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HGST Flashcards

1
Q

What is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently, achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying equipment?

A

Destruction

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2
Q

What does destruction require?

A

Weapons to strike within lethal range of the target

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3
Q

What munition is well suited for destructive fires?

A

Hellfire missiles

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4
Q

What effect requires weapons effects to hit the target and cause damage to it?

A

Neutralization

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5
Q

Can neutralization be achieved by rounds that miss the target?

A

No

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6
Q

What effects limits the ability of enemy personnel to perform their mission?

A

Suppression

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7
Q

What are the five techniques of fire?

A

Hover, Running, Diving Low altitude bump, Diving/running IP

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8
Q

What is maximum effective range (RMe)?

A

The distance at which there is a 50% probability of both hitting and defeating the target.

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9
Q

_____ is the most useful weapons range for tactical planning and is dependent upon munition characteristics, desired munition effects and target type.

A

RMe

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10
Q

What are the four types of ballistics?

A

IEAT

Interior, Exterior, Aerial, Terminal

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11
Q

What is the definition of ballistics?

A

The science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion.

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12
Q

What are the interior ballistics?

A

BLTPP

Barrel wear, Launcher tube misalignment, Thrust misalignment, Propellant charge, Projectile weight

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13
Q

____________ influence the motion of the projectile as it moves along its trajectory. The trajectory is the flight path of the projectile as it flies from the muzzle of the weapon to the point of impact. Aerial fired weapons share the same ___________ characteristics associated with ground fired weapons.

A

Exterior Ballistics

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14
Q

What are the exterior ballistics?

A

GAPW

Gravity, Air resistance, Projectile drift, Wind drift

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15
Q

What are the aerial ballistics?

A

RAT

Rotor down-wash error, angular rate error, turning bank error

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16
Q

What is projectile jump?

A

1.This occurs when a round is shot with the muzzle pointing anywhere but into the relative wind.

2.The round experiences an initial yaw as it leaves the muzzle.

  1. The jump is the result of the change in axis of rotation from the crosswind.
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17
Q

Firing to the right of the relative wind produces what?

A

A downward jump

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18
Q

Firing to the left of the relative wind produces what?

A

An upward jump

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19
Q

Angular rate error is caused by the ___________ in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon.

A

Motion

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20
Q

The amount of angular rate error depends on range to the target and the ___________.

A

Rate of motion

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21
Q

Whenever ____________ is in progress and a fresh range update is available from the LRV, the TSE updates target states and co-variances.

A

Continuous Lasing

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22
Q

When continuous lasing is not in progress, how does TSE work?

A

The TSE extrapolates target states based on the last valid range measurement

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23
Q

What are the inputs for TSE?

A

PTAT

  1. Processed range data from laser range validator
  2. TADS LOS vector, pitch and yaw rates
  3. Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI
  4. Thumbforce controller inputs
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24
Q

Prior to conducting a dynamic engagement, the CPG should verify a solid asterisk is displayed in front of the laser range for at least ___________.

