Hematopoesis Flashcards

1
Q

Where does blood formation occur mainly

A

bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Blood formation occurs mainly where

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does bone marrow Blood formation start

A

4th month IUL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is blood formed in 1-3 weeks of IUL

A

yolk sac:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

I’m the 4th week , where is blood formation

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

For how long is blood formed in the liver and partly spleen

A

4th week up till 4th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is blood formed in the bone marrow only

A

From 6th and 7th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For how long do all bones form blood

A

Form the 7th month of IUL ot 24 months afer birth;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does blood formation begin to Decrease from some bones in the body

A

2nd year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What bones form blood throughout life

A

bone of base of skull,
ribcage,
the Vertebral column,
shoulder girdle
pelvic girdles:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When does blood formation at long bones greatly reduce

A

18 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What’s a bone marrow

A

the tissue that occupies the space between opposing endosteal surfaces of a cavity bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What’s the structure. within hte
bone marow.that’sresponsible for formation of blood

A

‘Hematopoietic Inductive :Microenvironment”’: (HIM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What blood vessels bring anterial blood to the bone

A

Nutrient artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain the process by which nutrient artery becomes emissary artery

A

NUTRIENT. ARTERY. Thsi artery pierces the bone in the nutrient artery canal. It then becomes hte medullaRy aftery, when the
artery enters into the marows space by dividing; into. ascencing/descending artery
medulany artery gives branches that traverse hte space of the bone marow. Theyare caled ThANSVERSE arteries- It pierced the endosteal surface to enter the bone cortex. Within the bone cortex, the
transverse artery pierced the haversion canal, and runs as haversian capillary .This haversion capillary supples oxygen to the cortical cells of the bone
The haversian capillary also turns: back into the bone marows! On entering the bone marow, it baloons out to form the bone marrow. sinussids: the blood si flowing: in the bone marow sinusoid and that blood comes to colect in the medullary vein (parallel to the medulary artery): The medulary vein collects and leaves the bone marow in the Emissary vein!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are HIM found

A

Wishing the bone marrow sinusoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What forms the bone marrow sinusoids

A

The Haversian capillaries that turn into the bone marrow. And balloons our to form a sinusoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does Haversian capillary come about

A

When the transverse artery pierced the endosteal surface of the bone, to enter the bone cortex and enters the Haversian canal, it becomes the Haversian capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cells make up the outer surface of the HIM

A

Endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What surface is the liminal and adluminal surface of the HIM

A

Luminal: outer surface
Adluminal: Inner surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What’s the HIM cavity called

A

hIM matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What lines the adluminal surface of the HIM

A

Reticulum/Advantitia cells
Marrow stroma cells
Adipose cells
Macrophages
Some fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What’s the function of Reticulum/Adventitia cells

A

production of reticulin fibers that are secreted into the matrix tissue in the space of the HIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the function of the fibroblasts and stroma cells

A

Produce varieties of collagen fibers, particularly collagen type I, III, and IV that are secreted in the HIMspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What’s the cement tissue

A

Aminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Examples of cement tissue

A

•Hyaluronic acid
• Heparin sulphate,
• Chondroitin (IV) sulphate,.
• Dermatan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do all the cells of the adluminal surface synthesize and secrete

A

Aminoglycans
Hematopoietic Growth Factor
Some protein ( that help promote hematopoiesis by making sure that immature hematopoietic cells are retained in the HIM until maturation )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Examples of the hematopoietic growth factors secreted into the HIM space

A
  1. Granulocyte –colony stimulating factors
  2. granulocyte’–macrophage: colony stimulating factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Examples of proteins secreted by the adluminal cells

A

Fibronectin
Hemonectin
Vitronectin
Laminin
Tenascin
Endoglin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the protein secreted by the ablumimal cells

A

Fibronectin
Vitronectin
Hemonectin
Tenascin
Laminin
Endoglin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Contents of the HIM space

A

Reticulin fibers
Collagen fibers
Protein
Cement tissue
Erythropoietic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Examples of hematopoietic cells

A

Erythroid cells
Leukocytes
Throbocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does hematopeosis consist of

A

Thrombopoesis
Leukopoesis
Thrombocytopoesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the sub type of cells in the leukocytes

A

Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Granulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the sub type of cells under granulocyte s

A

Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Another name for thrombocytopeisis

A

Megakaryocytopoesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where do erythropoesis and thrombocytopoesis occur

A

Island of cells In close position to the adluminal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does granulocytopoesis occur

