters (AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-22)

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71
Q

The M274 Warhead is HE __________________, __________________ and referred to as the “17 pounder”. This warhead contains 4.8 pounds of composition B with a bursting radius of _______________ and a lethality radius of more than _______________.

A

anti-personnel, anti-material, +14 meters, 75 meters (AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-22)

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72
Q

What is a RAD and what does it do?

A

RAD stands for “Ram Air Decelerator”. The submunition arms when the RAD deploys. The RAD stops forward velocity and stabilizes the descent. (AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-22)

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73
Q
A

Rocket Steering Cursor

Stowed Rocket Steering Cursor

Inhibited Rocket Steering Cursor

Stowed/Inhibited Rocket Steering Cursor

Fixed Rocket Steering Cursor

Inhibited Fixed Rocket Steering Cursor

Training Rocket Steering Cursor

Inhibited Training Rocket Steering Cursor

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74
Q

As range increases, dispersion ____________. Longer engagement ranges do not necessarily equate to improved accuracy for aerial rockets.

A

decreases

(AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-42)

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75
Q

Maximum range for MK66 rockets is ___________. (ARS Student Handout 11-0922 Pg D-47)

A

7500 meters (AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-45)

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76
Q

The ground stow mode commands the pylons to a stow position (_____) so that the wing stores are parallel with the ground (level terrain).

A

-5° (-10-2, p.4-107: 4-33, b. 1)

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77
Q

The flight mode commands the pylons to a single fixed position (____). The flight mode is automatically commanded on at takeoff when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than ____________.

A

+4°, 5 seconds (-10-2, p.4-107: 4-33, b. 2)

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78
Q

In flight the pylons remain in the flight mode until missiles or rockets are actioned. Pylons are independently controlled through a range of _________________________.

A

+4° to -15° in elevation (-10-2, p.4-107: 4-33, b. 3)

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79
Q

With rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?

A

Zone A, B and E are available, with 24 in A, 8 in B, and 6 in E. (-10-2, p.4-107: fig.4-97)

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80
Q

Firing of 2.75 inch Hydra-70 rocket configuration (fuze/warhead/motor) flight conditions as follows:

Use of the MK66 MOD 2 rocket motor is __________.

A

prohibited

(-10-2, p. 4-108: 4-34, b. CAUTION)

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81
Q

Firing of 2.75 inch Hydra-70 rocket configuration (fuze/warhead/motor) flight conditions as follows:

M439/M261/MK66 (MPSM) at ranges less than ____________ and/or speeds greater than ________ are not authorized.

A

1000 meters, 90 kts (-10-2, p. 4-108: 4-34, b. CAUTION)

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82
Q

Firing of 2.75 inch Hydra-70 rocket configuration (fuze/warhead/motor) flight conditions as follows:

When forward airspeed exceeds __________, do not use M229/M423 (17 pounder PD) warhead/fuze combination for engagement of targets under ____________ in distance, and ensure the line of fire is clear of obstruction (trees/buildings) for at least ____________.

A

10 KTAS, 140 meters, 140 meters (-10-2, p. 4-108: 4-34, b. CAUTION)

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83
Q

Firing of 2.75 inch Hydra-70 rocket configuration (fuze/warhead/motor) flight conditions as follows:

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than __________, and for all other flight conditions of __________, is not authorized.

A

7 ft AGL, 5 ft AGL (-10-2, p. 4-108: 4-34, b. CAUTION)

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84
Q

Firing of 2.75 inch Hydra-70 rocket configuration (fuze/warhead/motor) flight conditions as follows:

Do not fire rockets with the M433 (Nose Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuze in situations where they might fly closer than ________ from other airborne helicopters.

A

51m (-10-2, p. 4-108: 4-34, b. CAUTION)

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85
Q

Firing of 2.75 inch Hydra-70 rocket configuration (fuze/warhead/motor) flight conditions as follows:

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from in-board stations. Fire no more than ________ with two ____________ launchers every __________________, or fire with only ______ outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). These are the only conditions permitted.

A

pairs, outboard, three seconds, one (-10-2, p. 4-108: 4-34, b. CAUTION)

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86
Q

What is the time of flight (TOF) in seconds from launch to impact for SAL missiles from 2 km to 8 km at 1 km increments?

A

7, 10, 14, 19, 24, 29, 36 (TC 3-04.45, p.14-54, tab.14-13)

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87
Q

Under some atmospheric conditions and gun-target lines the launch aircraft may obscure its own line of sight to the target by the Hellfire’s rocket motor exhaust as the missile flies through the designator’s field of view. Rotating the aircraft just before launch – at least _________________________ in the direction of the missile to be fired – prevents the missile from flying through the designator FOV.

A

three to five degrees (TC 3-04.45, p.14-55, par.14-232)

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88
Q

What is the minimum engagement range (RMIN) of an AGM-114K LOBL engagement with a 0° target azimuth offset?

With a 20° target azimuth offset?

A

500 meters, 700 meters

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-58, tab.14-14)

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89
Q

For an AGM-114K/K2A, regardless of the mode (LOBL/LOAL-D/L/H) and range to target, in order to guarantee missile seeker head lock the minimum cloud ceiling requirement is ____________ above the firing platform.

A

1400 feet

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-58, tab.14-14)

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90
Q

The RMIN for LOAL increases as the aircraft’s launch altitude above the target’s altitude increases. The RMIN is based upon a nominal aircraft launch altitude of ____________________ above the target. The RMIN can be decreased by __________ if the missile is fired from very low altitudes (less than __________ above target altitude). If the LOAL missile is fired from altitudes above the nominal altitude range (more than __________, but less than __________ above the target) the minimum ranges must be extended above the nominal range value by __________.

A

50 feet to 400 feet, 500 meters, 50 feet, 401 feet, 800 feet, 500 meters (TC 3-04.45, p.14-59, par.14-242)

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91
Q

Avoid firing __________ when the launch altitude is greater than __________ above the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot.

A

LOAL, 800 feet

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-59, par.14-243)

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92
Q

When SAL missiles are fired from more than __________ above the target’s altitude, or if very short minimum ranges are required, fire the missile _________.

A

800 feet, LOBL

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-59, par.14-244)

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93
Q

What is the AGM-114K LOAL-DIR Minimum Engagement Range (RMIN) for a low altitude launch (shooter <50’ above target altitude) with a 0° azimuth target offset? A 7.5° azimuth target offset?

A

1500 meters, 1700 meters

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-59, tab.14-16)

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94
Q

What is the AGM-114K LOAL-LO Minimum Engagement Range (RMIN) for a low altitude launch (shooter <50’ above target altitude) with a 0° azimuth target offset? A 7.5° azimuth target offset?

A

2000 meters, 2500 meters

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-59, tab.14-16)

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95
Q

What is the AGM-114K LOAL-HI Minimum Engagement Range (RMIN) for a low altitude launch (shooter <50’ above target altitude) with a 0° azimuth target offset? A 7.5° azimuth target offset?

A

3500 meters, 3500 meters

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-59, tab.14-16)

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96
Q

Is the Hellfire missile is affected by Angular Rate Error?

A

No, this error affects unguided weapon systems only.

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-10, par.A-40)

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97
Q

The Hellfire missile utilizes a single-stage; single-thrust, solid-propellant rocket motor. When thrust exceeds ____________________ on the M299 launcher, the missile leaves the rail.

