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HESI PRACTICE Flashcards

1
Q

When is tooth eruption complete?

A. Tooth has made contact with its antagonist in opposing jaw.
B. Crown is complete and emerges from alveolar gingiva.
C. Root formation is complete.
D. Root is completely covered with cementum.

A

A. Tooth has made contact with its antagonist in opposing jaw.

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2
Q

When does mixed dentition begin?

A. Eruption of first permanent tooth.
B. Shedding of first primary tooth.
C. Shedding of first primary tooth.

A

A. Eruption of first permanent tooth.

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3
Q

Which is the number of successional (succedaneous) teeth in the permanent dentition?

A. 32
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20

A

D. 20

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4
Q

The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge.

A. The first statement is true and the second is false.

B. Both statements are true.

C. The first statement is false and the second is true.

D. Both statements are false.

A

A. The first statement is true and the second is false.

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5
Q

What factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?

A. Discoloration.
B. Regeneration.
C. Decreased fluoride content.
D. Reduced permeability

A

D. Reduced permeability

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6
Q

Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar?

A. Central
B. Mesial
C. Buccal
D. Distolingual

A

D. Distolingual

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7
Q

Which is true regarding the height of contour of a tooth?

A. Also considered cementoenamel junction.

B. Location is on mesial or distal surfaces.

C. Involves area of least contour on tooth surface.

D. Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically.

A. Also considered cEJ

B. Location is on mesial or distal surfaces.

C. Involves area of least contour on tooth surface.

D. Greatest elevation of tooth either incisovervically or occlusocervically.

A

D. Greatest elevation of tooth either incisovervically or occlusocervically.

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8
Q

Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incisal edge or angle?

A

IV

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9
Q

Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars?

A. Mesial marginal.
B. Distal marginal
C. Oblique.
D. Transverse.

A

C. Oblique

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10
Q

Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve?

A

VII

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11
Q

Which division of the 5th cranial nerve innervates the TMJ?

A

Mandibular

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12
Q

Which salivary gland is unencapsulated?

A. Submandibular
B. Sublingual
C. Lacrimal
D. Parotid

A

B. Sublingual

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13
Q

Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion?

A. Somatic; sympathetic

B. Autonomic; sympathetic

C. Autonomic; parasympathetic

D. Somatic; parasympathetic

A

B. Autonomic; sympathetic

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14
Q

Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva.

A. Both statements are false

B. Both statements are true

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

A

D. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

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15
Q

Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions?

A. Anaerobic
B. Acid-fast
C. Aciduric
D. Anerobic

A

C. Aciduric

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16
Q

Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis?

A. Flagellum
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Cell wall
D. Capsule

A

D. Capsule

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17
Q

Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions?

A. Acidophils
B. Mesophils
C. Psychrophils
D. Thermophils

A

C. Psychrophils

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18
Q

Endotoxin is a virulence property of….

A. yeasts.
B. gram-negative bacteria
C. filamentous fungi
D. DNA viruses

A

B. gram-negative bacteria

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19
Q

Which is treated with nystatin?

A. Actinomycosis
B. Dental caries
C. Tuberculosis
D. Candidiasis

A

D. Candidiasis

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20
Q

Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine?

A. Anti-HBs
B. HBc antigen
C. HBs antigen
D. Anti-HBe

A

A. Anti-HBs

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21
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves?

A. II
B. IV
C. III
D. I

A

D. I

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22
Q

Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Ethambutol
B. Isonizaid
C. Rifampin
D. Nizoral

A

D. Nizoral

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23
Q

Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication?

A. Bicuspid valve disease
B. Repaired congenital heart disease
C. Mitral valve prolapse
D. Atrial septal defect

A

B. Repaired congenital heart disease

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24
Q

It is noted on the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, rheumatic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic premedication?

A. Mitral valve prolapse
B. Renal dialysis shunt
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Stent

A

B. Renal dialysis shunt

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25
Q

Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide?

A. Cobalamin
B. Niacin
C. Riboflavin
D. Ascorbic acid

A

A. Cobalamin

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26
Q

Consuming foods high in retinols will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium.

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

B. The statement is correct, but the reason is not

C. Neither the treatment nor the reason is correct

D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct

E. Both the statement and reason are correct but not related

A

E. Both the statement and reason are correct but not related

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27
Q

Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C?

A. Steak, brown rice, corn

B. Hamburger, french fries, strawberries

C. Pork chop, broccoli, rice

D. Spaghetti with tomato sauce, garlic, cantaloupe

A

A. Steak, brown rice, corn.

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28
Q

Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates?

