Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACVIM Specialty: Ettinger etc. > Hepatic > Flashcards

Hepatic Flashcards

1
Q

Breed predispositions to PVH without PH

A

Maltese
Cairn
Yorkies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of cPSS is most often seen in cats?

A

Extra-hepatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What degrees of hyperbilirubinaemia are expected for:
- Seeing icteric plasma
- Seeing icteric MM

A
  • 8 - 18umol/L
  • > 50 - 85umol/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of portal hypertension is a high protein (rather than low protein) ascitic fluid expected in?

A

Lower protein is expected in pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which amino acid is of particular importance in the urea cycle and therefore deficiencies of this can result in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Arginine - cats with cysteine stones can therefore be hyperammonaemic due to arginie loss through COLA transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ALT:
- T 1/2 in the dog
- T 1/2 in the cat
- Alternative source from the liver

A

Dog: 48 - 60h
Cat: 6h
Muscle is the other main source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AST
- T 1/2 in the dog
- T 1/2 in the cat
- Alternative sources

A
  • Dog: 22h
  • Cat: 77 minutes
  • Sources: muscle, RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ALP
- T 1/2 in the dog
- T 1/2 in the cat
- Alternative sources

A

Dog 70h
Cat: 6h
Sources: intestinal mucosa, renal cortex, placenta, liver, bone

In dogs can be induced by steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

GGT
- T 1/2 in the dog
- T 1/2 in the cat
- Alternative sources

A

T 1/2 is unknown
Sources: Kidney>pancreas>liver>GB>intestine>spleen>heart>lungs>skeletal muscle>RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CK
- T 1/2 and kinetics with muscle injury

A

Peak concentration occurs within 6 - 12 hours of muscle injury and will decline within 24 - 48 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Degree of reduction in hepatic mass to result in hypoglycaemia

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Degree of loss of liver mass required for hypoalbuminaemia

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which globulins are produced by the liver?

A

Alpha and beta globulins, although hypoglobulinaemia is rare in hepatic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the potential causes for increased pre-prandial rather than post-prandial bile acids?

A

Inter-digestive gallbladder contraction
Variations in gastric emptying and intestinal transit times
Varied responses to CCK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the indication for performing and ammonia tolerance test? how is this test performed?

A
  • 2ml/kg of 5% ammonium hydrochloride administered 10 - 20cm into the rectum via a catheter
  • Take basal, 20m and 40m sample
  • Normal response is minimal increase in ammonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which coagulation factors are not produced by the liver?

A

vWF and a subtype of factor VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the indication for measurement of protein C and the clinical cut off of activity?

A

To help differentiate PSS from PVH. Activity <70% is indicative of PSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What percentage of dogs with PSS may have ammonium biurate crystals?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What conditions is a hypoechoic liver parenchyma associated with?

A

Acute hepatitis
Amyloidosis
Lymphoma
Cholangitis/Cholangiohepatitis

I.e. it is still non-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a normal CBD diameter in dogs and cats?

A

3mm dogs and up to 4mm in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where in the abdomen is MAPSS more likely to be identified using AUS, what other findings can suggest MAPSS?

A

Left dorsal perirenal area
Reduced portal blood flow (<10m/s)
Hepatofugal flow
Enlarged PV and dilated left gonadal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three weird and wonderful methods of evaluating for a PSS?

A

Portal scintigraphy with Tc99m-sulfur-colloid
Pre-rectal portal scintigraphy
Trans-Splenic Portal Scintigraphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Outline the basis of and interpretation of Tc99m-Sulfur-Colloid scintigraphy

A
  • Small colloidal particles that localise to the reticuloendothelial system
  • In normal animals it should mostly be present in the liver
  • In PSS a large amount may occur in the lungs
    However, this can also occur with other causes of liver insufficiency in dogs and occurs normally in cats.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Outline the basis and interpretatino of pre-rectal portal scintigraphy

A
  • Administration of a radionucleotide into the colon (usually sodium pertechnetate)
  • In normal patients it should first be seen in the liver and then in the heart.
  • In PSS it will be seen in the heart first. However, with small shunts it could reach both at the same time.
    Computer programming can calculate a shunt fraction

What are the disadvantages to this technique?

○ Can have poor uptake from the colon –> non-diagnostic study
○ Poor anatomic detail, so determining the type and anatomy of the shunt can be challenging
○ False negatives if infused too high into the rectum
○ Need for isolation post procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Outline the basis of and interpretation of trans-splenic portal scintigraphy

A
  • Ultrasound-guided injection of radiopharmaceutical (sodium pertechnetate) into the splenic parenchyma.
  • In the normal animal this should be absorbed into the splenic vein which will then flow into the left gastric vein and then the main portal vein.
  • Can miss shunts that enter the portal vein caudal to the splenic vein
    Small shunts may be missed as well.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which liver disease does FNA have the best PPV for?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma followed by non-hepatocellular carcinomas and round cell tuours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which hepatoprotectant has evidence for use in acute amanita phalloides toxicity?