A

600 to 830 pounds (TC 3-04.45, p.D-2, par.D-3)

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98
Q

Motor thrust duration is approximately ____________________. Peak velocity of the missile when launched at sea level is ____________________ (_______________/_______________).

A

2.5 to 3.5 seconds, 475 meters per second (923 knots/Mach1.4) (TC 3-04.45, p.D-2, par.D-3)

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99
Q

Arming can only occur when the missile’s acceleration exceeds ________. The fuze is armed between

____________________ from the launching platform for all Hellfire missiles except for the AGM-114R which is armed between 375 and 500 meters.

A

10Gs, 150 and 300 meters

(TC 3-04.45, p.D-2, par.D-4)

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100
Q

RF missile can engage moving and stationary targets at ranges between __________ and _______________.

A

500, 8000 meters (TC 3-04.45, p.D-11, par.D-30)

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101
Q

During RF missile operation, including the missile running power on BIT or running manually-initiated BIT while on the rail, personnel should avoid the RF radiation-hazard area extending ____________ in front of and ____________ either side of the missile centerline.

A

one meter, 45 degrees (TC 3-04.45, p.D-12, par.D-31)

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102
Q

What are the three modes of operation for an RF missile?

A

The RF missile operates in three modes; standby, pre-launch, and post-launch. (TC 3-04.45, p.D-12, par.D-32)

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103
Q

A RF missile LOAL stationary-target nominal flight profile for a 20-degree offset angle at 8 kilometers will have a maximum cross range of ____________.

A

990 meters

(TC 3-04.45, p.D-21, fig.D-20)

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104
Q

______________________________ uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and the target’s background by flying an off-axis flight path to the target. This significantly enhances the probability of detection and tracking stationary targets at long ranges.

A

Doppler beam sharpening (DBS)

(TC 3-04.45, p.D-24, par.D-69)

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105
Q

When DBS occurs, the direction of turn is determined at umbilical separation as a function of the LOS to the target. If the target is right of the missile centerline, the missile trajectory curve will be a ________ DBS trajectory to the target.

If the target is left of the missile centerline, the missile trajectory curve will be a ________ DBS trajectory to the target.

Targets close to the zero bearing may yield either a left or right DBS trajectory.

A

left, right

(TC 3-04.45, p.D-25, par.D-70)

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106
Q

eight laser limiting factors (LIMFACs) that are known to detract from optimum laser performance are

A

Boresight error, spot jitter, beam divergence, attenuation, overspill, underspill, entrapment and backscatter. (TC 3-04.45, p.F-2 to F-6, par.F-7 to F-20)

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107
Q

Entrapment occurs when:

A

The laser’s reflection point on the Desired Point of Impact (DPI) is trapped or masked within the target. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the laser can be seen by the missile is reduced, or blocked, during its flight. This may occur due to designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, or a wall with an extended overhang – such as a porch or building entryway.

(TC 3-04.45, p.F-5, par.F-16)

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108
Q

Backscatter applies to:

A

A portion of the laser beam energy reflected from obscurant atmospheric particles (fog, haze, rain, snow, smoke, and dust) in the laser’s path, back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser’s energy penetrates toward the target.

(TC 3-04.45, p.F-5, par.F-17)

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109
Q

What is the definition of Ripple fire?

A

Ripple fire employs multiple missiles launched on different laser codes. Ripple fire engagements require at least two laser designators.

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-139, TASK 1458: 2, a. 6 b)

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110
Q

LOBL constraints are ________ as referenced from the tracking missile seeker’s LOS and aircraft centerline.

A

20° (TC 3-04.42, p.4-141, TASK 1458: 2, a. 10 b Note)

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111
Q

Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger’s second detent?

A

No, the BACKSCATTER inhibit cannot be overridden by the trigger’s second detent, the crew must instead apply backscatter avoidance techniques. (TC 3-04.42, p.4-141, TASK 1458: 2, a. 10 c Note 2)

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112
Q

LOAL LO/HI missile constraints box represents a ______ angular displacement between the aircraft center line and the selected target’s bearing.

A

7.5° (TC 3-04.42, p.4-143, TASK 1458: 2, a. 10 Note)

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113
Q

True or False: The LOAL LO/HI missile constraints box is always driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window.

A

False, the selected acquisition source must be represented by a grid within the aircraft’s “POINT” file. This point may be the active acquisition source or present in B5 within the ACQ grouped options.

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-143, TASK 1458: 2, a. 13 f Note 2)

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114
Q

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

A

The LOBL inhibit function allows the aircrew to engage RF missile targets in the LOAL mode only, inhibiting RF missiles from transmitting. This option is used to eliminate the RF missile signature.

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-147, TASK 1459: 2, a. 4)

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115
Q

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

A

The missile TYPE will be barriered, and the mode will default automatically to RF.

(AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-24)

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116
Q

The Missile Counter-Counter Measure (MSL CCM) button:

A

The MSL CCM button enables the CCM routine within the laser missile. This selection narrows the Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF) number of Pulses Per Second (PPS) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-28)

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117
Q

In LOAL LO mode, the Hellfire missile will clear a mask up to _______________ above the aircraft altitude with a minimum standoff distance from the mask of _______________.

A

260 feet, 600 meters (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-51)

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118
Q

In LOAL HI mode, the Hellfire missile will clear a mask up to _______________ above the aircraft altitude with a minimum standoff distance from the mask of _______________.

A

1000 feet, 1500 meters (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-53)

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119
Q

During a remote designation, the designator should not be positioned within the ______ fan either side of the launching aircraft to target line or outside the _____ designator offset angle.

A

±30°, ±60° (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-60)

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120
Q

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at _______________ intervals. This _______________ occur when the missiles are _______________.

A

10-minute, does not, actioned (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-65)

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121
Q

When does the message “TARGET DATA?” appear in the sight status section of the HAD and how do you remove it?

A

When TADS is the selected sight, and the actioned missile type is RF, the TARGET DATA? will be displayed in the sight status section of the HAD. The target must be designated for approximately 3 seconds to receive the target handover data and remove the TARGET DATA? message.

(AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-73)

122
Q

When the RFHO is received via the IDM RFHO, and the mission is accepted, the target handover data represents the target _________________________ (________) grid coordinates relative to the receiving aircraft.

A

North-East-Down, NED (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-74)

123
Q

The RF missile warhead is armed when the missile achieves _____ acceleration (____________________).

A

10 G, 150 to 300 meters (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-78)

124
Q

For SAL missiles, the allowable angle is larger for LOBL (_____) than for LOAL (_____).

A

20°, 7.5° (-10-2, p.4-27: 4-12, b. 4 b)

125
Q

For RF missiles in either LOAL or LOBL trajectory mode, the allowable angle is _____ except when the missile is tracking and the target range is __________, the allowable angle is _____.

A

20°, < 1 km, 5° (-10-2, p.4-27: 4-12, b. 4 b)

126
Q

At what time and for how long is the message “LASE NN TRGT” displayed in the High Action Display during LOAL SAL missile launches?

A

The message is displayed for 4 seconds starting at TOF=12 calculated missile time of flight during LOAL launches.