A

Inner to the location of erythropoesis and thrombopoesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where does granulocytopoesis occur

A

Inner to the location of erythropoesis and thrombocytopoesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where does lynphocytppoesis occur

A

In the very center of the HIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where does monocytopoesis occur

A

Close to the location for granulocytopoesis inner to thrombocytopoesis and erythrocytopoesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where are all blood cells derived from

A

Pluripotent stet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 important properties of a stem cell

A

•Capable of cell division resulting in self renewal
•Capable of mitotic cell division accompanied with differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the pluripotent stem cell become

A

It either divides to become more pluripotent stem cells
Or it divides to become myeloid committed stem cell and lymphoid commuted stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a progenitor cell

A

They are commited to a hemopoetic lineage but have no microscopic or morphological identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are precursor cells

A

They are committed to a given hematopoietic lineage and are morphological identifiable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is myeloid commited stem cell divided and why

A

It can divide into more myeloid committed stem cells or can discuss into BFUe, BFUmk, Highly proliferative potential CFC (HPPCFC)

This is because it’s also a stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do BFU ,mkBFU, and HPPCFC divide and why

A

They divide and mature
Because they are not stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What time of cells are BFU and CFU

A

Progenitor cells
They both are morphologically unidentifiable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What’s the biochemical identification of the erythroid progenitor cells

A

Appearance of ABO blood group on the cell membrane
They also begin to express receptors for erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does E- CFU divvied to become

A

Mitotic division to become pro erythroblast ( first precursor cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What’s the first precursor cell

A

Proerythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe the proerythroblast

A

Larder cell with large circular nucleus and thin cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What’s the most distinguishing feature of the proerythroblast

A

Perfect circularity of nucleus
COIN NUCLEUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Describe the cytoplasm of the proerythroblast

A

Thin rim
Has no hemoglobin hence DEEP BLUISH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When can the proerythroblast cytoplasm have haemoglobin

A

Some biochemical tests such as the FUELGEN reaction
Small quantity of HB is seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does the proerythroblast divide to become

A

Basophyslic erythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What’s the most important characteristic of the basophylic erythroblast

A

Coin circularity of nucleus
(Just like proerythroblast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Describe the cytoplasm of the basophylic erythroblast

A

It’s larger and not rim thin
Bluish I’m color but not DEEP bluish
(Quite different from proerythroblast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does basophilic erythroblast divide to become

A

Basophilic erythroblast Type 1 divides to become Basophylic erythroblast Type 2
(Little difference between them)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does Basophilic erythroblast divide to become

A

Polychromatic erythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe the nucleus and cytoplasm of the polychromatic erythroblast

A

Also has a coin circular nucleus but the nucleus is much smaller and the cytoplasm is much bigger

Cytoplasm is a combination of bluish and reddish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is polychromasia

A

The mix of color in the cytoplasm of the polychromatic erythroblast (bluish and reddish)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What’s the difference between -cyte and -blast

A

-cyte : Nucleus is absent
-blast : Nucleus is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What’s the change in cells and cytoplasm as we go down from proerythroblast to orthocromic erythroblast

A

The cytoplasm becomes bigger and
The cells becomes smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does polychromatic erythroblast divide to become

A

Orthochromic erythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the characteristics of the orthochromic erythroblast

A

Small sized cell
Cytoplasm is large and orthochromic (reddish)
Nucleus is eccentrally placed and pyknotic (shrunken)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Describe the nucleus of the orthochromatic erythroblast

A

Pyknotic (shrunken)
Almost solidified
Does not divide agains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does the orthochromatic erythroblast become

A

Erythrocyte (annucleated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How does the annucleated erythrocytes leave the HIM

A

By piercing through the ablumimal surface cells and the endothelial cells and joins the circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How does the erythrocytes leave the bone marrow

A

Through the emissary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the newly escaped erythrocyte contain

A

remants of endoplasmic reticulmm matertals and mitochondria in the cytoplasm:
Others are non-compledely removed nuclear and ribosomal materials
All these materials are removed when the erythrocyte reaches spleen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How long after the erythrocyte leaves the bone marrow does the spleen remove all the remnant organelles in the erythrocyte

A

Approx 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What happens to the mature erythrocyte after the leaving the spleen

A

Leaves the spleen to circulate in the blood for 100-120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the reticulocyte and why is it called that

A

The erythrocytes that leave the bone marrow because it still have remnant organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When does reticulocyte stop being reticulocyte

A

After it leaves the spleen, it’s now a mature erythrocyte instead because it has no remnant organelle again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What’s the main function of the erythroid cells in the body