A

Intravenous silmaryn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In hepatic disease which version of pred (prednisone vs. prednisolone) is more appropriate and why?

A

Prednisone needs to be converted to prednisolone to the liver so prednisolone is probably a better choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the two chelating agents available for the treatment of copper hepatopathy?

A

D-penicillamine
Trientine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the mechanism by which Zinc reduced hepatic copper accumulation?

A

It results in ncreased synthesis of metallothionein by enterocytes which binds copper in enterocytes preventing its movement into the circulation and liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the four WSAVA classifications of cholangitis?

A

Neutrophilic
Lymphocytic
Destructive
Chronic associate with liver fluke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Infectious causes of acute canine hepatitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Toxic causes of acute canine hepatitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drugs that may result in acute canine hepatitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What clinical sign of hepatic disease is not expected with acute liver injury?

A

Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What clinical signs outside of hepatic and general systemic signs may be seen with CAV-1 infections?

A
  • Bronchopneumonia
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Photophobia
  • Corneal opacity from anterior uveitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which leptospirosis spp. are zoonotic?

A

L. interrogans and kircheri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What specific treatment should be given to dogs with blue-green algae toxicity?

A

Cholestyramine - this blocks re-absorption of bile acids and may therefore prevent microcytins being absorbed. Otherwise the treatment is all supportive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the COMMD1 mutation result in?

A

Failure of hepatocytes to be able to excrete copper into bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the histologic localisation of copper when primary vs. secondary?

A

Zone 3 (centrilobular) = primary
Zone 1 (periportal) = secondary

I guess this makes sense as the liver is trying to move it to the bile in primary cases but in secondary cases it can’t move?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What stain is used to evaluate for hepatic copper?

A

Rubenaeic acid/rhonadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the histopathologic distinction between cholangitis and cholangiohepatitis?

A

Cholangitis is limited to inflammtory changes within the bile duct luen and between biliary epithelial cells. It inflammation extends beyong the limiting plate (layer of hepatocytes that border the portal tract)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What percentage of cats with neutrophilic cholangitis are icteric vs. hyperbilirubinaemic?

A

34% icteric, 66% hyperbilirubinaemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What percentage of bile and liver samples will culture positive in cases of neutrophilic cholangitis?

A

36% bile samples and 14% liver samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long should antibiotics for hepatic abcesses be given for?

A

Minimum of 6 weeks and should consider surgical or percutaneous drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where in the united states might Platynosomum (Liver Fluke) be expected?

A

Platynosomum fastosum is a liver fluke of cats in Florida, other areas of the southeastern United States, and Hawaii.

47
Q

What are the paratenic hosts of platysonomum?

A

Lizards, land snails and isopods (crustaceans e.g. woodlice)

48
Q

Platynosomum egg and adult images

A
49
Q

What do these images depict?

A

Platynosomum egg and adult images

50
Q

Which feline viral diseases have been implicated in inflammatory liver diseae and which are potentially primary pathogens?

A

FeLV - primary hepatic degeneration and fatty liver
FIP - pyogranulomatous inflammation
FIV - secondary disease
FCV - mutated form can cause disseminated disease

51
Q

What is the mechanism by which acetaminophen causes toxicity?

A

Acetaminophen is converted to NAPQ1 which is a reactive metabolite. It is normally conjugated to glutathione to prevent toxicity.

52
Q

Which speices differnce between cats and others makes them prone to acetaminophen toxicity?

A

They lack UGT1A6 - this is a glucoronidation enzyme
They may also have reduced ABCG2 transporters which are responsible for the export of acetaminophen

53
Q

What is the mechanism by which N-acetyl cysteine exerts its effect?

A

NAC is a glutathione precursor

54
Q

Which drug could theoretically be used in acetaminophen toxicity, why, why is it not used?

A

Cimetidine should reduce oxidation of acetaminophen to NAPQ1 but this has not been shown to work in vitro studies

55
Q

Can phenobarbital cause liver toxicirty?

A

Yes! This can be indicated by increased ALT>ALT or changes in liver function parameters. If BA increase then the possibility of toxicity should be considered.

56
Q

Which anti-fungals are of concern for causing hepatotoxicity?

A

Ketoconazole
Itraconazole
Fluconazole

57
Q

What is the mechanism by which azoles cause hepatotoxicity?

A

Metabolites (such as N-deacetyl-ketoconazole) bing to liver proteins and deplete glutathione

58
Q

Which breed of dog may be at increased risk of azathioprine toxicity?

A

GSD

59
Q

What percentage of dogs will experience increased ALT as a result of lomustine? Which breed has increased risk?