(-10-2, p.4-31: 4-13, a. tab.4-1)

(-10-2, p.4-38: 4-13, d. tab.4-4)

127
Q

Which page has the command to “ARM” the Hellfire launchers, commanding the Remote Launcher Safe/Arm switch on all Hellfire missile launchers to the ARM position, without pressing the master “ARM/SAFE” button?

A

The WPN UTIL page.

(-10-2, p.4-101: 4-29, a. 1)

128
Q

What does a missile icon displayed in white and flashing indicate?

A

The icon is displayed in white and flashes when that missile is selected as the next missile to be launched in the firing sequence.

(-10-2, p.4-112: 4-38, a. 3)

129
Q

What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?

A

The missile receives targeting information, to include North, East, and Down (NED) data, from TADS, FCR, and IDM (RFHO) acquisition sources. (-10-2, p.4-115: 4-39, e.)

130
Q

What is RF Missile Transfer Alignment?

A

RF Missile Transfer Alignment is the transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform.

(-10-2, p.4-115: 4-39, g.)

131
Q

What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?

A

“R” in the missile icon indicates that the missile is ready to receive the target.

(-10-2, p.4-115: 4-39, g.)

132
Q

What does the DEICE Button on the SAL missile page do?

A

The missile DEICE button is used to manually deice SAL missile seekers in preparation for missile launch.

(-10-2, p.4-117: 4-40, a. 5)

133
Q

Selecting the AUTO button automatically manages power to the missiles to prevent _______________.

A

overheating

(-10-2, p.4-119: 4-40, b. 1)

134
Q

The AUTO selection for RF MSL PWR automatically manages power to the missiles to prevent overheating. This is based on the number of missiles available. How many RF missiles will be powered if 8 or more missiles are available? If 4-7 missiles are available? If 2-3 are missiles available? If 1 is missile available?

A

8 or more missiles available: 4

4-7 missiles available: 2

2-3 missiles available: 1

1 missile is available: 0 (unless missiles are actioned, then 1 is powered) (-10-2, p.4-120: 4-40, b. 1 tab.4-14)

135
Q

The 2ND TARGET INHIBIT button is used to prevent _______________ target information from being handed over from the FCR to the _______________ RF missile during a _______________ target engagement. 2ND TARGET INHIBIT is _______________ to both crew stations.

A

secondary, primary, stationary, common

(-10-2, p.4-120: 4-40, b. 3)

136
Q

When the RF missile training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical missile icons?

A

“NA” coded missile icons on the WPN page. (-10-2, p.4-123: 4-42, NOTE)

137
Q

The Training Mission Emulator (TME) can simulate the functioning of ____ RF missiles for each launcher.

A

4 (-10-2, p.4-123: 4-42, a.)

138
Q

What does the Training Mission Emulator (TME) emulate?

A

The TME emulates the missile control decision making process, missile launch mode selection processing, target acquisition and tracking function, and BIT routines and thermal management characteristics.

(-10-2, p.4-123: 4-42, a.)

139
Q

A training mode missile is allowed an elapsed ON time of _______________.

A

30 minutes (-10-2, p.4-123: 4-43, a.)

140
Q

What symbol will appear on the RF missile icon if the maximum allowable elapsed ON time is exceeded?

A

“OT” – overtemperature (-10-2, p.4-123: 4-43, a.)

141
Q

When will a centered “T” be displayed in the missile constraints box?

A

When the training mode is enabled and weapons system actioned. (-10-2, p.4-123: 4-43, b. 5)

142
Q

What is the weight of an AGM-114K-2A?

A

103.1 pounds (-10-2, p.6-16: 6-7, f. tab.6-6)

143
Q

RFI emitter icons will be displayed in full intensity during the period when the target is actively emitting and for

_______________ after the emitter becomes inactive, at which time the symbol will be displayed at partial intensity for _______________. The symbol will blank _______________ after the emitter becomes inactive.

A

30 seconds, 60 seconds, 90 seconds

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-82, TASK 1144: 2, b. 2 Note 1)

144
Q

A RF missile can achieve a solid LOBL target track against __________ targets from ________ to ________. The missile will make up to ________ attempts to acquire the target, radiating for approximately ____________ during each LOBL attempt.

A

moving, 0.5km, 8.0km, three, 3 seconds (TC 3-04.42, p.4-148, TASK 1459: 2, b. 4 a)

145
Q

The TSD will display ________ threat icon symbols along the outside perimeter of the ASE footprint, whereas ________ threat symbols are displayed inside the perimeter of the ASE footprint.

A

RFI, ASE (-10-2, p.3-102: 3-39, z./aa.)

146
Q

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the TEDAC RHG? What if you press the display ZOOM switch again?

A

The display ZOOM switch is used to view FCR targeting information at approximately a 6:1 zoom display centered about the designated next-to-shoot (NTS) target symbol. Pressing the ZOOM switch again will return the display to the normal targeting format. (-10-2, p.4-12: 4-5, g. 2 a 7)

147
Q

If the FCR has been selected as the active sight and the RF handover data recently received has been detected as outside the optimum navigational parameters for weapons engagement, what type of inhibit will occur? What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?

A

This situation creates a safety inhibit and displays “NAV DATA INVALID” in the HAD.

(-10-2, p.4-32: 4-13, a. tab.4-1)

148
Q

Where in the HAD will the message “RFI DATA?” appear and what does it mean?

A

“RFI DATA?” will appear in the Sight Status Field of the HAD, indicating the FCR has been commanded to perform a cued search and no threat data is visible. (-10-2, p.4-33: 4-13, a. tab.4-1)

149
Q

The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to ______ in roll and ______ to ______ in pitch. Flight outside these parameters may result in _______________ FCR performance.

A

20°, +20°, -15°, degraded (-10-2, p.4-48: 4-15, NOTE)

150
Q

A single FCR scanburst in wide FOV will produce ____ scans, in medium FOV ____ scans, in narrow FOV ____ scans, and in zoom FOV ____ scans.

A

2, 2, 3, 4 (-10-2, p.4-50: 4-15, f. 1)

151
Q

_________________________ improves Stationary Target Indicator (STI) detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification.

A

scan-to-scan correlation

(-10-2, p.4-51: 4-15, f. 3 a)

152
Q

Moving target symbols become stale after __________; stationary target symbols become stale after __________.

A

5 seconds, 30 seconds

(-10-2, p.4-56: 4-15, k. 4)

153
Q

Low priority targets are displayed in _________________________ on the TSD page as a half size icon.

A

partial intensity yellow

(-10-2, p.4-56: 4-15, k. 4)

154
Q

Identify FCR Symbols:

See Symbols

A

Track LOAL

Wheel LOBL (moving)

Merged Air Defense LOAL or LOBL (stationary)

Track LOBL (moving)

Unknown LOBL (stationary)

Air Defense Unit LOBL (moving)

Wheel LOAL

Air Defense Unit LOBL (stationary)

Merged Air Defense LOBL (moving)

Air Defense Unit LOAL

Track LOBL (stationary)

Unknown LOAL

Wheel LOBL (stationary)

Helicopter LOAL

(-10-2, p.4-56: 4-15, k. 4 fig.4-47)

155
Q

What is indicated by the Alternate Next To Shoot (ANTS) symbol flashing for 3 seconds?