A

Reversible carriage and transfer of O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why can the RBC participate in the buffer system of the body

A

Because Hb has buffering capacity for human body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How can erythroid cells help in detoxification of the body

A

it complexes with poisonous gases such as carbon monoxide as Hb complexes with CO to form “carbon Mono-oxyhemoglobin”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens when the level of poisonous gases in the blood becomes too much

A

reversible oxygen carriage becomes problematic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How many mitotic divisions between proerythroblast and othrochromatic erythroblasts

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Why can’t the orthochromatic erythroblast divide

A

Because the nucleus has become pyknotic and can only be removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How many erythrocytes are yielded from one proerythroblast

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What happens when there is insufficient DNA material for replication

A

Leads to
-Fail in mitosis
-Lesser number of mitotic stages
-Reduced no orthochromatic erythroblast and erythrocytes
-Each daughter erythrocytes will be bigger in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What’s the disease called when there is insufficient material for DNA replication

A

MACROCYTIC/ MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA

Reduced RBC in circulation but cell size is bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is megaloblastic anemia

A

Reduced RBC in circulation but fell size is big
Due to insufficient material for DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is cytoplasmic nuclear synchrony

A

The type of maturation where the cytoplasm becomes bigger but the nucleus becomes smaller
(Occurs in normal maturation sequence of the erythroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is Cytoplasmic Nuclear Asynchrony

A

A situation where the nucleus is unable to replicate/mature (divide into smaller divisions) but the cytoplasm is still maturing (getting hemoglobinised and bigger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is an erythroid blast with features of cytoplasmic nuclear asynchrony called

A

Megalobalst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What happens when the material for nuclear replication is available BUT not material for cytoplasm maturation (lacking in Hb synthesis)

A

Microcytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What happens in microcytic anemia

A

Due to lack of maturation of cytoplasm but continual maturation of nucleus
-The No of mitotic division between pro and orthochromatic erythroblast increases
-Instead of having 16 cells , they MIGHT end up being 32 cell
-They are smaller in size
-And are called microcytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The microcytic and megaloblast Anemia are diseases of what and what

A

Microcytic anemia : Disease of the synthesis of haemoglobin
MEGALOBLASTIC anemia: Disease of the replication nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What’s the haemoglobin conc of the cytoplasm of megaloblasts and microcytes

A

Megaloblast : haemoglobin rich cytoplasm
Microcytes : haemoglobin deficient cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the requirements for the calculation of red cell indices

A

Red cell count
Packed cell volume
Hb concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is red cell count

A

no of red cells present in 1L of blood
Approx 5 trillion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What’s packed cell volume

A

total voulme of red cells in 1L of whole blood.
0.4L of red cells in 1L of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is Hb concentration

A

amount of Hb present ni 1L of whole blood
150g of Hb in 1 L of blood; 150g/L or 15g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the red cell indices

A

MCV mean cell volume
MCH mean cell Hb
MCHC mean cell Hb concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How do you calculate MCV

A

PCV/red cell count
O.4/5 trillion
=80fentoliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How do you calculate mean cell Hb

A

Hb conc/red cell count
150/5 trillion
30picogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How do you calculate MCHC

A

Hb conc/pcv
150/0.4
375g/L or 37.5g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Describe the MCV, MCH, MCHC in megaloblasts

A

MCV: High
MCH : High
MCHC : Normal/High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Describe Describe the MCV, MCH, MCHC in microcytes

A

MCV: always low
MCH: always low
MCHC: always low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is megakaryocytopoesis

A

Formation of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does the myeloid committed stem cell divide to in megalaryopoesis

A

mkBFU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does mk BFU divide to become

A

mkCFU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the platelets progenitor cells

A

mkBFU and mkCFU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What do mkCFU divide to become

A

Megalaryoblast (first precursor cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What’s the first precursor cell on megakaryopoesis

A

Megakasryoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Describe the megakaroblasts

A

usualy a smal sized cell, just slightly bigger than the lymphocytes and sometimes difficult to differentiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What does megakaryoblast undergo

A

Undergoes endonuclear reduplication to become 2-N stage megakaryoblast

112
Q

What does 2-N stage megakaryoblast become

A

Divides to become 4-N stage megakaryoblast

113
Q

What’s the progression of the division of megakaryoblast

A

Megakaryoblast ➡️ 2-N stage megakaryoblast ➡️ 4-N stage megakaryoblast ➡️ 8-N stage ➡️ 16-N stage ➡️ 32- N stage ➡️ 64- N stage ➡️ 128- N stage megakaryoblast

114
Q

What is endonuclear reduplication

A

A mitotic division where the nucleus is duplicated without resulting
in cell division is called endonuclear REDUPLICATION.