A

30%
Boxers are at increased risk

60
Q

MoA of TMPS hepatotoxicity

A

Immune mediated

61
Q

Which species of fungus produces the hepatotoxin alfatoxin B1

A

Aspergillus

62
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of aflatoxins?

A

dose dependent DNA damage and glutathione depletion

63
Q

What is the toxin produced by amanita species that results in toxicity? What is the mechanism of toxicity?

A

amatins mostly alpha-amatin hich inhibits RNA polymerase

64
Q

What are the clinical squalae to amanita toxicity?

A

Hepatotoxicity
Hypoglycaemia (through direct insulin release, occurs first)
Rental tubular necrosis

65
Q

Which organisms are responsible for blue-green algae toxicity in freshwater and ocean water?

A

Actually caused by cyanobacteria
- Microcytisis aurogenosa in freshwater
- Nodularia spumigena in ocean water (can also cause renal toxicity)

66
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of cyanobacteria?

A

they inhibit hepatic serine/threonint phosphatases which leags to hyperphosphorylation and disruption of cytoskeletal proteins

Remember hyperphosphorylation of hepatic cytoskeletal elements

67
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of cycad palms?

A

Cycasin is converted to methlazoxmethanaol by gastrointestinal flora which can result in GI, hepatic and neurologic toxicity

68
Q

Which specific drug has beneficial effect in the managemnet of cycad palm toxicosis?

A

Activated charcoal

69
Q

Differences between hepatic tumours in cats and dogs

A

Dogs - ore likely to have metastatic diseases, primary tend to have hepatocellular origin, more likely malignant.
Cats - more likely to have primary, biliary tumours more often benign

70
Q

What are the morphologic classifications of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  1. Massive = single large tumour confined to one lobe
  2. Nodular - multifocal wiht distinct nodules
  3. Diffuse = coalescing nodules or diffuse effacement of hepatic parenchyma
71
Q

What breed of dog is predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma?

That isn’t a Scottie…

A

Miniature schnauzers

72
Q

Which liver lobes are predilection sites for hepatocellular cacinoma?

A

left lateral, medial and caudate lobes for massive carcinomas

73
Q

What are the main metastatic sites for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Lymph nodes, peritoneum and lung

74
Q

What is the metastatic rate of massive vs. nodular/diffuce hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Massive up to 37% and other forms more like 93 - 100%

75
Q

What immunohistochemical marker may be useful in determining linage of hepatocellular tumours?

A

Keratin 19
>5% positivity may indicate progenitor cells that are more likely to metastasise

76
Q

What is the name for primary hepatic neuroendocrine tumours?

A

Hepatic carcinoid

77
Q

Which chemotherapy agent may be the treatment of choice for dogs with nodular/diffuse hepatocellular carcionma?

A

Gemcitabine, mitoxantrone may be another choice

78
Q

What is the anatomic difference between dogs and cats that potentially predisposes cats to triaditis?

A

In dogs the CBD joins the pancreatic duct at the duodenal papillar, in cats the CBD and pancreatic duct fuse prior to exit at the duodenal papilla

79
Q

What is the component of bile that cats differ to dogs?

A

Cats have higher degrees of calcium so probably more likely to develop calcium containing choleliths

80
Q

Where might choleliths be expected on abdominal radiographs?

Particularly where they are located specifically depending on the view.

A

Cranioventral abdomen on a lateral radiograph
Right cranial abdomen on a VD radiograph

81
Q

How long does it take for extra vs. intra-hepatic duct dilation to occur in cases of obstruction?

A

Extra-hepatic within 24 - 48 hours of complete obstruction
Intra-hepatic within 5 - 7 days of obstruction

82
Q

What bilirub concentration in abdominal fluid should prompt concern for bile duct rupture?

A

?2x that of serum

83
Q

Which antimicrobials are mostl ikely to be effective for treamtent of cholecytitis

A

Fluroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) and aminoglycosides

84
Q

Which bacterial organisms cause an emphysematous colitis?

A

Gas producing organisms such as E. coli and Clostridium perfringens

85
Q

What is the life cycle of liver fluke? How does it infect the cat?

A

Embryonated eggs are ingested by terrestrial snails which is then passed on from the snail to an isopod where cercariae form and lizards then ingest the isopod. Metecercariae develkop in the lizard which is then eaten by the cat. The metececariae migrate through the biliary tree and reside there in the cat. Cats pass embryonated eggs in faeces.

86
Q

What are the sequalea to liver flukosis?

A

Inflammatory changes as expected but cholangiocarcinomas can also develop with chronic infection

87
Q

How are liver flukes diagnosed in faeces?