A

Once the Next To Shoot (NTS) target is frozen and the symbol is a solid diamond (meaning the aircraft is armed, FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned), a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ANTS symbol will flash for 3 seconds. (-10-2, p.4-56: 4-15, k. 5 b)

156
Q

The shot-at symbol is displayed beneath target symbols __________________ a scan burst and _______________ a Hellfire missile launch.

A

during/after, prior to

(-10-2, p.4-57: 4-15, k. 8)

157
Q

The FCR GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: Wide scan (WFOV), representing _____, medium scan (MFOV), representing _____, narrow scan (NFOV), representing _____, and zoom scan (ZFOV), representing _____.

A

90°, 45°, 30°, 15°

(-10-2, p.4-59: 4-15, n. 1)

158
Q

The mode of the Terrain Profile Mode (TPM) sector is based on aircraft speed. The TPM wide format is displayed as a 180° scan sector (90° either side of centerline) when the ground speed

________________________________________________________________________________.

The TPM Narrow format is displayed as a 90° scan sector (45° either side of centerline) when the groundspeed ________________________________________________________________________________.

A

decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots, increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots

(-10-2, p.4-64: 4-15, y. 1 a)

159
Q

A maximum of _______________ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope format at any one time.

A

64 symbols

(-10-2, p.4-65: 4-15, y. 4)

160
Q

What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

A

CAUTION: Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components.

(-10-2, p.4-66: 4-16, z. CAUTION)

161
Q

_______________ selection in extreme cold weather (-10° C or colder) could result in damage to the FCR.

A

FCR BIT ORIDE

(-10-2, p.4-66: 4-16, z. 2 CAUTION)

162
Q

FCR priority scheme A emphasizes __________________________________________________________.

FCR priority scheme B emphasizes __________________________________________________________.

FCR priority scheme C emphasizes __________________________________________________________.

A

airborne and stationary ground targets, stationary ground targets, airborne and moving ground targets

(-10-2, p.4-66: 4-16, z. 9 a 1/2/3)

163
Q

Terrain sensitivity setting ____________________ is for open fields and wooded areas with loose detection thresholds – more target detects but false alarms may increase.

A

clustered trees

(-10-2, p.4-67: 4-16, z. 11 a tab.4-12)

164
Q

Terrain sensitivity setting ____________________ is for desert scrub and arroyos/wadis with tight detection thresholds – less target detects and fewer false alarms.

A

desert-scrub tight

(-10-2, p.4-67: 4-16, z. 11 a tab.4-12)

165
Q

The highest priority threat symbol (____________________), or #1 emitter as determined by the system, is displayed in conjunction with the RFI Box symbol (____________).

A

home-plate symbol, triangle

(-10-2, p.4-68: 4-16, a. 1 c)

166
Q

Up to ____ RFI emitter symbols can be displayed with the ____________________ emitter identified by class and type.

A

10, highest priority (-10-2, p.4-68: 4-16, b. 1)

167
Q

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in __________, while enemy/gray emitters are displayed in __________.

A

cyan, yellow

(-10-2, p.4-68: 4-16, b. 1 a/b)

168
Q

Label RFI Icons

A
  1. Track LOAL
  2. Wheel LOBL (moving)
  3. Merged Air Defense LOAL or LOBL (stationary)
  4. Track LOBL (moving)
  5. Unknown LOBL (stationary)
  6. Air Defense Unit LOBL (moving)
  7. Wheel LOAL
  8. Air Defense Unit LOBL (stationary)
  9. Merged Air Defense LOBL (moving)
  10. Air Defense Unit LOAL
  11. Track LOBL (stationary)
  12. Unknown LOAL
  13. Wheel LOBL (stationary)
  14. Helicopter LOAL

(-10-2, p.4-56: 4-15, k. 4 fig.4-47)

169
Q

__________________ is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the azimuth of an emitting radar as detected by the RFI.

A

Cued search

(-10-2, p.4-69: 4-16, c.)

170
Q

A cued search may be performed on targets which have been detected within the fine or coarse coverage regions of the RFI to _______________ the location of a(n) ____________________ with a FCR detected target.

A

correlate, emitting threat (-10-2, p.4-69: 4-16, c.)

171
Q

Pressing the CUED button a second time will orient the ____________________ to the next __________________.

Each press of the CUED button will continue to cycle the cued search through the list of __________________.

A

FCR centerline, priority emitter, detected emitters

(-10-2, p.4-69: 4-16, c. 1)

172
Q

If the ____________________ is pressed during a normal FCR scan, the scan will be discontinued and a new cued search will be initiated.

A

CUED button

(-10-2, p.4-69: 4-16, c. 1)

173
Q

Selecting a RFI detected target symbol on the periphery of the FCR format using the cursor will command the ____________________ to the azimuth of the selected emitter and set the __________________ to the appropriate cued search scan size.

A

FCR centerline, scan sector

(-10-2, p.4-69: 4-16, c. 2)

174
Q

Selecting other that the #1 emitter using CAQ places _____________________________________________ over that emitter.

A

an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol)

(-10-2, p.4-69: 4-16, d.)

175
Q

The Radar Frequency Interferometer (RFI) system detects and processes __________, ____________________, and ______________________________ radar signals operating in a currently classified frequency range.

A

pulse, pulse Doppler, Continuous Wave (CW)

(-10-2, p.4-128: 4-48, a.)

176
Q

For target engagements, __________________ are normally used for target acquisition, while __________________ are used for target identification and engagement.

A

MFOV or NFOV, NFOV or ZFOV

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-78, TASK 1140: 2, c. 2)

177
Q

While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate __________________ must be maintained to the target. LMC should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving.

A

dynamic range

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-79, TASK 1140: 2, c. 2 Note 4)

178
Q

What does the LRFD in the “last” position do?

A

With last in the LRFD data field, the WP uses the last laser return pulse.

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-139, TASK 1458: 2, a. 8)

179
Q

True or False: When using the TADS as a sensor, you can use R/F to adjust video focus.

A

False. M-TADS is automatically focused from ten feet to infinity when the NVS Mode switch is in the NORM or FIXED position.

(AH-64D Sights Student Handout, p.D-20)

180
Q

when designating a target, the FOV should be either _________________________, as these are the only FOVs that are boresighted. The sensor selected is up to the crew.

A

Narrow or Zoom

(AH-64D Sights Student Handout, p.D-82)

181
Q

True or False: The M-TADS internal boresight can be performed on-the-ground or in-flight.

A

True.

(AH-64D Sights Student Handout, p.D-95)

182
Q

The initial boresight takes approximately _______________ due to the cue search process. Subsequent boresights

(same power cycle) take approximately _______________ as they use AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight.

A

2 minutes, 30 seconds

(AH-64D Sights Student Handout, p.D-96)

183
Q

During the M-TADS internal boresight, the FLIR boresight will not start until the __________ trigger is __________.

A

laser, released

(AH-64D Sights Student Handout, p.D-100)

184
Q

During the M-TADS internal boresight if the FLIR is not cooled, the FLIR boresight will ________. DTV boresight is ________.

A

fail, valid

(AH-64D Sights Student Handout, p.D-101)

185
Q

To check the boresight correctors, the PLT/CPG must access the ____________ page, then select ____________ and the appropriate system to be checked.