115
Q

What are platelets formed from

A

They are formed as fragments of the cytoplasm of mature megakaryocytes

116
Q

What are the functions of platelets

A
  1. helps to seal injured/damaged blod vesels.
  2. have capacity to replace endothelial cells when there’s
    denudation of endothelial cells
117
Q

What is platelet adhesion

A

When platelets lie over the sub endothelial structures,

118
Q

What is platelet aggregation

A

When platelets lie over another platelet,

119
Q

What mediates platelet adhesion

A

GP Ib receptor that attaches to VW factor (an adhesive protein) which attaches to subendothelial surface

120
Q

What must be present for platelet adhesion

A

Platelet
VW factor
GP Ib receptors

121
Q

What’s the deficiency of GP Ib receptor

A

Benard-Soulier Syndrome

122
Q

What does platelet need for aggregation

A

GP IIa/IIIb receptor (that binds to fibrinogen)

123
Q

What must be present for platelet aggregation

A

Platelets
GP IIa/IIIb receptor
Fibrinogen

124
Q

What’s the deficiency of GP IIa/IIIb receptor

A

Glanzmann’s disease

125
Q

What does myeloid committed stem cell divide into

A

Ery- BFU
Mk- BFU
HPPCFC

126
Q

Hat does HPPCFC stand for

A

Highly proliferative potential colony forming cell

127
Q

What does HPPCHC divide into

A

HPPCHC type 1 divides into HPPCHC type 2

128
Q

What does HPP-CFC- type 2 divide into

A

CFC-Eos
CFC-Bas
GM-CFC

129
Q

What does GM-CFC (granulocyte macrophages CFC) divide into

A

G-CFC :granulocytes CFC
M-CFC :macrophages CFC

130
Q

What does CFC-Eos, CFC-Bas and G-CFC all join to become

A

Myelobalst

131
Q

Is the myeloblast coming from CFC-Eos, CFC-Bas and G-CFC differentiatable

A

No, they’re not differentiatable

132
Q

What are progenitor cells for the granulocyte

A

HPPCFC
CFC-Eos
CFC-Bas
GM-CFC
G-CFC

133
Q

What’s the first precursor cells for granulocyte

A

Myeloblast

134
Q

What does myeloblast divide to become

A

Promyelocyte

135
Q

Describe the myelocyte (nucleus and cytoplasm)

A

Mononuclear cell with an ovoid/roundish nucleus
The cytoplasm lack granule except 1 or 2 primary granules

136
Q

Describe the promyelocytes

A

It’s a large cell with a large cytoplasm with a great quantity of primary granules

137
Q

Describe the primary granules of promyelocytes

A

Basophilic,thick and prominent in the cytoplasmic

138
Q

Is the promyelocytes of Eosinophils, Basophils and granulocyte differntiatable?

A

No

139
Q

What does promyelocyte divide into

A

Myelocyte

140
Q

When does secondary granule start develop (what developmental stage)

A

Myelocyte

141
Q

What stage are secondary granules developed

A

Myelocytes

142
Q

What differntiates Esonophil, Basophils and Neutrophils

A

Secondary granules

143
Q

At what stage can Eosinophils, Basophils and Neutrophils differentiatable

A

At the Myelocyte (due to secondary granules)

144
Q

What do the myelocytes (whether Basophilic, eosinophilic or neutrophilic) divide to

A

Basophilic metamyelocyte
Eosinophilic metamyelocyte
Neutrophilic metamyelocyte

145
Q

What do metamyelocytes become

A

The become Eosinophilic band/Basophilic band/ Neutrophilic band which further mature to become (SEGMENTED GRANULOCYTES) - segmented eosinophils, segmented basophils, segmented neutrophils

146
Q

What’s the nucleaic feature of the myelobast, promyelocytes and myelocyte

A

Mononuclear with a oval/roundish nucleus

147
Q

What happens to the roundish nucleus at the metamayelocyte stage

A

There is an indentation to become BEAN SHAPED

148
Q

What happens to the indentation of the nucleus of the metamyelocyte as it matures further

A

The indentation deepens to become band cells

149
Q

What are the Basophils also referred to as

A

The alarm cells of the body

150
Q

Why are the basophils referred to as the alarm cells of the body

A

They mediate inflammation by production histamine and other inflammatory mediators

