HEMOSTASIS Flashcards

1
Q

define hemostasis

A

a complex physiological process that balances the opposing forces of coagulation and anticoagulation to protect the vasculature from uncontrolled bleeding on the one hand and excessive clotting on the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the three phases of hemostasis?

A
  • primary hemostasis – formation of platelet plug
  • secondary hemostasis – coagulation
  • tertiary hemostasis – fibrinolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the three actions of platelet plug formation?

A
  • platelet adhesion
  • platelet activation
  • platelet aggregation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is von Willebrand factor?

A
  • large, heterogenous multimeric glycoprotein that protects coagulation factor VIII from rapid inactivation
  • binds platelets vial the glycoprotein Ib receptor complex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what makes vWF bind to platelets?

A

change in shear rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

platelet adhesion requires two components – what are they?

A
  • tissue factor - vWF via the glycoprotein Ib receptor

* collagen from the sub endothelial matrix – via the glycoprotein VI receptor and the a2b1 integrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is von Willebrand’s disease?

A
  • deficiency in vWF
  • most common in congenital bleeding disorder
  • manifests as impaired platelet function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the treatment for von Willebrand’s disease?

A

DDAVP or transfusion of FFP or cryoprecipitate or vWF/FVIII concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how are platelets activated?

A

platelets become activated by agonists at the site of injury – collagen, thrombin, ADP, epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe the process of platelet activation

A
  • platelets change morphology
  • release contents of alpha granules and dense granules – ADP, serotonin, factor V, factor VIII, vWF, fibrinogen
  • release thromboxane A2 into environment
  • express new negatively-charged receptors on their surface membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

name the three platelet surface receptors

A
  • thrombin –> protease-activated receptors (PAR1 and PAR4)
  • ADP –> P2Y1 and P2Y12 : blocked by thienopyridines (ticlopidine and clopidogrel)
  • fibrinogen –> glycoprotein IIb/IIIa : blocked by antagonists (abciximab and tirofiban)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is platelet aggregation mediated?

A

platelet surface receptor – glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the primary adhesive molecules of primary adhesion?

A

fibrinogen and vWF – form bridges between platelets to create a platelet plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of factor XIII?

A

fibrin stabilizing factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does aspirin affect clot formation?

A

aspirin acetylates fibrinogen – clot structure is looser and easier to lyse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

formation of the platelet plug is coordinated with what?

A

formation of the platelet plug is coordinated with activation of the blood coagulation system leading to the generation of thrombin and the formation of a fibrin clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how are most coagulation factors found in the circulation?

A

most coagulation factors circulate in an inactive form – “pro-enzyme” or “zymogen”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how are coagulation factors activated?

A

a portion of the pro-enzyme must be cleaved off or modified to activate the coagulation factor

19
Q

what is required for the proper interaction of coagulation factors?

A

the proper interaction of coagulation factors requires the presence of a negatively-charged phospholipid membrane

20
Q

where are most coagulation factors synthesized?

A

in the liver

  • contact activation factors = FXII and FXI
  • vitamin K-dependent factors = FII, FVII, FIX and FX
21
Q

which coagulation factor has an extra-hepatic origin?

A

FVIII

  • high molecular weight portion = carrier
  • small molecular weight portion = coagulant activity
22
Q

what is the function of vitamin K in coagulation?

A
  • catalyzes the carboxylation of glutamic acid –> carboxyglutamic acid
  • possible for the factor to bind calcium
23
Q

what effect does coumadin have on coagulation?

A

coumadin inhibits carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent factors by vitamin K

24
Q

which coagulation factor has the shortest half-life?

A

FVII has the shortest half-life of the vitamin K-dependent factors

25
Q

define hemophilia A and hemophilia B

A
  • hemophilia A – FVIII deficiency

* hemophilia B – FIX deficiency

26
Q

describe the cascade model of coagulation in three steps

A
  • overall structure is a series of proteolytic reactions
  • protein coagulation factors direct and control the process
  • cells serve as surface on which coagulation complexes are assembled
27
Q

describe the interdependence of the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways

A
  • (extrinsic) TF/VIIa ––> FX; TF/VIIa ––> FIX (intrinsic)

* thrombin ––> FXI (intrinsic)

28
Q

describe the three overlapping stages of the cell-based model of coagulation

A
  1. initiation: a procoagulant stimulus generates enough thrombin to initiate the coagulation process
  2. amplification: latelets and coagulation factors are activated
  3. propogation: large amounts of thrombin are generated on the activated platelet surface
29
Q

what is the function of thrombin in coagulation?

A
  • cleavage of fibrinogen to fibrin

* activates factor XIII to cross-link fibrin

30
Q

how does the tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) regulate coagulation?

A

inhibits the (extrinsic) TF/FVIIa complex and TF/FVIIa/FXa complex

31
Q

how does antithrombin (AT) regulate coagulation?

A

inhibits FXa and thrombin

32
Q

how does protein C (PC) regulate coagulation?

A

with co-factor protein S (PS), inhibits FVa and FVIIIa (intrinsic)

33
Q

how does heparin inhibit coagulation?

A
  • primary anticoagulation action: inhibits thrombin activity

* binds to AT causing conformational change, transforming AT from a slow to a rapid inhibitor of thrombin

34
Q

name three quantitative age-related coagulation changes?

A
  • VitK-dependent factors
  • contact activation factors
  • coagulation inhibitors
35
Q

name there qualitative age-related coagulation changes?

A
  • platelets
  • fibrinogen
  • plasminogen
36
Q

how do neonate platelets compare to adult platelets?

A
  • neonatal platelet counts = 100% adult values
  • neonatal platelet membrane glycoprotein expression is fully developed
  • contents of platelet dense granules = 50% adult contents
  • neonatal platelet aggregation is impaired in response to ADP, epinephrine, collagen and thrombin
37
Q

how does neonatal platelet aggregation in response to collagen and thrombin compare to adults?

A

platelet aggregation is almost 2x slower in neonates than adults in response to both collagen and thrombin

38
Q

despite longer response times to collagen and thrombin, neonates show efficient platelet function. How is that?

A
  • increased concentration of vWF

* increased number of large vWF factor multimers

39
Q

how long does the fetal form of fibrinogen exist?

A

until approximately 1yo

40
Q

how do neonatal and infant fibrin clots differ from adults?

A

fibrin clots are less dense

41
Q

how does neonatal plasminogen differ from adults?

A

less fibrinolytic activity secondary to quantitative and qualitative deficiencies in plasminogen

  • lower concentration (50% adult values)
  • decreased functional activity (bind poorly to cellular receptors, activation/inhibition kinetics are slower)
42
Q

what are the FDA-approved uses for recombinant activated factor VII?

A
  • patients with hemophilia A an dB with inhibitors against FVIII and FIX
  • patient with congenital FVII deficiency
  • Treatment/prevention of bleeding for surgical interventions or invasive procedures
43
Q

what are the thrombolitic event risks associated with rFVIIa?

A

CVA, MI, other arterial thromboses, PE, other venous thrombosis, and clotted devices