A

DMS UTIL, BORESIGHT

(-10-2, p.2-139: 2-108, a.)

186
Q

Within the 1000 point database, WPT/HZD points occupy positions ____________, CM points occupy positions

____________, SHARED points occupy positions ____________, and TGT points occupy positions ____________.

A

W01-W50, C51-C99, 100-950, T01-T50

(-10-2, p.3-99: 3-39, tab.3-6)

187
Q

The TADS footprint symbol is a __________ straight line which originates at the ownship symbol and changes in length and azimuth to indicate TADS LOS positioning within the map area. The __________ line changes to a __________ line when TADS is lasing.

A

green, green, white (-10-2, p.3-100: 3-39, n.)

188
Q

If the pilot selects TADS, either with the NVS select switch or linking the TADS to the FCR, while the CPG is sight select TADS, the CPG’s sight will __________________________________________________.

A

default to HMD and weapons will be de-actioned (-10-2, p.4-7: 4-5, e. 1 NOTE)

189
Q

True or False: The MTADS has no minimum focus.

A

True. (-10-2, p.4-9: 4-5, f. 5)

190
Q

Label the left TEDAC handgrip:

A
  1. TADS Field of View Switch
  2. Image Auto Tracker OFFSET/DELTE Switch (IAT-OFS/DEL)
  3. Video Record Button
  4. FCR Mode Switch
  5. Cursor Display Select Button (L/R)
  6. Weapons Guarded Trigger (Back of Grip)
  7. TADS Sensor Select Switch
  8. Weapons Action Switch (WAS)
  9. Store/Update Switch
  10. Cursor Control
  11. S-Scan/C-Scan Switch (FCR Scan)
  12. Cued Search Switch
  13. Linear Motion Compensator Switch (LMC)
  14. Cage Switch (ATA Missile Seeker)

(-10-2, p.4-10: 4-5, g. 1)

191
Q

Label the right TEDAC handgrip:

A
  1. FCR Scan Size Switch
  2. Laser Spot Tracker Mode Switch
  3. Sight Select Switch
  4. IAT Polarity Switch
  5. Sight Manual Tracker (MAN TRK)
  6. Cursor Enter Switch
  7. HDD Select Switch
  8. Missile Advance Switch
  9. C-Scope Switch
  10. FLIR Polarity Button
  11. Sight Slave Switch
  12. Display Zoom Switch
  13. LRFD Guarded Trigger (Back of Grip)
  14. MTT (Track Promote)

(-10-2, p.4-11: 4-5, g. 2)

192
Q

Squeezing the laser trigger switch on the right TEDAC handgrip to the first detent fires _____ laser bursts for target ranging.

A

3

(-10-2, p.4-15: 4-9, a. 1)

193
Q

Squeezing the laser trigger switch on the right TEDAC handgrip to the second detent

__________________________________________________________________________________________.

A

fires a continuous burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates

(-10-2, p.4-15: 4-9, a. 2)

194
Q

What three situations will cause the LOS Reticle to flash?

A

The LOS Reticle flashes when the crewmember’s LOS is invalid or his selected NVS is at its limit. It also flashes when the gun is the selected weapon and the gun system has failed and is not following the crewmember’s head.

(-10-2, p.4-21: 4-11, f. 4)

195
Q

What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those brackets are not present?

A

The TADS FOV brackets appear as corner marks on the display to indicate the amount of currently displayed imagery of TADS that will be displayed in the next narrower FOV. They only appear when a next narrower FOV is available, and TADS imagery is presented on the format. (-10-2, p.4-25: 4-12, a. 7)

196
Q

Label HMD Display

A
  1. Sight Select Status
  2. Range and Range Source
  3. Sight Status
  4. Selected Missile Side Left
  5. Weapon Inhibit
  6. Owner Cue
  7. Selected Missile Side Right
  8. Weapon Control
  9. Acquisition Select Status
  10. Weapon Status
  11. ASE Manual Program Selection

(-10-2, p.4-28: 4-13)

197
Q

What does the asterisk in the “*XXXX” message presented in the Range and Range Source Status Field of the HAD indicate?

A

The asterisk is presented when the laser is firing and the Weapons Processor is receiving valid range data from the laser rangefinder/designator.

(-10-2, p.4-35: 4-36, b. tab.4-2)

198
Q

What does a flashing asterisk in the “*XXXX” message presented in the Range and Range Source Status Field of the HAD indicate?

A

The asterisk flashes when a multitarget condition is detected in the range data.

(-10-2, p.4-35: 4-36, b. tab.4-2)

199
Q

When storing a target with the MTADS using the STORE/UPDATE switch on the left TEDAC handgrip, a “TXX” message will be displayed where and for how long?

A

“TXX” will appear in the Weapon Inhibit Status Field of the HAD for 4 seconds to indicate file address in which the coordinate data has been stored.

(-10-2, p.4-40: 4-36, f. tab.4-6)

200
Q

The MTADS multi-target tracker (MTT) is capable of tracking _____ primary and _____ secondary targets.

A

one, five (-10-2, p.4-45: 4-14, b. 3)

201
Q

Setting the IAT/OFS switch to IAT, when the MTADS LOS is within the primary tracking gates, will adjust the _______________ symbol to the desired location on the target/object.

A

‘aim point’ (-10-2, p.4-45: 4-14, b. 3 a)

202
Q

Primary track gates will __________ when approaching ________ of the FOV, __________ at FOV edge, or when the gates are ____________________.

A

flash, 50%, limited, extremely small

(-10-2, p.4-46: 4-14, b. 3 c 1)

203
Q

For the M-TADS auto drift null, the aim point should remain within the __________ FOV of the ________ for _______________. If it does not, or a lesser amount of drift is desired, perform Manual Servo Drift Null.

A

narrow, DTV, 30 seconds

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-14, c. NOTE)

204
Q

MTADS internal boresight aligns MTADS ________ to the ________ LOS and ________ to the ________ LOS.

A

DTV, laser, FLIR, DTV

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-14, e.)

205
Q

MTADS internal boresight shall be performed as part of preflight procedures prior to __________________________________________________.

A

any firing of laser or weapons using the MTADS

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-14, e. 1)

206
Q

The ________ boresight must be performed successfully before the ________ boresight can be performed. Once the ________ boresight is complete, the internal boresight is complete.

A

DTV, FLIR, FLIR

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-14, e. 1 a)

207
Q

Initiating an internal boresight automatically sets the CPG selected sight to ________, the sensor to ________ and the FOV to ____________.

A

MTADS, DTV, narrow

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-14, e. 1 b)

208
Q

Can the M-TADS internal boresight be performed in flight?

A

Yes.

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-14, e. 1 c)

209
Q

The INTERNAL B/S message will be displayed when the average optics temperature of the last internal boresight was:

Equal to or less than ________ (________), and the average optics temperature changes by greater than ________ (________).

Greater than ________ (________), and the average optics temperature changes by greater than ________ (________).

A

68°F, 20°C, 86°F, 30°C, 68°F, 20°C, 59°F, 15°C

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-14, e. 1 c NOTE)

210
Q

During IHADSS single DP operation, both crewstations share common symbology and imagery on the HMD’s. If both crewmembers’ NVS MODE switches are NORM or FIXED, the symbology and imagery of __________ will be displayed.