151
Q

What’s the function of Eosinophilic cells

A

Fight against tissue parasitic infection

152
Q

How do Eosinophils kill tissue parasites

A

The Charcot-Layden granules (that they possess) are able to dissolve the outside coating of nearly all tissue parasites , immobilize and kill them

153
Q

What’s the function of neutrophils

A

They mediate Opsonization resulting in ingestion or phagocytosis of acute bacterial agents which are then killed by the granular contents of the basophils

154
Q

What is monocytes derived from

A

Thé monocyte’s also derivative of HPP- CFC. HPP-CFC type:1: gives rise ot HPP- CFC type 2; This then gives rise to GM-CFC,which then gives rise to: CFC-M;, which then gives nise ot monoblast: Monoblast —Promonocyte: —Monocyte:

155
Q

How are monocytes circulated in the blood and stored in organs

A

Circulated in the blood as monocytes but stored in tissues as different macrophages

156
Q

What are the different types of macrophages in the body

A

Liver - kupfer cells
Bone marrow - Histiorytes:
spleen - follicular dendritic cell
skin - langerhan cells
kidney - Mesangial cela
lymphatics - veil cells:
Lungs - Alveolar macrophages

157
Q

What are all the macrophages collectively referred to as

A

Monocyte macrophages mononuvlear system cells

Reticuloendotgelial nuclear cells

158
Q

What are the major function of the MMMSC

A

•They are the systems that help to contain all chronic bacterial infections particularly TB
• they are responsible for immune responses against several fungal infections
• They phagocyte particulate agents that infiltrate the lung like dust

159
Q

What happens to the MMMSC with age

A

They weaken with age

160
Q

What are the 2 division of the MMMSC

A

Group 1: the cells capable of continued mitosis, hence, enrich the tissue of where they are with monocytes dependent immune function

Group 2: cells which are incapable of continued mitosis, once formed the continue to function to archive dust, bacterial or fungal infection, and a time comes when they are no longer cap of archiving insults of microorganism, which is why with age immune functions decline and older people have a higher rush of bacterial and fungal Infection

161
Q

What does the lymphoid committed stem cell divide into

A

Pre B cells
Pre T cells

162
Q

How are lymphoid committed stem cells Identifiable

A

By a cluster of differentiation antigen called CD 10

163
Q

What is CD10

A

They are receptors often found on cell membranes, and they are used to identify the cell. However, most of these receptors have their own function, but their main function is for identification of cells.

Also called common ALL antigen

164
Q

What is common ALL antigen

A

CD10
Common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen

165
Q

Where are pre B cells found

A

At the center of the HIM
Often Identified by demonstration of immunoglobulin gene rearrangement

166
Q

What is Germ Line

A

The genes in all cells as inherited at fertilization

167
Q

What happens to germ line inheritance

A

Rearranged in 2 cell types
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes

168
Q

Why does gene rearrangement occur in B lymphocytes

A

Gives the body the capacity to form antibody to any type of antigen found in nature

169
Q

To produce an antibody to a specific antigen, what needs to happen

A

There must be a B cell circulating in the blood already with the immunoglobulin to that particular antigen

170
Q

Why is every B cell in the body different

A

They all contain different surface membrane immunoglobulin

171
Q

How does the body have the ability to form different B cells immunoglobulin

A

Gene rearrangement phenomenon

172
Q

How are different B cell immunoglobulins formed

A

If a B- cell is going to be formed, it’s has germ line Ig gene. That particular B cell will rearrange the germ line Ig gene to produce a specific antibody for an antigen in nature. Another B cell with rearrange it’s own germ line Ig gene to form it’s own specific antibody for an antigen in nature (different for the other B cell antibody)

173
Q

How is an Ig formed

A

By forming a light chain and a heavy chain of Ig

174
Q

What are the regions on the heavy chain

A

Variable region
Diversity region
Joining region
constant region

175
Q

What are the Ig heavy chain regions

A

Variable region
Diversity region
Joining region
Constant region

176
Q

What are the Ig light chain regions

A

Variable region
Constant region

177
Q

What is The germ line inheritance of Ig gene for heavy chain

A

Everyone has 39 to 49 variable regions gene, 10 variable region genes, 6 joining region genes, and 9 constant region genes

178
Q

What are the types of the light chain Ig gene

A

Lamda and kappa chain
And they cannot both exist on on Ig

179
Q

How many variable region chain and constant region chain do the lamda and kappa have

A

40 variable region chain
2-3 constant region chain

180
Q

When genes are rearranged to form antibodies, where are they secreted

A

Cell membrane and not plasma thats why they are called surface membrane Ig

181
Q

How is an antibody formed from the heavy chain

A

One of all the region genes in the Ig heavy chain are selected, while the rest are deleted

182
Q

When In the Pre B cell stage, if checked for the germ line inheritance, what is seen

A

The germ line is no longer seen at This stage because it has been rearranged

183
Q

Where is the immunoglobulin found in the Pre B cell and why

A

Found in the cytoplasm (no longer membrane) because by this time , tot has started producing the Ig it rearranged its gene for, hence pre B cell has cytoplasmic Ig

184
Q

What does pre B cell mature to become

A

B-celli n transibon

185
Q

What 2 things are used to identify pre B cell

A

•Molecular technique to demonstrate Ig gene rearrangement
• Staining techniques ( it lol be +be for cytoplasmic Ig)

186
Q

What is peculiar about B cell in transition

A

It’ll have booth cytoplasmic Iv and surface membrane Ig

187
Q

What does B cell in transition divide to become

A

Circulating / Virgin B cell

188
Q

What type of Ig is present in circilulating B cell

A

Only surface membrane Ig

189
Q

What type of Ig is pre B cell +ve for

A

Cytoplasmic Ig

190
Q

What type of Ig is B cell in transition +ve for

A

Both cytoplasmic and surface membrane Ig

191
Q

What type of a Ig is virgin B cell +be for

A

Surface membrane Ig

192
Q

What B cell receptors are present in all B cells for B cell in transition to the last B cell in development

A

CD 19
CD 20
CD 21
CD 22
and when activated CD23

193
Q

What happens to a Virgin B cells

A

It remains the way it is forever ( no further development) unless its surface membrane Ig comes in contact with a corresponding antigen in nature, then it undergoes further development

194
Q

What does further development of the virgin B cell depend on

A

Antigenic stimulation

195
Q

Where does further development of the virgin B cell occur

A

I’m the lymph nodes and not peripheral circulation

196
Q

What does the antigenically stimulated B cell home

A

The Lymph nodes follicles (in the cortex)

197
Q

What area of the lymph nodes surround the lymph node follicles

A

Paracortex

198
Q

What area of the lymph nodes paracortex merged with the lymph nodes follicles

A

The marginal zone of the lymph node

199
Q

What area of the lymph node follicle is inner to the marginal zone

A

Mantle zone

200
Q

What cells are present at the very center of the lymph nodes follicle

A

Follicular center cells

201
Q

What exact part of the lymph node follicle is the antigenically stimulated B cells located

A

In the follicular center

202
Q

What happens if the virgin B cells stops at the marginal or mantle zone rather than the follicular center

A

It will not be able to continue its development as a B cell

203
Q

What does the virgin B cell mature to become

A

The small cleaved B cell

204
Q

What does the small cleaved B cell mature to become

A

Large cleaved B cell

205
Q

What does the large cleaved B cell mature to become

A

Small non cleaved B cell

206
Q

What does the small non cleaved B cell mature to become

A

Large non cleaved B cell

207
Q

What does the large non cleaved B cell divide to become

A

B immunoblast

208
Q

What does the B immunolblas do after it’s formation

A

It leaves the follicular center of the lymph nodes and travel to the bone marrow

209
Q

What does the b immuniblast mature to become in the bone marrow

A

B plasmacytoid cell

210
Q

What does b plamsacytoid cell divide to become

A

Plasma cells

211
Q

Where are plasma cells found

A

Bone martow

212
Q

What development of B cells occur in the follicular center

A

From virgin B cell to B immunoblast

213
Q

How long does it take for a virgin B cell to become a plasma cell that’ releases antibodies

A

14 days

214
Q

What happens to the surface membrane Ig of the B cell when it becomes a plasma cell

A

It begins to form that same Ig l, but not to incorporate it to the membrane but to release it into the plasma

215
Q

What is the period of time when an antigen is present in the body but the corresponding antibody is yet to be produced called

A

Serologic latency period

216
Q

What happens to some of the B immunoblast that don’t become a plasmacytoid cell

A

Some of the B immunoblast reverse in morphological appearance to look like virgin B cells (memory cells)

217
Q

What are memory B cells

A

Virgin B cells that have previously undergone maturation to B immunoblast stage of development

218
Q

What is the purpose of the memory phenomenon

A

It occurs to shorten immunological reactions so that if that same antigen comes in again, instead of going through all the stages of development again, the virgin B cell will just become a B immunoblast, ( which then becomes a plasmacytoid cell and a plasma cell right away)