A

3-5 seconds

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25
The TSE continues to provide dynamic range data for a ballistic solution for __________ after the second detent is released.
10 seconds
26
Does an Army Aviation 5-Line require a JTAC?
No
27
Transmission of the Army Aviation 5 Line is clearance unless _______.
"Danger Close", "At My Command", or an additional method of control is stated.
28
What are the parts and transmissions of the Artillery Call For Fire?
1st Transmission: Callsign Warning Order 2nd Transmission: Target Location 3rd Transmission: Target Description Method of Engagement method of Control
29
What does TPMR stand for?
Technique Pattern Munition Range
30
What are some patterns you could use for TPMR?
Race Track Butterfly 45 degree Circular Clover Leaf Figure 8 L-Pattern
31
What are the possible team member responsibilities for TPMR?
Shooter/Cover Shooter/Shooter Looker/Shooter
32
What are the three levels of safe?
1. Weapons Trigger Released 2. Weapons Action Switch Deselected 3. Arm/Safe Button -Safe
33
What are the REDS for the M789 Round?
500 meter = 55 meters 1000 meters = 70 meters 1500 meters = 100 meters
34
30-MM engagement at distances greater than ______ can be heard by dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.
2,000 meters
35
What are the visual markings of the M788?
Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings
36
What are the criteria for AWS dynamic harmonization?
1. Aircraft heading to Target within +/- 5 of the TADS LOS 2. Range to target 500-1500 meters, 1000 meters is preferred 3. Harmonization correctors transcribed to green book
37
The M789 HEPD round can pierce an excess of ___ inches of Rolled Homogenous Armor at ________.
2 in at 2500 meters
38
What is the fragmentation radius of the M789?
4 meters
39
What is the 30mm TOF at 2000 meters?
5.8 seconds
40
Where should the DMPI be aimed when engaging vehicle targets with the gun?
Center Mass
41
Where should the DMPI be aimed when engaging exposed personnel with the gun?
Offset and/or short
42
What is the gun duty cycle?
1. Six 50 rounds bursts with 5 seconds in between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period 2. For burst limits other than 50, no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes.
43
What are the burst limits for the gun?
10, 20, 50, 100, or ALL
44
What is the warning associated with the 30MM gun?
If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ten minutes and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
45
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ___ to prevent dig-in during elevation.
+11 in elevation
46
What is the maximum effective range of the gun?
1500-1700 meters
47
What is the very effective range of the gun?
3000 meters
48
What is the max ballistic solution of the gun?
4200 meters
49
What will the AWS continue to follow while operating in NVS fixed mode?
IHADSS LOS
50
How many rounds can be stored in the IAFS?
242 rounds in the magazine 58 rounds in the AHS 300 rounds total
51
What are the REDS for 2.75 in HE (M151/M229)
300 meters = 110 meters 800 meters = 135 meters 1,500 meters = 170 meters
52
What are the REDs for 2.75 in flechette (M255)
1,000 meters = 235
53
What are the REDs for APKWS
All = 105 meters
54
What is the minimum range to fire an M255 flechette?
800 meters
55
What is the effective range of a flechette with MK66 motors?
1-3 Km
56
Re-inventory and attempting to fire 6MP, 6FL, and 6SK rockets after a NO-FIRE event is not reccommended due to significant impact on accuracy. Rockets should not be used for at least ________ to allow the fuze to reset.
10 days
57
What color is the M151 warhead?
Olive drab with a yellow band and yellow or black markings
58
How can we increase hit probability with unguided munitions?
Hit probability is increased with running/diving fire and close range.
59
What is the visual appearance of the M255 flechette rocket?
Olive drab with white diamond markings
60
______ range shots will result in improved penetration performance of the flechettes.
Short Range
61
The M257 provides how much illumination for how long?
Approximately 1 million candlepower for a minimum of 100 seconds
62
At what range is the M257 candle deployed?
3500 meters
63
The M278 provides how much IR illumination for how long?
Approximately 1 million candle power for 150-210 seconds
64
What is the accel limit associated with the rockets?
If the vertical acceleration is less than .5 G's it may cause the main rotor blades to obstruct the trajectory of the rockets.
65
When is the fixed mode of firing rockets preferable?
The fixed mode is best utilized in a diving or running flight profile against targets at 2000 meters or less
66
What is the RED for an AGM-114 FA/K/L/M/N/P2A
115 meters
67
What is the RED for an AGM-114R?
130 meters
68
What is the RED for an AGM-114R2?
145 meters
69
Rotating the aircraft just before launch ___________. Prevents the missile from flying through the designator field of view.
3-5 degrees in the direction of the missile to be fired
70
What are the laser distractors?
USABOBBEP Underspill Spot Jitter Attenuation Back Scatter Overspill Boresight Error Beam Divergence Podium Effect Entrapment
71
What is the min/max range for a legacy HFII LOBL?
500/1200 - 7100
72
What is the min/max range for a legacy HFII LOAL D/L?
1500/1700 - 7100
73
What is the min/max range for a legacy HFII LOAL-H?
3500/3500 - 8000
74
What is the min/max range for an enhanced HFII LOBL?
500/1200 - 7100
75
What is the min/max range for an enhanced HFII LOAL D/L?
1500/2000 - 7100
76
What is the min/max range for an enhanced HFII LOAL-H?
2000/2500 - 8000
77
What is the min/max range for an enhanced HFII LOAL-H HOB?
2500/3000 - 6500
78
How many seconds per km for HF TOF?
Roughly 4 seconds
79
Where should the LOS be placed when aiming at a tank?
The base of the turret yield optimal munitions effects
80
What are the three possible methods used to engage a target with an RF missile in LOAL mode?
1. Using the FCR as the sight 2. Receiving an RFHO 3. TADS RF Handover
81
When firing a LOAL TADS HO, the crew should attempt to fire the missile no longer than __________ after the TARGET DATA? message disappears
5-7 seconds
82
Does the constraints box size directly correlate to an angle?
No
83
For Legacy HF missiles what are the allowable angles?
LOBL - 20 LOAL - 7.5
84
For JAGM and R SAL missiles what are the allowable angles?
LOBL - 20 LOAL - 30
85
For RF missiles what are the allowable angles?
LOAL + LOBL: 20 degrees unless range is less than 1km, then it is 5 degrees
86
Where are the MRFI threat symbols displayed on the FCR page?
On the periphery of the radar scan sector.
87
How many MRFI symbols can be displayed on the FCR page?
Up to 10
88
What is the definition of fratricide?
Fratricide is the employment of friendly weapons and munitions with the intent to kill the enemy or destroy his equipment or facilities, which results in unforeseen and unintentional death or injury to friendly personnel.
89
What contributes to fratricide?
METTT Mission Enemy Terrain and environmental conditions Troops and equipment Time
90
What prevents fratricide?
Doctrine
91
Angels
Height of FRIENDLY aircraft in thousands of feet MSL
92
Capture
Object has been acquired and is being tracked
93
Saunter
Fly at best endurance
94
Danger Close
FRIENDLY troops are within 0.1% probability of incapacitation from the target.
95
Mud
Radar warning receiver indication of surface threat in track mode
96
Popeye
1. Flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility 2. Reduced EO/IR visibility due to atmospherics
97
Remington
No ordnance remaining except gun or self protection ammunition
98
Rifle
Friendly A/S missile launch
99
Ripple
Two or more munition will be released or fired in quick succession. Associated with number and type of weapon with release interval.
100
Blind
No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship or ground position. Opposite of VISUAL.
101
No Joy
Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY.
102
Tally
Sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft or ground position or ship. Opposite of NO JOY.
103
Visual
Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position, or ship. Opposite of BLIND.
104
Stare
Cue the laser spot search or tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point.
105
What composes a WEZ?
Rmin Rmax AZ/EL TOF
106
Where will an illumination rocket body land in relation to where the illumination is deployed?
700-1200 meters beyond
107
Normal Rocket Steering Cursor
108
Inhibited Rocket Steering Cursor
109
Fixed rocket steering cursor
110
Ground stow rocket steering cursor
111
Predicted Impact Vector
112
1. Target Range Indicator 2. Dynamic Launch Zone

Gunnery (2 decks)

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