A

pilot

(-10-2, p.4-71: 4-18, a. 2 b 3)

211
Q

True or False: If DTV boresight is complete, then FLIR boresight will be performed. If DTV boresight fails, then FLIR boresight will not be performed.

A

True.

(-10-2, p.4-96: 4-25, c. NOTE)

212
Q

Internal boresight errors can develop in flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of TADS

(thermal drift). It is recommended that an internal boresight be accomplished ______________________________.

A

2 times per 2.5 hour flight

(-10-2, p.4-96: 4-25, c. NOTE)

213
Q

When conducting a registration check, the maximum allowable registration error is __________ azimuth at __________. The center open position of the LOS reticle is equivalent to __________ at __________.

A

1 foot, 90 feet, 1 foot, 90 feet (-10-2, p.4-97: 4-25, e. 5 d)

214
Q

What are the PRF laser code ranges that may be entered and what are the maximum digits that may be entered in each column of the laser code range?

A

1111 – 1788. The first column maximum is “1”, the second column maximum is “7”, and the third and fourth column maximums are “8”.

(-10-2, p.4-118: 4-40, a. 11 e 1)

215
Q

For a 4500 meter SAL hellfire engagement, the last _______________ are required laser terminal guidance before impact.

A

6 seconds

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-55, tab.14-13)

216
Q

What is the maximum laser delay time steady on for an 8 kilometer SAL Hellfire missile engagement?

A

16 seconds.

(TC 3-04.45, p.14-55, tab.14-13)

217
Q

When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a _______________ Kalman filter-based target state estimator that attempts to determine actual target velocities with respect to the _______________.

A

seven-state, TADS LOS (TC 3-04.45, p.14-68, tab.14-270)

218
Q

Thrust misalignment is a characteristic of _______________ ballistics.

A

internal (TC 3-04.45, p.A-7, par.A-21)

219
Q

The MK66 motor flutes impart a high spin rate of more than ___________________________________ during motor burn (approximately _______________). Thereafter, the folding fins reverse the roll rate and sustain the spin stabilization for the remainder of the free-flight profile.

A

30 revolutions per second, 1 second (TC 3-04.45, p.A-8, par.A-29)

220
Q

_________________________ is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. This affects unguided weapon systems.

A

Angular rate error (TC 3-04.45, p.A-10, par.A-40)

221
Q

_________________________ is produced when trajectory shift and projectile drift combine.

A

Port-starboard effect (TC 3-04.45, p.A-13, par.A-49)

222
Q

______________________ occurs when a crew fires a weapon from an aircraft in flight and the weapon’s muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind.

A

Projectile jump (TC 3-04.45, p.A-14, par.A-50)

223
Q

What is turret bending and will the weapons processor compensate for this phenomenon?

A

Turret bending is the airframe and gun-turret experiencing flexure in response to sustained recoil. The AH-64 ballistics weapons processor employs a compensation table to normalize turret bending. Compensation is not required for the first round in a burst as recoil effects do not yet apply. The aiming point adjusts for one-half of the bending table value for the second round in a burst. Full table values are applied thereafter until gun fire is terminated.

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-24, par.A-105)

224
Q

At approximately _______________ indicated forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero.

A

33 knots

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-24, par.A-110)

225
Q

Angular rate error is effectively negligible for 30-mm projectiles, but it can affect rocket accuracy if rates are appreciable. Articulating pylons induce angular rates in the pitch axis up to _________________________.

A

10 degrees per second

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-24, par.A-112)

226
Q

When must the lead-angle be compensated for and why?

A

When IHADSS is selected, lead-angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position command, nor is the target state estimator employed. Therefore, target states (velocities) are not known to compute the lead angle over the projectiles TOF.

(TC 3-04.45, p.A-25, par.A-116)

227
Q

Emitter icons will be displayed in full intensity during the period when the target is actively emitting for

_______________ after the emitter becomes inactive, at which time the symbol will be displayed at partial intensity for _______________. The symbol will blank _______________ after the emitter becomes inactive.

A

30 seconds, 60 seconds, 90 seconds

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-82, TASK 1144: 2, b. Note 1)

228
Q

In the normal (NORM) mode the WP will encode __________ missiles for the priority channel, regardless of the actual inventoried quantity, before any missiles will be allocated to the alternate channel.

A

three

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-138, TASK 1458: 2, a. 4 a)

229
Q

The WPN missile channel logic is set for __________ missiles and cannot be altered by the crew. In the ripple (RIPL) mode, the quantity is __________________ between the two channels, with the ____________ channel assigned the extra missile in the case of an odd number of missiles available.

A

three, evenly divided, priority

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-138, TASK 1458: 2, a. 4 Note 3)

230
Q

__________________ employs multiple missiles launched on different laser codes, requiring at least ________ laser designators.

A

Ripple fire, two (TC 3-04.42, p.4-139, TASK 1458: 2, a. 6 b)

231
Q

__________________ involves firing multiple SAL missiles with the same laser code.

A

Rapid fire (TC 3-04.42, p.4-139, TASK 1458: 2, a. 6 c Note 3)

232
Q

SAL LOAL engagement will change to LOBL when the primary channel track (PRI CHAN TRK) message appears in the HAD weapons status field. In this case the constraints box is driven by the ____________________.

A

missile seeker (TC 3-04.42, p.4-139, TASK 1458: 2, a. 7 Note 1)

233
Q

SAL LOAL-DIR constraints are ________ as referenced from the firing crewmember’s __________________ bearing and aircraft centerline. The box will remain dashed until the __________________ bearing and aircraft centerline are within ________ of one another.

A

±7.5°, selected LOS, selected LOS, 7.5° (TC 3-04.42, p.4-142, TASK 1458: 2, a. 12 d Note)

234
Q

In NORM the pylons are commanded to articulate based on the WP ballistic solution within an articulation range of ________ to ________ degrees.

A

-4.9, +15 (TC 3-04.42, p.4-153, TASK 1462: 2, a. 4)

235
Q

Hover-fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately __________________ without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond __________________, pitch attitude changes (nose-up) may have to be made to meet firing constraints.

A

4,500 meters, 4,500 meters

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-153, TASK 1462: 2, a. 7 Note)

236
Q

If the AWS requires harmonization, a heading to the target of ________________, at a range of ____________________ must be maintained.

A

±5 degrees, 500-1500 meters

(TC 3-04.42, p.4-160, TASK 1464: 2, g. 1)

237
Q

The Internal Auxiliary Fuel System (IAFS) has a ____________ tank and an integral ammunition storage magazine which stores approximately ____________ in the magazine and ____________ in the AHS allowing for approximately a ____________ capacity.

A

100 gal, 242 rounds, 58 rounds, 300 round

(AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-7)

238
Q

When ammunition is loaded with the side loader approximately ____________ can be loaded, no ammunition is loaded between the side loader and the gun (space for approximately ____________).

A

1160 rounds, 40 rounds

(AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-10)

239
Q

What is the depression limit for the gun turret assembly when the gun is actioned with the aircraft on the ground and the Armament Panel, Ground Override (GND ORIDE) button ON?

A

-6.45° (AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-20)

240
Q

The ______________________________ controls the application of weapon primary and arm power based on the armament panel ARM/SAVE (A/S) and GROUND OVERRIDE (GND ORIDE) switch inputs, aircraft squat switch status, and arm power request.

