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Mod 13 Example Questions > Here we go > Flashcards

Here we go Flashcards

1
Q

The air/ground data link system that allows text messages to be sent and received is called the?

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC)

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2
Q

The benefit of the CPDLC system is that?

A

There is reduced voice channel congestion

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3
Q

Which On-board Information System (OIS) domain controls the WLAN?

A

Cabin and communication

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4
Q

The MEL in a Network Storage System (NSS) can be accessed via which two domains?

A

Flight ops and avionics

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5
Q

The communication link which connects the avionics domain in a NSS and the avionics systems is a?

A

Two-way secure link

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6
Q

A ‘soft copy’ of the cabin crew operating manual can be accessed via the?

A

FAP

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7
Q

The three information areas found in a NSS are?

A

Maintenance, flight and cabin

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8
Q

To stop access to the avionics domain from the cabin and flight domains in a NSS, there is a?

A

Open world diode

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9
Q

Cabin lighting, temperature and passenger calls are controlled from the?

A

FAP

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10
Q

The ‘fasten seat belt’ and ‘no smoking’ signs on the passenger service units are controlled from which area of the aircraft?

A

The flight deck

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11
Q

The following cabin function can be carried out in flight?

A

The configuration of individual cabin zones

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12
Q

On a FAP, there is no need to input an access code when?

A

Loading software

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13
Q

A FAP can change its cabin layout configuration?

A

On the ground only

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14
Q

The configuration of passenger seats and their associated function is carried out via the?

A

CIDS

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15
Q

Passenger network services, such as telephone or email access, would use what avionic system for the transfer of data?

A

SATCOM

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16
Q

Passenger information between the aircraft and ground is transferred by the?

A

CIDS

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17
Q

The passenger database will be located in the?

A

Cabin network system

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18
Q

The 3 typical IMA system domains are?

A

Cockpit, cabin and utilities

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19
Q

The ARINC 664 Part 7 message frame which occupies the smallest bandwidth is?

A

Implicit message

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20
Q

A FBW system transmits and receives data on an ARINC 664 Part 7 at a maximum of?

A

10 Mbps

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21
Q

An advantage of an IMA system is that?

A

Modifications are normally made by software upgrade

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22
Q

The data payload in a AFDX message contains 14 bits of information, it requires how many pad bits?

A

3

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23
Q

In an AFDX system, the switch follows which protocol?

A

First-in-first-out

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24
Q

The Redundancy Manager (RM) in an AFDX system is located in an AFDX?

A

Platform

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25
Q

The Application Programming Interface (API) in an AFDX platform is defined by?

A

ARINC 653

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26
Q

In an AFDX system, an explicit message?

A

Has the decoding instructions contained in the message

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27
Q

The ARINC 664 Part 7 data payloads are?

A

Between 1 and 1471 bytes in length, with a minimum of 17 bytes

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28
Q

ARINC 664 Part 7 pertains to?

A

Ethernet network standards operating at transmission rates of 100 Mbps

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29
Q

In an AFDX system, the queuing port?

A

Is where buffering of the data takes place

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30
Q

AFDX is also known as?

A

ARINC 664 Part 7

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31
Q

A CVR?

A

Is an orange coloured LRU, and has a beacon that emits a sonic pulse at a frequency of 37.5 kHz

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32
Q

A passenger call button is pressed?

A

The CIDS director sends a signal via DEU A to illuminate the overhead light

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33
Q

In the event of a cabin decompression?

A

IFE is activated to display emergency information only

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34
Q

During an EVAC command initiation, the signal to disable the door opening with slide armed lever comes from?

A

CIDS director

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35
Q

An EVAC command can be initiated from the?

A

FAP and cockpit

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36
Q

When replacing the battery in an ULB?

A

Incorrect polarity will permanently damage the unit

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37
Q

The ULB, as fitted to the CVR, will supply a?

A

Pulsed 37.5 kHz acoustic signal for up to 90 days and is powered by an integral battery connected to a water sensitive switch

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38
Q

Cabin exit signs?

A

Must have an emergency power source

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39
Q

Flight deck announcements have priority over?