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon
D. Iron

A

B. Nitrogen

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29
Q

Some of vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of…

A. Calcium
B. Intestinal bacteria
C. Carotene
D. Sunlight

A

B. Intestinal bacteria

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30
Q

Which vitamin is associated with the deficiency beriberi?

A. Thiamin
B. Biotin
C. Riboflavin
D. Niacin

A

A. Thiamin

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31
Q

A patient’s intraoral examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures approx. 2 mm in diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. Which best describes the lesion?

A. Adenoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Gumma
D. Papilloma

A

B. Hemangioma

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32
Q

Which infectious disease is NOT caused by the coxsackievirus?

A. Hand-foot-mouth disease
B. Verruca vulgaris
C. Herpangina
D. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis

A

D. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis

33
Q

A patient’s buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. this finding is a clinical manifestation of…..

A. pseudomembranous candidiasis

B. white sponge nevus

C. tobacco pouch keratosis

D. lichen planus

A

D. lichen planus

34
Q

Which best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris?

A. Viral infection
B. Autoimmune response
C. Smoking
D. Trauma

A

D. Trauma

35
Q

The most common tumor if the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on the floor of the mouth.

A. Both statements are false

B. The first statement is false and the second is true

C. Both statements are true

D. The first statement is true and the second is false

A

B. The first statement is false and the second is true

36
Q

Which description best explains the phenomenon of referred pain?

A. Psychosomatic

B. Thermoreceptor conflict with exteroceptors

C. Convergence of sensory nerve impulses

D. Location of pain receptors

A

C. Convergence of sensory nerve impulses

37
Q

Which results will ensue if a kilovolt peak below 65 is used when exposing radiographs?

A. Focal-film distance must be increased.

B. Diagnostic digital image does not result

C. Overall darker film density results.

D. Exposure to radiation is increased.

A

D. Exposure to radiation is increased.

38
Q

Each of the following compounds is used to fluoridate domestic water systems EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Sodium fluoride

B. Acidulated phosphate

C. Sodium silicofluoride

D. Hydrofluorosilicic acid

A

B. Acidulated phosphate

Acidulated phosphate is an in-office, professional topical fluoride.

39
Q

In addition to bleeding, which other characteristic describes a mild case of gingivitis?

A. Pocket depths measuring 6mm

B. Areas of pseudo pocketing

C. Presence of fibrotic gingival tissues and cementum exposure

D. Mobility

A

B. Areas of pseudo pocketing

40
Q

Each of the following is true concerning professionally applied topical fluoride in a tray EXCEPT one. Which on eis the EXCEPTION?

A. Ask patient to rinse thoroughly following the application to prevent ingestion.

B. Dispense 2 ml of fluoride in tray

C. Apply fluoride for 4 mins

D. Use saliva ejector to help hold trays in place.

A

A. Ask patient to rinse thoroughly following the application to prevent ingestion.

The patient should not rinse following the application of fluoride

41
Q

After taking a periapical of tooth #24 using the paralleling technique, the dental hygienist notices the image appears elongated. How would the dental hygienist correct this error?

A. Decrease positive vertical angulation

B. Decrease negative vertical angulation

C. Increase negative vertical angulation

D. Increase positive vertical angulation.

A

C. Increase negative vertical angulation

When taking a PA of tooth #24, a negative vertical angle must be used. If the tooth appears long and distorted (elongated), then the negative vertical angulation was insufficient and the angle needs to be increased. If the negative vertical angle was excessive, the image appears foreshortened with short blunted roots. Positive vertical angulation is used for maxillary periapicals.

42
Q

Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient recognize a problem and indicate a tentative inclination toward action?

A. Involvement

B. Action

C. Awareness

D. Self-interest

A

D. Self-interest

43
Q

Where on the learning ladder is the patient motivated to act on the information provided?

A. Action
B. Self-Interest
C. Involvement
D. Awareness

A

C. Involvement

44
Q

Pain threshold is the point at which an uncomfortable stimulus is perceived as painful. Pain tolerance is the maximum amount of pain a person can tolerate.

A The first statement is false and the second is true

B. Both statements are false

C. Both statements are true

D. The first statement is true and the second is false

A

C. Both statements are true

45
Q

Which oral hygiene index includes all teeth in the assessment and is used for plaque visualization and oral hygiene motivation?