A

primary system processor (SP) (AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-34)

241
Q

The ____________________ performs gun cueing, gunfire control, munitions inventory, AWS Built-In-Test (BIT) functions, and constraints processing for weapon performance and safety inhibits.

A

weapons processor (WP) (AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-35)

242
Q

What crew station can conduct dynamic harmonization?

A

CPG only.

(AH-64D AWS Student Handout, p.D-53)

243
Q

As range increases dispersion decreases. Live fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between ______________________________; these test results apply to both MPSM and unitary warhead rockets.

A

3,000 to 5,000 meters

(AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-42)

244
Q

What message indicates that the selected LOS is either failed or invalid, also no valid FCR Next-To-Shoot (NTS) target will cause this safety inhibit.

A

LOS INVALID

(AH-64D ARS Student Handout, p.D-44)

245
Q

For SAL missiles, the ALT button is not selectable when there is no _______________ selected.

A

PRI CHAN

(AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-23)

246
Q

SAL LOAL LO and LOAL HI engagements are driven from the target data located at (_____) except when TRN is the ACQ selection, then the missile constraints box is driven by the TRN point.

A

ACQ B5

(AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-27)

247
Q

The SAL missile laser detector, which does not rotate, has a ________ gimbal limit from the missile centerline.

A

±30° (AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-33)

248
Q

Offset angles greater than _______________ may significantly reduce the missiles ability to acquire laser energy reflected off the target and should be avoided to assure a higher probability of hit.

A

45 degrees

(AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-60)

249
Q

During rapid-fire engagements targets should be relatively close, approximately __________ maximum separation for missiles launched __________ apart.

A

100 meters, 8 seconds

(AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-61)

250
Q

In the event a missile loses radar track of the target, it will shift to __________ in an attempt to reacquire the target. In the event the missile does not reacquire the target, it will use inertial guidance to fly to the _________________________.

A

DBS, calculated target location

(AH-64D LBHMMS Student Handout, p.D-82)

251
Q

What is the function of the SLAVE switch?

A

Slaves the selected sight and/or provides cueing to the currently selected acquisition source. The SLAVE state remains on until the SLAVE switch is toggled off or an acquisition selection is made.

(AH-64D Sighting System Student Handout, p.D-25)

252
Q

To use auto ranging, the crewmember must ensure that the aircraft is at least ____________ AGL and that there is at least a ____________ look-down angle, based on the aircraft ADL. If these criteria are not met, the auto range will default to ____________.

A

5 meters, -0.1°, A50.0

(AH-64D Sighting System Student Handout, p.D-45)

253
Q

True or False: The secondary WP monitors the bus traffic to maintain coordination with the primary WP such that in the event of a failure the secondary WP can take over as primary.

A

True.

(-10-2, p.2-125: 2-100, c.)

254
Q

What data is transmitted to all selected subscribers when the crew selects the SEND button for a FARM report?

A

FARM (Fuel, Ammo, Rockets, and Missiles). The information sent is the Callsign (5 characters), Date (month, day, year), Present Position (Lat/Long), Elevation (feet), Fuel Quantity (Lbs), Gun (rounds present and quantity), Rockets (launcher present and quantity), Hellfire missiles (quantity of SAL1, SAL2, and RF), Quantity of all ASE expendables, and LAND RTE.

(-10-2, p.3-56: 3-18, aj.)

255
Q

When is the “PSN” button displayed?

A

When the estimated radial position error of the primary EGI is greater than 50 meters (0.050KM). (-10-2, p.3-94: 3-38, o.)

256
Q

The control measure file is made up of _____ points. The valid range for the point numbers is _____ to _____ and _____ to _____.

A

900, 51, 99, 100, 950

(-10-2, p.3-100: 3-39, h.)

257
Q

The TSD FCR footprint will change from ________ lines to ________ lines when the FCR is scanning.

A

green, white

(-10-2, p.3-100: 3-39, o.)

258
Q

When a threat is detected by the ASE, an ASE threat symbol is displayed along the ________________________ of the ASE footprint symbol within the map area to indicate azimuth (relative direction) and threat type information on the TSD page.

A

inside perimeter

(-10-2, p.3-102: 3-39, aa.)

259
Q

The COORD Acquisition Selection Buttons, located on __________, are used to select a point (waypoint, hazard, control measure, target, threat, or system point) as an acquisition source.

A

L1-L6

(-10-2, p.3-126: 3-50, e.)

260
Q

The shot-at locations file is capable of storing up to _____ shot-at locations on _____ display pages of _____ points per page. The first _____ locations are reserved for targets shot-at by the ownship. The last _____ locations are reserved for targets shot-at by other aircraft.

A

128, 26, 6, 16, 112

(-10-2, p.3-128: 3-53)

261
Q

If a FARM report is received and the call sigh matches a FARM report currently in the system, what will occur?

A

The FARM report currently in the system will be overwritten by the new FARM report. (-10-2, p.3-128: 3-53)

262
Q

Will FCR targets detected within the active no fire zones (NFZ’s) be prioritized?

A

No.

(-10-2, p.3-130: 3-55)

263
Q

What are the available size selections for a Target Reference Point (TRP) Priority Fire Zone? What is the default size?

A

1 to 3 kilometers. The default size is 2 kilometers.

(-10-2, p.3-131: 3-55, d. 3 a)

264
Q

A maximum of _____ priority fire zones (PFZ’s) and _____ no fire zones (NFZ’s) can be created/displayed on the TSD.

A

8, 8

(-10-2, p.3-132: 3-55, p.)

265
Q

Describe the Weapon Action Switch (WAS) Logic. What is the one exception to the rule?

A

The last crewmember to action a weapon has control of that weapon. The exception is if the CPG has rockets action via the LHG WAS and the pilot actions rockets, cooperative moding is in effect. (-10-2, p.4-6: 4-5, d. 3 a 2)

266
Q

If the pilot links the TADS to the FCR, the TADS FOV will automatically change to ________ if DTV is the selected sensor, or ________ if FLIR is the selected sensor.

A

wide, medium

(-10-2, p.4-13: 4-7, d. 3 b 2)

267
Q

During Manual Range entry, the range is from __________ to __________ in __________ increments. The Display range is _____ to _____ in km and tenths of km increments (MXX.X).

A

100 m, 50,000 m, 1 meter, 0.1, 50.0

(-10-2, p.4-15: 4-9, d. 1)

268
Q

Entering _____ on the KU selects automatic range for the WP.

A

A

(-10-2, p.4-15: 4-9, d. 2)

269
Q

The default range for the CPG is __________, and __________ for the pilot.

A

3.0 km, 1.5 km

(-10-2, p.4-15: 4-9, g. 1 / 2)

270
Q

The Bobup Box shows an approximately ____________ area on the ground. Maximum displacement to the edge of the format represents approximately ________ laterally and/or longitudinally.

A

12 ft square, 40 ft

(-10-2, p.4-23: 4-11, g. 2)

271
Q

Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the Sight Status field of the High Action Display?

Why or why not?

A

No. This is a safety inhibit and cannot be overridden by the flight crew. (-10-2, p.4-32, 4-6: 4-13, a. tab.4-1)

272
Q

What message would the CPG expect to see in the Sight Status field of the HAD if the SAL priority missile channel does not match LRFD code?