A

Need sedimentation techniques

88
Q

Review metabolites involved in the pathogenesis of HE

A

See piece of paper

89
Q

Hepatic vascular anomalies that the following breeds are predisposed to:
- Yorkshite terrier
- Maltese (bonus point for inheritance pattern)
- Cairn terrier
- Irish wolfhound
- Australian cattle dog

Top 3 are probably most interesting to know

A
  • YRK: OR 35.9 for PSS
  • Maltese - autosomal recessive predisposition to PVH and macroscopic shunts
  • Cairn: hereditary PVH
  • Irish Wolfhound: left divisional
  • Australian cattle dog: right divisional

Remember the top three mainly…

90
Q

Which breed of dog seems to be overrepresented in cases of PVH with portal hypertension

A

Dobermans

91
Q

What are the mechanisms of action of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy?

A
  • Acidification of colonic contents leads to ammonia trapping
  • Decreases numbers of bacteria
  • Increases GI transit time which clears bacteria and ammonia
92
Q

How should the management of a PSS attenuation patient be tapered?

A

Medical management continued for approximatley 1 month after surgery and then tapered gradually based on clinical signs. Bile acids are likely to remain elevated post-operatively but there is no impact on survival.

93
Q

What are the main causes of the following vacuolar hepatic changes:
- Glycogen/water type
- Fat type

A
94
Q

What stains can be used to differentiate between water/glycogen and fat accumulation in hepatocytes?

A

PAS for glycogen
Oil red O for fat

95
Q

What percentage of hepatocytes need to be affected to diagnose fulminant hepatic lipidosis?

A

> 50%

96
Q

What diseases has superficial necrolytic dermatitis been associated with in dogs?

A

Glucagonaoma, insulinoma and phenopbarbital toxicity

97
Q

What does this picture indicate? What disease process should you be concerend about?

A

Swiss cheese appearance of liver, this should prompt concern for superficial necrolytic dermatitis which may be secondary to a glucagonoma

98
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hepatic lipidosis?

A
  1. Increased peripheral lipolysis results in increased triglyceride accumulation in the liver.
  2. Reduced ability for the liver to oxidise fats leads to further accumulation
  3. Protein deficiency, particulary amino acids taurine and cartinine deficiency impair apoprotein production preventing transport of fats outside of the liver
99
Q

Which liver enzyme should not be increased in primary hepatic lipidosis?

A

GGT - aslthough can be increased with underlying causes

100
Q

What percentage of hepatocytes need to be affected by fat accumulation on FNA of the liver to raise concern for HL?

A

> 80%

101
Q

Treatment for hepatic lipidosis

A
  1. Fluids
  2. Electrolyte supplementation: potassium, phosphate, magnesium)
  3. Feeding
  4. Vitamin K
  5. B-vitamin supplementation
  6. Vitamin E
  7. L-carnitine supplementation
102
Q

Which infectious aitiologies have strong and poor evidence for cause of chronic hepatitis

A

Leptospirosis and leishmania have the best evidence
E. canis, Babesia and anaplasma have weak evidence

103
Q

Which 5 toxins are possible causes of chronic hepatitis?

A

Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Primidone
Lomustine

104
Q

Which canine breeds are predisposed to copper associated chronic hepatitis

A

Bedlington
Dalmatian
Labrador
Dobermans
WHWT

105
Q

What is the genetic mutation responsible for copper hepatopathy in bedlington terriers (dont use COMMD1)

A

ATP7B - autsomal recessive deletion of exon 2

106
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for copper hepatopathy as outlined in the consensus statement?

A
  1. Histopathologic evidence of chronic hepatitis along with centrilobular (zone 3) copper accumulation
  2. Quantitative copper >1000ug/g d/w liver
    Note that > 600 ug/g is the grey zone
107
Q

What other clinical syndromes can result from copper hepatopathy?

A

Haemolytic anaemia (due to copper release)
Fanconi-like syndrome

108
Q

Which miRNA is specifically discussed in the chronic hepatopathy consensus statement?

A

miR 122

109
Q

What is the key biochemical screening test/criteria for suspicion of CH in dogs?

A

Increased ALT that persists for > 2 months

110
Q

What is the reccomended method of obtaining and number of biopsy specimens when performing liver biopsy

A

Minimum of 5 biopsies from 2 lobes
3x for histopath
1x for culture
1x for copper

111
Q

What amount of copper in a liver biopsy specimen should be considered an indication for a copper restricted diet?

A

> 600ug/g dry weight

112
Q

Four mechanisms of action of D-penicillaine

A

Binds hepatic copper
Increases hepatic metallothionein which detoxifies copper
Increases enterocyte metallothionein which allows faecal excretion
Has weak anti-fibrotic and anti-inflammatory effects

113
Q

How can D-pen therapy be monitored and tapered?

A

ALT, treat for 1m beyond resolution of ALT

114
Q

What rare side effects of D-pen are there?

A

Proteinuria
Skin eruptions
Induction of ALP

ACVIM Specialty: Ettinger etc. (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions