hematology prt 1

Question 1

What constitutes about 40-50% of total NPN?

Answer 1

Blood urea nitrogen

Blood urea nitrogen is synthesized in the liver and pancreas from three amino acids.

Question 2

What is the significance of MCV in hematology?

Answer 2

Requires data on hematocrit and RBC count

MCV stands for Mean Corpuscular Volume and is expressed in femtoliters.

Question 3

What is the normal reference range for platelets?

Answer 3

150,000 - 450,000 u/L

This range is crucial for evaluating blood clotting ability.

Question 4

What type of dye is methylene blue in Wright’s stain?

Answer 4

Basic dye

Methylene blue stains hemoglobin and eosinophilic granules.

Question 5

Which condition is characterized by an increased number of myelocytes, metamyelocytes, and/or bands in peripheral blood?

Answer 5

Shift to Left

This condition can be associated with either increased or decreased WBC counts.

Question 6

What is the reference range for WBC?

Answer 6

4 - 11 x 10^9/L

This range is vital for diagnosing various hematologic conditions.

Question 7

What does the term ‘Aplastic’ refer to in marrow assessment?

Answer 7

Marrow has fewer or no hematopoietic cells

Aplastic anemia is a serious condition characterized by a lack of blood cell production.

Question 8

What is the lifespan of granulocytes?

Answer 8

1-2 days

This short lifespan is important for understanding immune response dynamics.

Question 9

What is the normal myeloid:erythroid ratio?

Answer 9

3:1 and 4:1

This ratio helps in assessing bone marrow function.

Question 10

Which cell type is referred to as PMNs?

Answer 10

Segmented Neutrophil

PMN stands for polymorphonuclear leukocyte, primarily involved in the immune response.

Question 11

What is Gaucher Disease characterized by?

Answer 11

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency resulting in accumulating macrophages in bone marrow, spleen, and liver

This condition is a lysosomal storage disease.

Question 12

Fill in the blank: The T-helper cell CD marker is ______.

Answer 12

CD4

Question 13

What is the principle of automated impedance cell counters?

Answer 13

Change in optical density of the scattering cell

This principle is essential for accurate cell counting.

Question 14

What is the role of thromboxane A2 in hemostasis?

Answer 14

Stimulates platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

Thromboxane A2 is crucial for the clotting process.

Question 15

What is the function of the enzyme zymogens in coagulation?

Answer 15

Converted by enzymes to active forms

Zymogens are inactive precursors of clotting factors.

Question 16

What is the purpose of Drabkin reagent?

Answer 16

Used to measure hemoglobin

This reagent is commonly used in laboratory settings.

Question 17

What does a positive solubility test indicate?

Answer 17

Detection for hemoglobin S

This test is crucial for diagnosing sickle cell disease.

Question 18

True or False: Fibrinogen level is a qualitative test for fibrinogen.

Answer 18

False

Fibrinogen level is a quantitative measurement.

Question 19

What is an abnormality seen in Alder-Reilly anomaly?

Answer 19

Lysosomal fusion

This anomaly leads to large azurophilic granules in leukocytes.

Question 20

What is the result of necrosis in blood cells?

Answer 20

Blood cell is killed

Necrosis is a form of cell death caused by external factors.

Question 21

True or False: Thrombin time is a test for fibrinogen.

Answer 21

True

Question 22

What can cause falsely low ESR results?

Answer 22

Clotted sample, excess anticoagulant, old samples

These factors can lead to inaccurate ESR readings.

Question 23

What is the effect of a hypertonic solution on cells?

Answer 23

Shrink

Cells lose water and decrease in size in hypertonic solutions.

Question 24

What is the significance of May-Hegglin anomaly?

Answer 24

Familial disorder featuring pseudo-Donald thrombocytopenia and large platelets

This condition is important for understanding inherited platelet disorders.

Question 25

What does a cloudy urine indicate?

Answer 25

False ## Footnote A cloudy urine does not always indicate an abnormality.

Question 26

What is the reference range for MCHC?

Answer 26

32-38 g/dL ## Footnote MCHC stands for Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration.

Question 27

What is the role of serotonin in hemostasis?

Answer 27

Stimulates vasoconstriction when vessel injury occurs ## Footnote Serotonin is released by platelets to aid in hemostasis.

Question 28

What indicators are employed in the urine reagent strip for pH?

Answer 28

Bromocresol green and bromothymol blue ## Footnote Other combinations mentioned include methyl red and bromothymol blue, methyl red and bromocresol green, and bromothymol blue and tetramethyl blue.

Question 29

In the absence of protein in urine, the indicators turn _____

Answer 29

Yellow ## Footnote This indicates a negative protein test in urine.

Question 30

Casts are magnified for evaluation at _____

Answer 30

Hpf ## Footnote High Power Field (HPF) is typically used for detailed evaluation.

Question 31

The reagent strip for glucose is a _____ test

Answer 31

Enzymatic test ## Footnote This type of test relies on enzyme reactions to detect glucose.

Question 32

The principle of ionization of polyelectrolyte is employed in the _____ strip

Answer 32

Specific Gravity strip ## Footnote This principle helps determine the concentration of urine.

Question 33

Ammonium sulfate added to urine is to filter _____

Answer 33

Myoglobin ## Footnote This helps in the diagnosis of muscle damage.

Question 34

A speckled pattern in the urine test strip for blood indicates _____

Answer 34

Hemoglobinuria ## Footnote This suggests the presence of hemoglobin in urine, not intact red blood cells.

Question 35

Which among the following exhibits dumbbell shape microscopically?

Answer 35

Both calcium oxalate and calcium carbonate ## Footnote Both types of crystals can appear in a dumbbell shape.

Question 36

Glitter cells are _____

Answer 36

Leukocytes ## Footnote These are a type of white blood cell that may indicate infection.

Question 37

Uromodulin is _____

Answer 37

Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein ## Footnote This protein is produced by the kidneys and is involved in urinary function.

Question 38

A cast showing a characteristic maltese cross formation is _____

Answer 38

Fatty ## Footnote Fatty casts indicate significant lipiduria, often seen in nephrotic syndrome.

Question 39

Which of the following is clinically significant?

Answer 39

Tyrosine crystals ## Footnote These crystals can indicate metabolic disorders.

Question 40

The Guthrie test is a test for _____

Answer 40

PKU ## Footnote Phenylketonuria (PKU) is tested for newborn screening.

Question 41

Yellow with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine indicates _____

Answer 41

Accumulation of homogentisic acid ## Footnote This is associated with alkaptonuria.

Question 42

Viscous synovial fluid is due to _____

Answer 42

Hyaluronic acid ## Footnote This acid contributes to the viscosity of synovial fluid.

Question 43

Normal count of WBCs in synovial fluid is _____

Answer 43

0-5 WBC/uL ## Footnote This indicates a healthy joint without inflammation.

Question 44

What type of stool is associated with upper GI bleeding?

Answer 44

Black (tarry) stool ## Footnote This type of stool is known as melena.

Question 45

Infected RBCs in P. falciparum are characterized by _____

Answer 45

Crescent shaped gametes ## Footnote This is a key identifier for the malaria-causing parasite.

Question 46

Which organism is associated with amoebic keratitis of the cornea?

Answer 46

Acanthamoeba ## Footnote This organism is often found in contaminated water.

Question 47

Diagnosis of Chagas disease is made by finding _____

Answer 47

Amastigote in the blood ## Footnote This is a characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi infection.