A

All audio sources

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40
Q

To allow radio communications during an AC power failure situation, one of the VHF radios will be connected to which power supply to allow its uninterrupted operation?

A

Essential busbar

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41
Q

CVRs are fitted with a ULB, these are powered by?

A

A battery which requires periodic replacement

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42
Q

A complex IFE may use which techniques to reduce the amount of cabling required?

A

Data compression and TDM

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43
Q

The three A/T control circuits are?

A

Speed, vertical speed and thrust

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44
Q

When the A/T is engaged, the selection mode will be shown on the?

A

PFD

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45
Q

The A/T disconnect message will not show when?

A

On the ground with thrust reverser application

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46
Q

Manual control of the ailerons will be aided by?

A

Lateral Central Control Actuator (LCCA)

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47
Q

In an AFCS, the localiser deviation distance and rate?

A

Signals are derived from localiser acceleration and cross runway acceleration

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48
Q

A typical aircraft’s autopilot pitch trim systems operation is based on?

A

Elevator out of neutral position

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49
Q

Aircraft with well-damped Dutch roll modes could experience a degradation in damping as?

A

Airspeed decreases and altitude increases

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50
Q

In an automatic pitch trim system there are usually 2 motors to drive the control surface, one operates at a fast speed, the other a slow speed. The?

A

Slow speed operation is used by the AP system

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51
Q

Stabiliser movement with no auto-trim command is also known as?

A

Unscheduled trim

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52
Q

In a typical engaged Auto-flight system, the CWS force transducer will?

A

Convert a mechanical force to an electrical steering signal

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53
Q

Operation of the force trim switch in a typical helicopter autopilot system?

A

Removes forces in the cyclic and pedals whilst they move to a new position

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54
Q

A typical secondary flight control system has moveable control surfaces such as?

A

Flaps and slats

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55
Q

In an AP system, aileron to rudder cross-feed is achieved by applying the?

A

Yaw gyro output signal to both rudder and aileron channels

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56
Q

A simple 3 axis autopilot system will?

A

Keep the wings level, hold a course, maintain an altitude and control yaw

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57
Q

WRT ILS GS capture, the gain programmer operates, in late model APs?

A

IAW information from the RA

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58
Q

A helicopter AFCS system, a CofG trim switch signal is connected in?

A

Parallel with the stick sensor and adds or subtracts so that their combined output cancels the vertical gyro input

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59
Q

One characteristic of a series actuator is that it?

A

Moves the control surfaces but not the cockpit controls

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60
Q

The Dutch roll filter used on yaw damper systems operates with a demodulator and modulator in series, between which is an electronic circuit, which is a?

A

Narrow band filter featuring a differentiated output

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61
Q

When in LNAV mode?

A

The FMC locks out any Mode Control Panel (MCP) commands

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62
Q

ILS localiser beam capture is normally dependent on a change of bank angle command based on?

A

Groundspeed, intercept angle and distance from the beam

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63
Q

A control wheel action in roll, with the AP engaged, operates a transducer which outputs a signal?

A

To cancel attitude hold allowing the pilot gradual and increasing bank angle

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64
Q

Engaging an AP to ‘command’ with the flight director on causes the AP to?

A

Engage to the existing flight director mode except if the flight director is in Go-Around, command mode is heading hold

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65
Q

In a LCCA, the pressure regulator is designed to?

A

Allow manual control inputs to override AP inputs

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66
Q

ARINC 664 Part 7 pertains to?

A

An ethernet network standard, normally operating at 100 Mbps

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67
Q

How long does a GPS satellite take to complete one orbit of the Earth?

A

Approximately 12 hours

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68
Q

The units for present position entry in INS are?

A

Latitude and longitude

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69
Q

TCAS RA displays?

A

Solid red square with an audio warning giving instructions such as ‘descend’ or ‘climb’

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70
Q

The DME measures which range to the ground beacon?

A

Slant

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71
Q

RA transmits on a frequency of?

A

4200 MHz to 4400 MHz

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72
Q

A Radar system where the received signal is a reflection of the original transmitted signal is called a?