219
Q

What is the phenomenon of vaccine

A

It uses the memory phenomenon
So it introduces A (weaker version) of an antigen, so that the B cells can undergo gene arrangement to produce an antigen for that specific antigen , so that when the actual antigen attacks the body, there would be memory cells that will hasten the immunologic reaction and attack the antibody

Also there’s a larger number of plasma cells produced and a larger number of antibodies **Called vaccine boosting **

220
Q

How many days does it take for memory B cells to produce plasma cells

A

3-4 days

221
Q

How many plasma cells can be gotten from one virgin B cell

A

128 plasma cells (they all produce the same Ig)

222
Q

What are the functions of the B cell

A

•Mediate humoral immunity for the organism that its directed against (viral and bacterial organisms)

223
Q

What is Ig referred to as opsonin

A

When a bacteria enters the body, the corresponding antibody attaches to the antigen on the membrane of the bacteria . Such bacteria that has Ig antigenically attached to its surface membrane is said to be opsonized

The opsonized bacteria is now susceptible to phagocytes by ( neutrophils and monocytes)because they have receptors for the Fraction crystallization (FC) fragment of Ig

224
Q

How do neutrophil and sometimes monocyte help with the phagocytes of opsonized bacteria

A

They bind with the altered FC fragment on the Ig (that has opsonized the bacteria) **binding of Ig to a bacteria alters it’s FC fragment, it’s the altered FC fragments that neutrophils and monocytes recognize **

Hence phagocytes cannot occur except opsonization has occurred

225
Q

What cluster of differentiation antigen makes Pre T cells identifiable

A

CD 2 and CD 3

226
Q

How does the T cell travel

A

It leaves the HIM space and travels to the thymus into the thymus lobule

227
Q

What is the pre cortical T cell

A

The pre T Cell that has gotten to the thymus lobule but is yet to enter the cortex of the the thymus lobule

228
Q

What CD is present in the pre cortical T cell

A

CD1, CD2, CD3

229
Q

The happens to the pre cortical T cell

A

The enter the cortex of the thymic lobule to become the cortical T cell

230
Q

What CD is pre cortical T cell specific

A

CD 1

231
Q

What happens to the T cell when it becomes cortical

A

The cortical T cell loses CD1 but gains CD 4 and CD 8

232
Q

What CD antigens are +be in the cortical T cell

A

CD 2 , CD3, CD 4, CD8

233
Q

What does the cortical T cell become

A

It moves from the thymic cortex to the thymic medulla to become the medullary T cell

234
Q

What happens to the T cell when it becomes medullary

A

It loses either CD 4 or CD8

235
Q

What CD is +ve in medullary T cell

A

Either CD2, CD3 and CD4 (but CD8 -ve)
Or CD2, CD3 , and CD8 (but CD 4 -ve)

236
Q

What % of the T cells in the body are either CD 4 or CD8 +ve

A

95%

237
Q

After the medullary T cells, what are the other types of T cells

A

T delayed hypersensitivity cells
T suppressor cells
T natural killer cells
(All make 5%)

238
Q

How does the medullary T cell Travel

A

It leaves the the medulla of the thymic lobule into the circulation to become circulating T cell/virgin T cell

239
Q

What kind of immunity does T cell mediate and B cell mediate

A

T cell: cellular immunity
B cell: humoral immunity

240
Q

How does T cell carry out cellular immunity

A

T cells identify a pathological cell in the body (viral infected cell/ undergoing mitotic change) and the delivers a cytotoxic kill using its cytoplasmic content

241
Q

How does T cell escape/survive the cytotoxic kill it delivers to pathologic cells

A

It has calci reticulin molecules within it that neutralizes it’s cytolytic proteins

242
Q

Examples of the calci reticulin molecules that protect T cells from its cytolytic proteins

A

Perforin
Caspases

243
Q

How does the T cell identify the cells to be eliminated

A

It’s identifies the neo antigen expressed on the membrane of the cell. It used T cell receptors (TcR) to identify the neoantigen

244
Q

How is TcR capable of identifying different neoantigen

A

Just like we have B cell germ line, there’s also T cell germ line that’s also rearranged in many ways so that there’s a TcR for as many neoantigens in the body

245
Q

What can cause further development of a circulating T cell

A

The circulating T cell has to come in contact with its corresponding cellular antigen in nature

246
Q

What happens to the circulating T cell when it is antigenically stimulated

A

Just like the B cells , it travels to the lymph node (but for T cell, it stays in the lymph node paracortex)