A

REMOTE.

(-10-2, p.4-33: 4-13, a. tab.4-1)

273
Q

What does the message “LIVE AMMO” in the Weapon Inhibit Status field mean?

A

Live ammunition has been detected (or gun round entered in rounds counter) when powering up TESS missile. Safety inhibit. (-10-2, p.4-40: 4-13, f. tab.4-6)

274
Q

When the weapon training mode is active, or TESS is enabled, and the armament control is in the ARM state and a weapon is actioned in either crew station, what is displayed in the Weapon Inhibit Status field?

A

TRAINING

(-10-2, p.4-40: 4-13, f. tab.4-6)

275
Q

Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the Weapon Inhibit Status field of the High Action Display? Why or why not?

A

No. This is a safety inhibit and cannot be overridden by the flight crew. (-10-2, p.4-41: 4-13, f. tab.4-8)

276
Q

What happens to the MTADS if Laser Spot Tracker (LST) is in Automatic or Manual and the LST receives properly coded energy?

A

When laser energy of the selected code is detected by the LST, it will auto-track the MTADS about the laser energy spot.

(-10-2, p.4-47: 4-15, c.)

277
Q

The __________ is used for the transmission of the FCR NTS target data via the IDM to another Longbow or Air Force Application Program Development (AFAPD) capable system.

A

RFHO

(-10-2, p.4-54: 4-15, j. 7)

278
Q

RFI symbols representing RFI detected emitters are displayed on the ____________ of the radar scan sector to indicate the direction to the detected threat. Up to _____ RFI symbols can be displayed.

A

periphery, 10

(-10-2, p.4-55: 4-15, k. 3)

279
Q

A maximum of _____ FCR target symbols are displayed on the FCR page for a given scan. These symbols represent the ____________________ targets detected and classified for that scan.

A

16, highest priority

(-10-2, p.4-55: 4-15, k. 4)

280
Q

A scan wiper symbol is displayed within the scan sector when the FCR is scanning. It is displayed in __________ during single scans and in __________ during continuous scans.

A

white, green

(-10-2, p.4-56: 4-15, k. 7)

281
Q

What does the ZOOM VIEW on the video page present?

A

A 2:1 electronic zoom of the wide image.

(-10-2, p.4-78: 4-22, a. 6 c)

282
Q

Does the COLOR button on the VIDEO page serve the same function as the Day/Night/Mono knob on the MPD bezel? What is the default video color?

A

No. White.

(-10-2, p.4-78: 4-22, a. 8)

283
Q

What happens if you place the SYMB Button (B2) to the BOOST position?

A

BOOST will darken the video underlay to boost the apparent symbol brightness.

(-10-2, p.4-78: 4-22, a. 10

284
Q

Selecting the GUN, MSL or RKT button from the top level WPN page will cause that icon to _________________________ and display the appropriate controls.

A

become inverse video

(-10-2, p.4-100: 4-28, a. 5 / 6 / 7)

285
Q

What does the cross-hatch symbol coding in the ARM/SAFE status window indicate?

A

Cross-hatched symbol coding is added to the status window when a weapon is actioned in that crew station.

ARM/SAFE status is common to both crew stations.

(-10-2, p.4-100: 4-28, b. 1 c)

286
Q

The ground stow mode commands the pylons to a stow position (_____) so that the wing stores are _______________ with the ground (level terrain).

A

-5°, parallel

(-10-2, p.4-107: 4-33, b. 1)

287
Q

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is ____________. The effective range with MK 66 rocket motors is ____________.

A

800 meters, 1 to 3 Km

(-10-2, p.4-108: 4-34, b. NOTE)

288
Q

Label the following SAL Missile Icons:

A
  1. SAL 2 laser missile present.
  2. Missile is unlatched on launcher.
  3. Missile has been detected as not available.
  4. Missile launcher station has failed.
  5. Missile has failed BIT or has been detected as failed subsequent to BIT.

(-10-2, p.4-113: 4-38, a. 3 fig.4-103)

289
Q

Label the HF icons:

A
  1. RF missile ready to receive target.
  2. RF missile has been detected in an over-temperature state.
  3. Missile has failed BIT or has been detected as failed subsequent to BIT.
  4. Missile seeker in tracking mode.
  5. Missile has been reported as hang fired.

(-10-2, p.4-114: 4-38, a. 3 fig.4-104)

290
Q

Is the Laser Spot Tracker (LST) capable of tracking PIM coded laser energy?

A

Yes. In order for the LRFD, LST and Hellfire subsystem to use a PIM laser code the appropriate keyword, for the specific code range, is required.

(-10-2, p.4-118: 4-40, a. 11 e 1)

291
Q

The weapon training mode is activated and deactivated using the TRAIN button on the WPN page. What two conditions must be met before the aircrew can enter or exit the weapon training mode?

A

The armament control is in SAFE and no weapon system is actioned.

(-10-2, p.4-124: 4-44, a.)

292
Q

The configuration of the laser sensors of the Laser Signal Detecting Set (LDS) provides for ________ of coverage in azimuth and ________ in elevation about the helicopter with substantial overlap.

A

360°, ±45°

(-10-2, p.4-128: 4-47, a.)

293
Q

How do you enter the WAR mode on the AN/ALQ 136?

A

The switch on the face of the unit must be moved from the TNG to the WAR mode and safety wired in the WAR position.

(-10-2, p.4-130: 4-49, b. 1 / 2)

294
Q

WARNING – The AN/ALQ-136(V)5 system poses a potential ____________________ to personnel due to its operation frequency range and transmitter output power. When the system is powered up, personnel should remain clear of the transmit antennae by a minimum of __________ to prevent overexposure to high frequency RF radiation and its corresponding effects.

A

RF radiation hazard, 10 feet

(-10-2, p.4-130: 4-49, b. WARNING)

295
Q

The Radar Jammer Icon is displayed as _________________________ in the center of the ____________________ whenever the Radar Jammer is transmitting.

A

a flashing lightning bolt, Ownship Icon

(-10-2, p.4-132: 4-53, k.)

296
Q

Where will an uncorrelated Radar Warning Receiver (RWR) target symbol be displayed?

A

Uncorrelated RWR target symbols are identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship.

Displays the same as others (may or may not be boxed) but bearing unknown. (-10-2, p.4-133: 4-53, o. 5)

297
Q

The RJAM button enables the Radar Jammer. When powered on, the Radar Jammer will begin to function after a _______________ warmup period. While in the warmup mode, a status window will display ________.

A

three-minute, STBY

(-10-2, p.4-133: 4-54, d.)

298
Q

What page would you change the ASE AUTOPAGE selection or the VOICE threshold for the ASE voice warning?

A

ASE UTIL

(-10-2, p.4-133, 4-134: 4-54, f.)

299
Q

During preflight, and after all live fires when the AWS was used, the barrel will be inspected for __________. Failure to inspect the barrel properly may result in a ruptured barrel and could result in catastrophic damage to the AH-64 and/or injury to the crew.

A

cracks

(-10-2, p.8-2: 8-7, a. WARNING)

300
Q
A

HGST, 3-17 ARB, JAN 2015 (1 decks)

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