A

Primary radar

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73
Q

On a weather radar display, the colour that shows the worst weather is?

A

Red

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74
Q

An INS contains?

A

3 accelerometers

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75
Q

INS/IRS is able to calculate distance by?

A

Integrating acceleration twice

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76
Q

NAVSTAR GPS uses a minimum of?

A

21 satellites

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77
Q

The frequency range used for speech in airborne radio communication is?

A

300 Hz to 3 kHz

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78
Q

Personnel should be kept clear of HF antennas whilst they are transmitting because?

A

There is a danger of radio frequency burns

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79
Q

The HF frequency band is from?

A

3 MHz to 30 MHz

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80
Q

The power output of a typical VHF communication system is?

A

25 Watts

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81
Q

At jet cruising altitudes, the range of VHF transmissions is in the region of?

A

250 nm

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82
Q

The VHF international aeronautical distress frequency is?

A

121.5 MHz

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83
Q

Aircraft VHF communication systems use the frequency range of?

A

118 MHz to 136.995 MHz

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84
Q

To receive a vertically polarised RF signal, the antenna is required to be?

A

Vertical

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85
Q

When transmitting a VHF band signal, the length of the antenna (aerial) will be?

A

Shorter than the antenna used for a LF band

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86
Q

In a simple AM receiver, the?

A

Detector removes the carrier, and keeps the original modulating signal

87
Q

Micro Electro-Mechanical system (MEMS) sensor devices provide data for?

A

Structural health monitoring of the aircraft to sense damage such as fatigue cracks, impact damage and pitting

88
Q

A yaw damper system will?

A

Minimise the instability caused by Dutch roll

89
Q

If an AP is to be able to carry out automatic landings, it must be a?

A

Three axis system with A/T

90
Q

In an AP system, the attitude reference device is typically?

A

A gyro

91
Q

What colour of lamp illuminates when an ILS equipped aircraft flies over the ILS middle marker?

A

An amber light will illuminate

92
Q

In most modern ILS, there are?

A

Three airborne receivers

93
Q

In an AFCS, the yaw damper?

A

Counteracts the problem of Dutch roll

94
Q

The speech frequency range used in airborne radio communications is?

A

300 Hz to 3 kHz

95
Q

The DC tuning voltage in a frequency synthesizer is taken from the?

A

Frequency and phase comparator

96
Q

WRT AM, a SSB signal compared with a DSB signal will?

A

Save power, and have a smaller bandwidth

97
Q

If a superhet Rx is tuned to 8400 kHz, and the LO produces 7950 kHz, a second image channel frequency could be?

A

7500 kHz

98
Q

WRT HF comms, the skip distance will be?

A

Greatest during the night

99
Q

If the speed of the rotor in a turn and slip indicator is greater than normal, what would be the result?

A

It would overread

100
Q

What is the order of the main parts of a compass swing?

A

Correcting swing, calibration swing and complete documentation

101
Q

What are two reasons to carry out a compass swing?

A

When a new aircraft is received from the manufacturer and when certain components of the compass system have been replaced IAW the AMM

102
Q

A compass base with a maximum of?

A

0.1° deviation is class 1

103
Q

The voltage in the pick-off coil of each leg of a detector unit is due to?

A

The legs relative angle to the Earth’s magnetic field

104
Q

In a leg of a flux valve, the overall voltage in the pick off coil will be zero when?

A

The aircraft is 90° to the Earth’s magnetic field

105
Q

What is the purpose of the 3 crescent shaped slots in the detector unit?

A

To allow for adjustment of ‘A’ error

106
Q

How is ‘B’ error removed in a detector unit?

A

By a potentiometer, increasing or decreasing the strength of electromagnets

107
Q

How is ‘C’ error removed in a direct reading compass?

A

By corrector key adjusting permanent magnets

108
Q

What is a cause of ‘A’ error in an aircraft’s compass system?

A

The detector unit not aligned with the aircraft’s longitudinal axis

109
Q

‘A’ error in an aircraft’s compass system is?

A

The same when the aircraft is flying on all compass headings

110
Q

When an aircraft is in a climb, what represents the angle of climb? The angle between?

A

Inner and outer gimbal

111
Q

When an aircraft is in a roll, what represents the angle of roll? The angle between?

A

Outer gimbal and frame

112
Q

What provides roll erection cut out in a vertical gyro?

A

2 electrolytic switches in series

113
Q

A horizontal gyro at the North pole will drift at?

A

15° per hour

114
Q

If nutation occurs 5 minutes after gyro start up, this indicates?

A

A fault

115
Q

To avoid transport wander, a vertical gyro must?

A

Be earth-tied

116
Q

How is gimbal lock of a vertical gyro prevented?

A

Stops are fitted between the inner and outer gimbals at 85°

117
Q

When an aircraft does a loop, what happens to a vertical gyro?

A

Hit the stops and flips 180°

118
Q

Speed control of AC powered electrical gyros is done by?

A

The constant frequency of the aircraft’s power supply

119
Q

The ‘P’ component of the aircraft magnetic structure is known as?

A

‘B’ error and has maximum deviation when the aircraft is heading East or West

120
Q

The ‘Q’ component of the aircraft magnetic structure is known as?

A

‘C’ error and has maximum deviation when the aircraft is heading North or South

121
Q

In a servo-assisted altimeter, if the ‘warning flag’ appears, it means that?

A

There has been a power supply failure, or the servo mechanism has gone out of range

122
Q

WRT direct reading compasses, during an aircraft turn, what mechanical error relates to causing the needle to try and follow the aircraft’s movement?

A

Liquid swirl

123
Q

Which compass system uses a flux detector located at an extremity in the aircraft and an indicator?

A

Remote indicating compass

124
Q

Radio waves bend around the curvature of the Earth due to what?

A

Diffraction

125
Q

Where is the power supply for the no. 1 U/VHF transceiver taken from?

A

Battery busbar

126
Q

What is the channel by which applications communicate in an IMA system called?

A

Logical

127
Q

WRT a three-axis autopilot, ‘lateral cyclic pitch’ relates to which channel?

A

Roll channel

128
Q

Which AFCS mode of operation enables the pilot to manoeuvre the aircraft in pitch and roll without fully disengaging the AFCS?

A

CWS mode

129
Q

What does the yaw damper warning annunciator indicate?

A

The yaw damper system is not engaged in the operating mode

130
Q

A nose-up biased mis-trim induced below 600 feet (rad alt) causing a pitch up effect if the AP is disengaged is known as what?

A

A Cat 3 trim up bias (for Cat 3 autoland systems)

131
Q

In the event of a system failure, what will the autoland system operate as?

A

Fail-passive system

132
Q

Which mode of AFCS operation is necessary to permit an engagement of the channel without any violent manoeuvres of the aircraft?

A

Synchronisation mode

133
Q

What is the maximum elevation of the localiser signal?

A

7°

134
Q

The purpose of squelch is to?

A

Ensure that no background noise is heard under weak or no signal conditions

135
Q

Signal absorption by the ionosphere is greatest?

A

During the day

136
Q

In a 3 beam janus system, the beams are arranged such that?

A

The front left and rear beams give ground speed and the front left and front right beams give the aircraft’s drift from the centre line

137
Q

Most airborne Doppler radars transmit beams at angles of?

A

60° to 70°

138
Q

WRT radar receivers, if its reception bandwidth is narrowed?

A

The sensitivity will increase

139
Q

During an autopilot signal sent from the flight control computer to the elevator servo actuator, what will happen at the control column?

A

It will move in relation to the movement of the elevators

140
Q

When is VNav available for selection?

A

From take-off and may end at ILS approach

141
Q

When A/T is coupled to FLCH, when will it hold the N1 limit?

A

In the climb

142
Q

What supplies the feedback signal in the yaw damper to cancel the yaw rate gyro signal?

A

LVDT

143
Q

During localiser capture, if the estimated bank angle is less than 10 degrees, what will the outcome be?