247
Q

What happens to the circulating T cell if it’s antigenically stimulated

A

Just like B cells, it also travels to the lymph node for further maturation (but for T cells , it stays in the lymph node paracortex)

248
Q

What’s the B cell home (in the lymph node)

A

Lymph node follicular center

249
Q

What’s the T cell home ( in the lymph nodes)

A

Lymph nodes paracortex

250
Q

In the lymphoid paracortex, what does the virgin T cell become

A

It’s become small non cleaved T cell

251
Q

What does small non cleaved T cell become

A

Large non cleaved T cell

252
Q

What B cells have no T cell counterparts

A

The small and large cleaved B cells

253
Q

What does large non ckeaved T cell become

A

T immunoblast

254
Q

What does the T immunoblast mature to become

A

The T immunoblast does not mature any further, it only accumulates effector molecules it uses to carry out its cytolytic functions

255
Q

What happens to some of the T immunoblast

A

Just like some B immunoblast, some. T immunoblast can also undergo morphological reversal to look like the circulating T cell

256
Q

What are memory T cells

A

The are virgin T cells which have previously undergone maturation to the stage of T immunoblast but were morphologically reversed

257
Q

What are the 2 major broad types of T cells

A

CD 4 + cell
CD 8 + cell

258
Q

What’s the function of the T delayed hypersensitivity cell

A

give helper signals ot macrophages,to support or enhance the macrophage immune functions against, chronic bacterial, illness and against fungal illnesses

They supply gamma-interferons to aid. monoryte-macrophage-functions. against chronic bacterial and fungal infections

(T cells surround granulomatous tissue against TB in caseous necrosis)

259
Q

What’s the function of the T supressot cells

A

limit immune hyper activity

260
Q

What happens to people with deficiency in T supressot cell

A

They have immune hyper activity
(Auto immunity disease) eg systemic lupus erythromatotus

261
Q

What’s the function of the T natural killer cells

A

Gods’ given immunity against development of cancer
Capable of identifying neoantigen on cells undergoing mitotic changes and delivers cytolytic kill to them

262
Q

Gat are the CD 8+ cells functions

A

Cells given by God as a major defense against viral infections
All cells infected by viruses are often identified by cytotoxic T cells and it delivers cytotoxic kill

263
Q

What’s the function of CD 4 + cells

A

These are the T helper cells
The help other immune cells to function properly
Render help to B cells, macrophages, CTL, T suppressor cells, T delayed hypersensitivity cell, T NK cell

264
Q

What happens in the absence of T helper cells (CD4+)

A

No other immune cells function well

265
Q

What are the types of the T helper cells

A

TH 1
TH 2
TH 17. (Helps to produce a cytokine: interleukin 17)

266
Q

What is TH 2 cell also referred to as

A

T regulatory cell
It helps other T cells carry out their functions

267
Q

What the function of the TH 1

A

It’s the effector cell
It’s able to cytolize other cells

268
Q

What kind of cells can HIV infect

A

CD4+ cells

269
Q

How does HIV infect CD4+ cells

A

It used its membrane GP 120 to interact with the CD4 molecule and becomes anchored to its membrane . The virus also fuses its membrane with the human cell membrane and becomes internalized into the cytoplasm of CD4+ cells

Attacking CD4+ cells restricts the function of other T cells and the immune is compromised

270
Q

When a person is HIV infected, what other diseases are they at risk for

A

Chronic fungal infection, acute bacterial infection, cancer as NK cells no longer function

271
Q

What are the 4 goals of Anti retroviral therapy

A

Virologic goal
Immunologic goal
Clinical goal
Epidemiological goal

272
Q

Explain the virologic goal of antiretroviral therapy

A

The virus become undetectable once the drug is taken

273
Q

What is the immunologic goal of antiretroviral therapy

A

Because the virus effect is no longer detected, the bone marrow can now produce new CD4+ cells

274
Q

What’s the clinical goal of the antiretroviral therapy

A

The cessation of opportunistic illnesses (bacteria , fungal infections, cancer) when immunity is reconstituted

275
Q

What is the epidemiological goal of antiretroviral therapy

A

Once a patient achieves the virological goal, the person becomes uninfectious
For every patient on effective antiretroviral therapy , 5-10 new infections have been prevented
That’s the epidemiological goal

276
Q

What’s another name for CD8+ cell

A

Cytotoxic T cell

277
Q

What’s another name for CD4+ cells

A

T helper cells