A. Oral Debris Index (DI)

B. O’Leary’s Plaque Control Record

C. Patient Hygiene Performance (PHP)

D. Simplified Oral Hygiene Index (OHI-S)

A

B. O’Leary’s Plaque Control Record

O’Leary’s Plaque Control Record records the presence of plaque on all individual tooth surfaces.

The DI measures the presence of debris on select teeth.

The PHP assesses the extent of plaque and debris over a single tooth surface.

The OHI-S divides thedentitition into sextants and selects one tooth from each sextant with the greatest amount of debris of calc.

46
Q

Which is classified as an acquired disability?

A. Fetal alcohol syndrome.

B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Cerebral palsy

D. Chromosomal abnormality

A

B. Multiple sclerosis

The other three options are classified as developmental disabilities.

47
Q

Which sequence of debridement is recommended for moderate periodontitis?

A. Sextant SRP in 6 treatment appointments

B. Quadrant SRP in 4 treatment appointments

C. Full-mouth debridement in 1 treatment appointment

D. Half-mouth debridement in 2 treatment appointments

A

B. Quadrant SRP in 4 treatment appointments

48
Q

True or false.

Sutures are always knotted on buccal surfaces.

A

True

49
Q

Periodontal dressings are used to stop gingival bleeding after periodontal surgery. Surgical wounds heal more quickly when protected by periodontal dressing.

A. The first statement is false and the second is true

B. Both statements are true.

C. Both statements are false

D. The first statement is true and the second is false

A

C. Both statements are false

50
Q

Which are side effects of locally administered antibiotics?

A. Nonexistent

B. Terminal

C Numerous

D. Common

A

A. Nonexistent

51
Q

Which assesses fremitus?

A. Vertical bitewing x-rays

B. Handles of 2-sided instruments

C. Occlusal indicator paper (mylar strip)

D. Clinician’s index finger

A

D. Clinician’s index finger

52
Q

Which ASA classification is assigned to a patient with controlled angina pectoris?

A. II
B. IV
C. III
D. I

A

C. III

53
Q

Which defines right and wrong conduct?

A. Values
B. Beliefs
C. Ethics
D. Actions

A

C. Ethics

54
Q

A plaintiff cannot use the the testimony of a specialist to establish the standard of care for a general dentist because the courts require all dentists to properly diagnose disease.

A. The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

B. The statement is not correct but the reason is correct.

C. Neither the statement not the reason is correct.

D. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.

A

D. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.

55
Q

The dental hygienist speaks privately with the dentist regarding over-prescribing radiographs for a patient. Which ethical responsibility does this acknowledge?

A. Equity
B. Fairness
C. Freedom of speech
D. Autonomy

A

D. Autonomy

56
Q

The dental hygienist attempts to view the dentist’s directive to expose radiographs every 6 months. Which is evident?

A. Acceptance
B. Empathy
C. Responsiveness
D. Sympathy

A

B. Empathy

Empathy is the attempt to place oneself in another’s position.

57
Q

Each of the following should be included in a dismissal letter EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Documentation

B. Financial details and payment method

C. Severance of relationship.

Facts that include diagnosis and treatment agreement.

A

B. Financial details and payment method

58
Q

Which is the best reason to maintain a separate incident file for documenting irrational or belligerent patient behavior?

A. Dentist-client-attorney privilege

B. Patient pays nominal fee for copy

C. Insurance purposes

D. Dental records are owned by patient

A

A. Dentist-client-attorney privilege

The best reason to maintain a separate incident file is to honor the dentist-client-attorney privilege in the wake of a potential litigious situation

59
Q

The dentist cannot be held liable for acts by employees because the patient must prove the dentist knew the employee was incompetent.

A. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

B. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

C. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

D. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.

A

C. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

60
Q

Which polishing method is least damaging to enamel?

A. Rubber-cup using medium grit followed by fine grit

B. Air-powder using sodium bicarbonate and water

C. Rubber-cup using tin oxide

D. Bristle brush using pumice and water.

A

B. Air-powder using sodium bicarbonate and water

61
Q

Which technique produces the most accurate alginate impression?

A. Mix alginate powder in cool water

B. Rock tray gently to release it from the patient’s mouth once the material is set.

C. Reduce the amount of water to speed gelation

D. Allow impression to dry completely before pouring it up with gypsum

A

A. Mix alginate powder in cool water

62
Q

A thin layer of uncured resin which forms on the surface of a newly-cured sealant should be removed with gauze or a cotton roll because this oxygen-inhibited layer is harmful to the patient.

A. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.

B. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

C. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related

D. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

A

D. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

63
Q

The operator is cautioned to close his or her eyes when curing materials because direct exposure to the intense blue light may damage the retina.

A. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

B. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.

C. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

A

D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

64
Q

Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) is a widely used chemotherapeutic rinse proven effective in reducing plaque and gingivitis. CHG is effective against gram-positive and gram negative bacteria.

A. The first statement is true and the second is false.

B. Both statements are false.

C. Both statements are true

D. The first statement is false na the second is true

A

C. Both statements are true

65
Q

Which is NOT a functional factor that contributes to the retention of dental biofilm?

A. Mouth breathing

B. Malocclusion

C. Tooth anatomy

D. Parafunctional habits

A

C. Tooth anatomy

Tooth anatomy is a local predisposing factor.

66
Q

According to the ASA, which classification of periodontal disease is generalized aggressive periodontitis?

A. III
B. IV
C. V
D. II

A

A. III

67
Q

In relation to disease transmission, which describes an improperly stored toothbrush?

A. Host
B. Pathogen
C. Fomite
D. Vector

A

C. Fomite

A fomite is an inanimate object capable of transmitting infectious agents.

68
Q

At which locality are x-ray photons created inside the dental x-ray tube?

A. Collimator
B. PID
C. Cathode
D. Anode

A

D. Anode

The purpose of the anode is to convert electrons into x-ray photons.

69
Q

Increasing the exposure time on the x-ray control panel will have the same affect on the resultant image as increasing which other radiation control?

A. Distance
B. Amount of filtration
C. Kilovoltage peak
D. Milliamperage

A

D. Milliamperage

Both milliamperage and exposure time have a direct influence on the number of electrons produced by the cathode filament. kVp affects the penetrating ability of the x-ray beam. An increase in the distance will decrease the intensity of the x-ray beam. Filtration affects the penetrating ability of the x-ray beam

70
Q

Which has the greatest amount of radiation sensitivity?

A. Small lymphocyte
B. Skin
C. Liver tissue
D. Oral mucosa

A

A. Small lymphocyte

Because it is a cell with high mitotic activity and cell metabolism

71
Q

Which radiology concept is characterized by directing the central ray perpendicular to the image receptor and long axis of the tooth?

A. Receptor placement
B. Horizontal angulation
C. Finger-holding technique
D. Vertical angulation

A

D. Vertical angulation

72
Q

Which is the recommended vertical angulation, in degrees, for exposures of bitewing films with tabs?

A. 0
B. -10
C. 20
D. 10

A

D. 10

The vertical angulation of +10 degrees is used to compensate fo the slight bend of the upper portion of the film and the tilt of the maxillary teeth. The other choices do not correctly define the question

73
Q

Which tooth structure is least likely to be viewed on a dental radiograph?

A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Pulp

A

B. Cementum

74
Q

Which is true of phenolic disinfectant?

A. Toxic to touch
B. Corrosive to metals
C. Leaves residue on surfaces
D. Low level disinfectant

A

C. Leaves residue on surfaces

75
Q

Where does the base of a suprabony pocket lie?

A. above the crest of the alveolar bone

B. Adjacent to CEJ

C. Below the crest of the alveolar bone

D. Above the CEJ

A

A. above the crest of the alveolar bone

76
Q

Which ethical principle does informed consent uphold?

A. Beneficence
B. Patient’s Bill of Rights
C. Paternalism
D. Autonomy

A

D. Autonomy

77
Q

A 42-year-old patient presents to the dental office for periodontal care. The health history indicated she is currently undergoing cancer treatment. Which is recorded other than in the patient’s disease status information?

A. Severity of cancer
B. Previous cancer treatments
C. Type of cancer
D. Patient’s appearance due to cancer

A

D. Patient’s appearance due to cancer

78
Q

A 53-year-old patient returns to the dental office 5 weeks after non-surgical periodontal therapy for a re-eval. Although the tissue response is generally positive, the y hygienist notes one area of localized inflammation with bleeding on probing. Which action should the hygienist take?

A. Administer a professional fluoride treatment

B. REinforce self-care techniques and check area at next recall appointment

C. Selectively polish coronal surfaces

D. Explore site for residual calc deposits of plaque retentive factors.

A

D. Explore site for residual calc deposits of plaque retentive factors.

79
Q

Which describes the dental hygienist’s role in treating a person with ADHD?

A. Allow patient frequent breaks

B. Schedule at end of day

C. Allow patient involvement

D. Schedule longer appointments

A

C. Allow patient involvement

Hesi Practice (1 decks)

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