A

Delayed 1 turn

144
Q

After G/S capture, what will the G/S deviation be attenuated by when the aircraft is approximately at 50 feet above the runway?

A

100%

145
Q

Engine pressure ratio feedback to the FMC in the A/T thrust management function occurs through which units?

A

EIUs

146
Q

How long will it take to capture the mode control panel altitude in FLCH mode?

A

125 seconds

147
Q

The control wheel is moved in roll with the AP engaged, this operates the transducer which outputs a signal to do what?

A

To cancel attitude hold allowing the pilot the gradual and increasing bank angle

148
Q

What is the purpose of the lag circuit, which is connected in series with the stick position sensor, in a helicopter’s AFCS roll channel?

A

Match the lag in the roll gyro output signal

149
Q

What are the three A/T control circuits?

A

Speed, vertical speed and thrust

150
Q

What is ‘dead space’?

A

Limit of ground wave reception and the first returning skywave

151
Q

What is the altimeter commonly set to below the transition height to allow the aircraft altitude to be easily compared with the height of the ground?

A

Local QNH

152
Q

What is meant by true altitude?

A

Actual height in feet of the aircraft AMSL

153
Q

What is meant by absolute altitude?

A

Actual height in feet of the aircraft AGL

154
Q

What does a computer use to calculate density altitude?

A

Pressure and temperature

155
Q

What are two benefits of the servo altimeter?

A
  • Accurate at lower altitudes
  • Can follow rates of climb and descent up to 6,000 ft per minute without any appreciable time lag
156
Q

WRT groundwaves, which type of frequency will be most affected by penetrations of the underlying terrain?

A

High frequency signals

157
Q

When will an RF wave become an escape ray?

A

If the RF wave passes over half way through an ionised layer before it is bent back (parallel) to the layer

158
Q

What is the typical efficiency of an aerial transmitting at high frequencies?

A

90%

159
Q

How far behind a directional aerial array will the reflector be placed?

A

A quarter wavelength behind the dipole

160
Q

Which type of transmission cable is most suitable to carry frequencies up to 1000 MHz

A

Coaxial cable

161
Q

What frequency range does a NDB cover?

A

190 kHz to 2 MHz

162
Q

What is antenna effect in an ADF system?

A

If the vertical limbs of a loop aerial are not balanced to earth, produces two minimum readings which are not true null points

163
Q

What is the modulation of the reference signal in VOR?

A

FM

164
Q

What is the spacing in VOR?

A

0.05 MHz

165
Q

Describe Cat A VOR?

A
  • 120 channels
  • 112 - 117.95 MHz
  • Normal en route navigation
  • 200 nm
  • 200 W
166
Q

What is the general allowance of error in VOR?

A

± 2°

167
Q

What is the purpose of ADS-B?

A

Surveillance technology which determines its position via satellite navigation and periodically broadcasts it, enabling it to be tracked

168
Q

What will extended squitter allow?

A

49 individual parameters to be sent

169
Q

Which type of navigation takes navigational reference data from aircraft systems and uses this information to fly along direct pre-programmed routes?

A

RNAV

170
Q

What is the accuracy of P-RNAV and what is it used for?

A

Terminal approaches

± 1nm for 95% of the time

171
Q

At what flight level are spoken messages inhibited in TCAS?

A

Below 400 ft AGL

172
Q

What is the typical corrective vertical speed an aircraft is given as an RA?

A

1500 feet per minute

173
Q

What might be experienced where the transmission frequency is too close to the MUF?

A

Skip fading

174
Q

The end of an open circuit line in a transmission line is seen as what kind of circuit?

A

Parallel tuned circuit

175
Q

What is the formula for SWR?

A

SWR = Vmax/Vmin

176
Q

What does the max power density radiated by an aerial divided by the power density radiated by an isotropic aerial at the same distance equate to?

A

Gain of an aerial

177
Q

What is the beamwidth of an aerial defined as?

A

The angle between the half power points

178
Q

What are some of the losses common in aerials?

A
  • Dielectric
  • Brush discharge
  • Copper
  • Eddy current
179
Q

What is the efficiency of practical aerials?

