Hemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

What is the major process in primary hemostasis?

A

FIRST vessel reflexively constricts

platelets form a plug to minimize blood loss

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2
Q

What is the major process in secondary hemostasis?

A

Clotting cascade forms a fibrin clot that anchors and stabilizes the platelet plug

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3
Q

______ is central to the hemostatic response because i tis a potent platelet activator and it converts soluble fibrinogen to an insoluble fibrin clot

A

thrombin

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4
Q

The _________ surface is an important site for assembly and localization of the membrane bound enzyme complexes of coagulation

A

Activated platelet surfac

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5
Q

Gradual transition to ______ facilitates removal of a clot and wound healing

A

fibrinolysis

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6
Q

List three pro-thrombotic components

A
  1. Platelets/ vWF: formation of hemostatic plug
  2. Coagulation cascade: thrombin–> fibrin clot formation
  3. Fibrinolysis inhibitors: soluble protease inhibitors that down regulate fibrinolysis and prevent degradation of the clot
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7
Q

List three anti-thrombotic components

A
  1. Intact endothelium
  2. Fibrinolysis: second enzyme cascade converts plasminiogen to plasmin which lyses the fibrin clot
  3. Coagulation inhibitors: soluble protease inhibitors that down-regulate the coagulation cascade and remove activated coagulation factors
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8
Q

List three classes of drugs that can be used to prevent hemostasis and their major targets

A
  1. antiplatelet drugs: target formation of primary platelet plug
  2. anticoagulants: prevent formation of fibrin clot
  3. antifibrinolytics: prevent breakdown of fibrin clot
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9
Q

List the steps in primary hemostasis

A
  1. Platelet adhesion: interaction of platelet Gp-Ib with vWF
  2. Platelet activation: by thrombin, collagen, ADP
  3. Platelet aggregation: cross linking of activated platelets by fibrinogen binding to Gp IIb/IIIa
  4. Secretion of platelet granules
  5. Retraction of the newly formed thrombus
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10
Q

Platelet ______ results in conformational change and activation of Gp IIb/IIIa, granule release, and thrombus contraction

A

activation

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11
Q

Megakaryocyte differentiation is characterized by _____ in which DNA replication occurs but the nucleus does not divide

A

endomitosis

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12
Q

The production of platelets is controlled by the cytokine _____

A

TPO, thrombonpoietin

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13
Q

About 30% of platelets are stored in the spleen and can be released in response to _____

A

epinephrine

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14
Q

There is usually an ____ relationship between platelet number and mean platelet volume

A

inverse

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15
Q

Describe the relationship between platelet sequestration, platelet desttruction, and megakaryocyte hyperplasia

A

As platelets are sequestered, but not destroyed, in a large spleen, there is no compensatory megakaryocyte hyperplasia in the marrow in patients with thrombocytopenia due to hypersplenism. In contrast, when the platelet count is reduced due to rapid destruction, there is megakaryocytic hyperplasia.

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16
Q

Large circulating platelets on the blood smear in a patient with thrombocytopenia suggests:

A

peripheral destruction of platelets

Rapid platelet production leads to increased size of circulating platelets

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17
Q

List the two hemostatic functions of vWF

A
  • major carrier of VIII, prolongs half life of VIII

- mediates platelet tethering and adhesion to exposed subendothelium

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18
Q

Where is vWF found/ stored

A

endothelial cells, megakaryocytes, subendothelial connective tissue

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19
Q

wVW is released by endothelial cells in the blood, which can be enhanced by ________

A

DDAVP

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20
Q

If there is inherited or acquired deficiency of________, large VWF-platelet aggregates can form
in the circulation and occlude small blood vessels causing tissue injury.

A

ADAMTS13

This causes the disease thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

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21
Q

_______ promotes vWF unfolding

A

high shear stress- as in arterial circulation

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22
Q

List platelet agonists that trigger platelet activation

A
collagen (in ECM)
thrombin (generated by TF)
epinephrine
ADP
serotonin
TXA2 produced by COX1
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23
Q

Describe the contents of a granules and dense granules

A

a granules: proteins such as fibrinogen, vWF and factor V that promote clot formation as well as chemokines that recruit inflammatory cells

Dense granules: ADP/ATP and serotonin which activates additional platelets

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24
Q

______ is normally sequestered on the inner membrane of a platelet but is exposed after platelet activation. It enhances the assembly of membrane bound coagulation enzyme complexes

