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hematology prt 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What constitutes about 40-50% of total NPN?

A

Blood urea nitrogen

Blood urea nitrogen is synthesized in the liver and pancreas from three amino acids.

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2
Q

What is the significance of MCV in hematology?

A

Requires data on hematocrit and RBC count

MCV stands for Mean Corpuscular Volume and is expressed in femtoliters.

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3
Q

What is the normal reference range for platelets?

A

150,000 - 450,000 u/L

This range is crucial for evaluating blood clotting ability.

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4
Q

What type of dye is methylene blue in Wright’s stain?

A

Basic dye

Methylene blue stains hemoglobin and eosinophilic granules.

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5
Q

Which condition is characterized by an increased number of myelocytes, metamyelocytes, and/or bands in peripheral blood?

A

Shift to Left

This condition can be associated with either increased or decreased WBC counts.

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6
Q

What is the reference range for WBC?

A

4 - 11 x 10^9/L

This range is vital for diagnosing various hematologic conditions.

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7
Q

What does the term ‘Aplastic’ refer to in marrow assessment?

A

Marrow has fewer or no hematopoietic cells

Aplastic anemia is a serious condition characterized by a lack of blood cell production.

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8
Q

What is the lifespan of granulocytes?

A

1-2 days

This short lifespan is important for understanding immune response dynamics.

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9
Q

What is the normal myeloid:erythroid ratio?

A

3:1 and 4:1

This ratio helps in assessing bone marrow function.

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10
Q

Which cell type is referred to as PMNs?

A

Segmented Neutrophil

PMN stands for polymorphonuclear leukocyte, primarily involved in the immune response.

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11
Q

What is Gaucher Disease characterized by?

A

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency resulting in accumulating macrophages in bone marrow, spleen, and liver

This condition is a lysosomal storage disease.

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12
Q

Fill in the blank: The T-helper cell CD marker is ______.

A

CD4

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13
Q

What is the principle of automated impedance cell counters?

A

Change in optical density of the scattering cell

This principle is essential for accurate cell counting.

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14
Q

What is the role of thromboxane A2 in hemostasis?

A

Stimulates platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

Thromboxane A2 is crucial for the clotting process.

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15
Q

What is the function of the enzyme zymogens in coagulation?

A

Converted by enzymes to active forms

Zymogens are inactive precursors of clotting factors.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of Drabkin reagent?

A

Used to measure hemoglobin

This reagent is commonly used in laboratory settings.

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17
Q

What does a positive solubility test indicate?

A

Detection for hemoglobin S

This test is crucial for diagnosing sickle cell disease.

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18
Q

True or False: Fibrinogen level is a qualitative test for fibrinogen.

A

False

Fibrinogen level is a quantitative measurement.

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19
Q

What is an abnormality seen in Alder-Reilly anomaly?

A

Lysosomal fusion

This anomaly leads to large azurophilic granules in leukocytes.

20
Q

What is the result of necrosis in blood cells?

A

Blood cell is killed

Necrosis is a form of cell death caused by external factors.

21
Q

True or False: Thrombin time is a test for fibrinogen.

A

True

22
Q

What can cause falsely low ESR results?

A

Clotted sample, excess anticoagulant, old samples

These factors can lead to inaccurate ESR readings.

23
Q

What is the effect of a hypertonic solution on cells?

A

Shrink

Cells lose water and decrease in size in hypertonic solutions.

24
Q

What is the significance of May-Hegglin anomaly?

A

Familial disorder featuring pseudo-Donald thrombocytopenia and large platelets

This condition is important for understanding inherited platelet disorders.

25
Q

What does a cloudy urine indicate?

A

False

A cloudy urine does not always indicate an abnormality.

26
Q

What is the reference range for MCHC?

A

32-38 g/dL

MCHC stands for Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration.

27
Q

What is the role of serotonin in hemostasis?

A

Stimulates vasoconstriction when vessel injury occurs

Serotonin is released by platelets to aid in hemostasis.

28
Q

What indicators are employed in the urine reagent strip for pH?

A

Bromocresol green and bromothymol blue

Other combinations mentioned include methyl red and bromothymol blue, methyl red and bromocresol green, and bromothymol blue and tetramethyl blue.

29
Q

In the absence of protein in urine, the indicators turn _____

A

Yellow

This indicates a negative protein test in urine.

30
Q

Casts are magnified for evaluation at _____

A

Hpf

High Power Field (HPF) is typically used for detailed evaluation.

31
Q

The reagent strip for glucose is a _____ test

A

Enzymatic test

This type of test relies on enzyme reactions to detect glucose.

32
Q

The principle of ionization of polyelectrolyte is employed in the _____ strip

A

Specific Gravity strip

This principle helps determine the concentration of urine.

33
Q

Ammonium sulfate added to urine is to filter _____

A

Myoglobin

This helps in the diagnosis of muscle damage.

34
Q

A speckled pattern in the urine test strip for blood indicates _____

A

Hemoglobinuria

This suggests the presence of hemoglobin in urine, not intact red blood cells.

35
Q

Which among the following exhibits dumbbell shape microscopically?

A

Both calcium oxalate and calcium carbonate

Both types of crystals can appear in a dumbbell shape.

36
Q

Glitter cells are _____

A

Leukocytes

These are a type of white blood cell that may indicate infection.

37
Q

Uromodulin is _____

A

Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein

This protein is produced by the kidneys and is involved in urinary function.

38
Q

A cast showing a characteristic maltese cross formation is _____

A

Fatty

Fatty casts indicate significant lipiduria, often seen in nephrotic syndrome.

39
Q

Which of the following is clinically significant?

A

Tyrosine crystals

These crystals can indicate metabolic disorders.

40
Q

The Guthrie test is a test for _____

A

PKU

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is tested for newborn screening.

41
Q

Yellow with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine indicates _____

A

Accumulation of homogentisic acid

This is associated with alkaptonuria.

42
Q

Viscous synovial fluid is due to _____

A

Hyaluronic acid

This acid contributes to the viscosity of synovial fluid.

43
Q

Normal count of WBCs in synovial fluid is _____

A

0-5 WBC/uL

This indicates a healthy joint without inflammation.

44
Q

What type of stool is associated with upper GI bleeding?

A

Black (tarry) stool

This type of stool is known as melena.

45
Q

Infected RBCs in P. falciparum are characterized by _____

A

Crescent shaped gametes

This is a key identifier for the malaria-causing parasite.

46
Q

Which organism is associated with amoebic keratitis of the cornea?

A

Acanthamoeba

This organism is often found in contaminated water.

47
Q

Diagnosis of Chagas disease is made by finding _____

A

Amastigote in the blood

This is a characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi infection.

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