A

15% at low frequencies to 90% at high frequencies

180
Q

When might you use a folded dipole?

A

In cases where it is necessary to use a transmission line of high characteristic impedance (of the order of 300Ω) to feed a centre fed half wave dipole, to make matching easier

181
Q

What does the annunciator of the remote indicating compass show?

A

Constant indicating of synchronism between the gyro and the flux detector

182
Q

During a banked turn, if the attitude indicator did not have a roll erection cut out system, what would happen?

A

An error in roll would become an error in pitch

183
Q

What is the tolerance of a VSI?

A

10% of the maximum reading

184
Q

The four modules in an ADC are?

A
  • Altitude
  • Computed airspeed
  • True airspeed
  • Mach
185
Q

The versine signal is used in the?

A

Pitch channel only for lift loss compensation

186
Q

What happens to the F2 layer between winter and summer?

A

It is further away in the summer

187
Q

Why are groundwaves usually vertically polarised?

A

Horizontally polarised signals are heavily attenuated in groundwaves

188
Q

What are the five types of fading?

A
  • Selective
  • Interference
  • Polarisation
  • Skip
  • Absorption
189
Q

The yaw damper rate gyro filter consists of a demodulator, amplifier and washout network. Filtering accomplished in these circuits eliminates?

A

Steady state signals and unwanted high frequency signals

190
Q

What are the criteria for glideslope capture in AP?

A
  • Aircraft must be flying toward the G/S
  • The difference between runway track and ground track must be less than 80°
191
Q

A FIFO buffer would be located in what part of the AFDX system?

A

Switch

192
Q

In an Onboard Maintenance System (OBMS), the CMC should be capable of providing a common point for display of information. In what format should this information be displayed?

A

Plain english

193
Q

A typical data loader in an OBMS will operate IAW which ARINC standard?

A

ARINC 615

194
Q

What are the g forces associated with the flight recorder accelerometers?

A

Simply

195
Q

A modern VHF communications system using phase locked loops and a voltage controlled master oscillator should produce a frequency accurate to how many decimal places?

A

4 decimal places

196
Q

WRT power amplification, what type of amplification is used for HF SSB?

A

Class AB linear amplification

197
Q

How is a SSB transmitter’s power rated?

A

Peak Envelope Power

198
Q

Which ARINC specification does the HF comms transceiver conform to?

A

719

199
Q

How long does it take for the MECH or ATT call lights to automatically extinguish if not cancelled by a reset key?

A

1 minute

200
Q

What are the four types of aerial coupling?

A
  • Stagger tuned
  • Transformer
  • Auto transformer
  • Capacitive
201
Q

Which type of aerial coupling gives the best selectivity?

A

Transformer

202
Q

Which type of aerial coupling will give the best and widest bandwidth?

A

Stagger tuned

203
Q

What are the examples of external noise?

A
  • Man made
  • Atmospheric
  • Cosmic
204
Q

What is the typical power output of a HF radio system?

A

400 W

205
Q

What are the stages in a Super Het receiver?

A

RF Amp - Mix (above LO) - IF Amp - Demod - AF Amp

206
Q

What are the problems of VHF and UHF?

A
  • Skin effect
  • Stray capacitance
  • Lead inductance
  • Stray resonances
  • Parasitic oscillation
207
Q

To calculate the wavelength of an EM wave, we could use?

A

Wavelength = velocity / frequency

208
Q

What type of noise can be caused by semiconductors?

A

Shot or flicker noise

209
Q

In an AM transmitter, when will the modulator only have to provide a small amount of amplification?

A

When using low level modulation

210
Q

What might be the class of amplifier used in all of the stages leading up to the RF power amplifier stage where high level modulation is used?

A

C

211
Q

What type of transistors is a buffer amplifier most likely to use?

A

FETs

212
Q

What name is given to a technique that controls the stability and accuracy of an oscillator, whilst enabling the variability of its tuning?

A

Frequency Synthesis

213
Q

What frequencies will a crystal oscillator in overtone mode use?

A

Harmonics of the fundamental frequency

Mod 13 Example Questions (1 decks)

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