A

phosphatidylserine

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25
Describe the terms intrinsic pathway and extrinsic pathway
Extrinsic pathway: plasma clotting in response to addition of tissue homogenates- factors "extrinsic to the blood". Measured by PT Intrinsic pathway: clotting of plasma in a glass tube using only factors intrinsic to the blood. Measured by aPTT
26
What is the initiation phase of the clotting cascade?
formation of TF-VIIa complex, must exceed a specific threshold in order to trigger clotting mechanism
27
What occurs in the propagation phase of the clotting casdcade
Amplifies clotting response through factor IXa-VIIIa complex
28
Which components of the coagulation cascade are vitamin K dependent?
II, VII, IX, X, C and S
29
Describe how the phospholipid platelet surface is involved in activation of zymogens
Acts as a surface to bring a protease, a cofactor/ helper protein, and a zymogen into close contact
30
Describe factor XI
a serine protease but not vitamin K dependent
31
Describe factor XIII
enzyme that is activated by thrombin, works by cross linking fibrin to stabilize a thrombus
32
What is the function of antithrombin?
Inhibits thrombin (IIa), Xa, IXa, XIa
33
Describe the function of Protein C and Protein S
Protein C: proteolytic inactivation of V and VIII Protein S: supports inactivation of V and VIII
34
What is the function of tissue factor pathway inhibitor?
Forms a complex with factor Xa that inactivates the TF-VIIa complex
35
List the components of the coagulation cascade that are considered cofactors
tissue factor: membrane protein that binds VIIa to form a complex that activates X, does not require proteolytic activation for cofactor activity Factors V and VIII: require activation by thrombin to function. VIII binds IXa to form a complex that activates X Va binds to Xa to form a complex that activates prothrombin Protein S: vitamin K dependent cofactor for protein C
36
How does TF initiate coagulation?
After vascular injury, TF is exposed to the blood and binds circulating VIIa. TF-VIIa generates additional VII and small amounts of IX and X before being inhibited by tissue factor pathway inhibitor A small amount of thrombin is generated by Xa which in turn activates V, VIII, and IX
37
Activation of factors of VIII and V in the initiation phase allows for the formation of _____ and ______ complexes
IXa/VIIIa and Xa/Va --> explosive generation of thrombin in the propagation phase
38
In the propagation phase, thrombin also cleaves/ activates factor ____ which activates additional factor IX and contributes to the final rate of thrombin generation
XI
39
______ is an abundant plasma protein that is cleaved by thrombin to form an insoluble clot
fibrinogen (cleaved to fibrin)
40
What is the role of factor XIII in the coagulation cascade?
Cross links fibrin strands to stabilize the fibrin clot
41
List all of the pro-coagulant functions of thrombin
activation of factors V, VIII, XI and XIII,activation of platelets, and cleavage of fibrinogen to fibrin
42
At very low concentrations, thrombin is bound to _______ on endothelial surfaces, which acts as an anti-coagulant by accelerating activation of protein C
thrombomodulin
43
Describe the role of the contact factors in the coagulation cascade
Factor XII, HMWK, prekallikrein Deficiency does not lead to a bleeding phenotype but does show up as a prolonged aPTT These factors are not necessary for normal hemostasis
44
What is the role of factor XI? What happens in factor XI deficiency?
XI is activated by thrombin and activates factor IX Deficiency causes a mild to moderate bleeding phenotype
45
List three circulating coagulation inhibitors
- tissue factor pathway inhibitor: inhibits TF-VIIa complex so inhibits initiation phase - antithrombin III: markedly reduces rate of thrombin generation in the propagation phase by inhibiting thrombin - activated protein C: helps terminate propagation by inactivating Va and VIIIa
46
______ inhibits IXa, Xa, and thrombin, acting as a scavenger of free proteases
AT3
47
The activity of AT3 is markedly accelerated by the drug _____
heparin
48
How is protein C activated?
Thrombin bound to thrombomodulin
49
The _____ response predominates on the arterial side and the _____ response is more critical on the venous side
platelets on arterial side | clotting cascade on venous side
50
List platelet inhibitory substances produced by normal endothelium
PGI2 Nitric oxide synthase- NO generated from arginine by eNOS CD39 aka ectoDAPase, degrades ADP and ATP
51
List anticoagulant substances produced by normal endothelium
Heparin sulfate: binds AT3 to accelerate protease inhibition | Thrombomodulin: enhances generation of activated protein C
52
How does intact endothelium act as a profibrinolytic surface?
Produces enzymes that activate plasminogen
53
______ is a zymogen produced in the liver that is converted to activated protease then works to digest cross linked fibrin
plasminogen
54
Endothelial cells secrete _____ which activates plasminogen to plasmin and binds specifically to fibrin
tPA
55
Describe two fibrinolysis inhibitors
- a-antiplasmin: circulates in blood, inhibits circulating plasmin but is less effective at inhibiting plasmin bound to a fibrin clot- helps keep plasmin activity local to a fibrin clot and not systemic - plasminogen activator inhibitor-1: released by endothelial cells, helps stabilize blood clots by delaying the onset of fibrinolysis
56
The PT measures factors:
VII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen
57
Prolonged PT with normal aPTT occurs in factor ____ deficiency
VII
58
The aPTT measures factors:
IX, XI, VIII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen
59
The aPTT is sensitive to changes in the ______ which prolong aPTT but do not cause bleeding
contact factors
60
The aPTT is commonly used to monitor the anticoagulant effects of ______
heparin
61
Describe how to interpret the findings of a mixing test
if a single coagulation factor deficiency is present, the mixing test will completely correct prolongation of the clotting time. If a coagulation inhibitor is present, mixing will usually not correct the clotting time.
62
A _____ test can be used to assess vWF activity because it causes conformational changes in vWF triggering binding to GpIb
Ristocetin
63
The thrombin time test is very sensitive to the presence of _____
heparin