Hematology Malignancies Flashcards

1
Q

leukemia

A
  • Accumulation of Malignant white cells in bone marrow and blood
  • They can cause symptoms from (1. bone marrow failure - Anemia, neutropenia, low platelet 2. Infiltration of organs - liver, spleen, lymph nodes, meninges, brain or skin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

acute myeloid leukemia

A
  • AML occurs in all age groups. Median age 67
  • most common form of leukemia in adults
  • Only comprises 10-15% of leukemia in childhood.
  • Primary AML: arises de novo
  • Secondary AML: Leukemia that develop from previous hematologic disorders or from previous chemotherapy for other cancers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AML clinical features

A
  • Profound anemia, thrombocytopenia
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • Tumor infiltration: (gum hypertrophy, skin involvement, CNS disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment of AML

A
  • Supportive care with transfusions
  • Chemotherapy : Induction chemotherapy followed by consolidation chemotherapy
  • ATRA/Arsenic for AML-M3 subtype
  • Stem cell transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia

A
  • Most common form of leukemia in children, representing 80% of acute leukemia in children and 20% in adults
  • 1 to 1.5 per 100,000
  • Highest incidence is 3-7 years
  • Second rise after age 40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ALL clinical features

A
  • Bone marrow failure (Anemia (pallor, lethargy, dyspnea), Neutropenia (fever, malaise, infections of mouth, throat), Thrombocytopenia ( bruising, bleeding gums))
  • Organ infiltration (Tender bones, Lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly in 20% of patients, CNS involvement in 6%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ALL work up

A
  • Decreased or increased WBC
  • Peripheral blast
  • Elevated LDH, uric acid
  • Bone marrow blast present
  • Lumbar puncture
  • CXR may have enlarged mediastinal mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment of ALL

A

-Chemotherapy (Induction chemotherapy followed by consolidation chemotherapy, Also includes CNS directed therapy to prevent or treat CNS disease, Maintenance for 2-3 years, Allogeneic transplant: indicated for Philadelphia chromosome positive ALL, primary refractory or early relapsed disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

chimeric antigen receptors: MOA

A

-Chimeric antigen receptors (Genetically engineered receptors that combine
anti-CD19 single chain variable fragment of an antibody with intracellular signaling domains of T cells, With the use of lentiviral-vector technology, CTL019 T cells express a CAR with CD3 zeta and 4-1BB (CD137) signaling domains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cells

A
    1. genetically modified T cells
    1. patient’s own (autologous) T cells are manipulated ex vivo to express the antigen-binding domain from a B cell receptor that is fused to the intracellular domain of a CD3 TCR (CD3-zeta).
  • recognition of a specific cell surface antigen activates T cell response
    1. CAR T cells have been studied most extensively in hematologic malignancies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia

A
  • Accounts for about 15% of leukemia
  • May occur at any age
  • Characteristic presence of Philadelphia chromosome.
  • Translocation between chromosome 9 and 22 results in activation of tyrosine kinase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CML clinical features

A
  • Male to female ratio 1.4 to 1
  • Most frequently between ages 40 to 60, but may occur at any age
  • Symptoms related to hypermetabolism: (weight loss, anorexia, night sweats)
  • Splenomegaly is often present
  • Anemia
  • Bruising, epistaxis from platelet dysfunction
  • In up to 50% the diagnosis is made incidentally from routine blood test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

lab findings of CML

A
  • Increased WBC: usually >50k, usually see a complete spectrum of myeloid cells
  • Increased basophils
  • Normocytic anemia
  • Platelet may be increased, normal or decreased
  • Bone marrow is hypercellular
  • PH chromosome positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Philadelphia Chromosome Translocation in CML Results in BCR-ABL Oncogene

A
  • Stem cell disorder
  • Characterized by myeloproliferation
  • Well-described clinical course
  • CML, chronic myeloid leukemia; Ph, Philadelphia chromosome; TKI, tyrosine kinase inhibitor.
  • Chronic myeloid leukemia is one of the most important oncologic disorders and in part because it was the first oncologic disorder where a chromosome abnormality was identified. The Philadelphia chromosome is that specific chromosome abnormality. And as you can see from this cartoon, the Philadelphia chromosome is actually comprised of a balanced translocation between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22. This translocation brings the Abelson kinase together with the break cluster region and creates a fusion called the BCR-ABL. Importantly the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome gives this cell its proliferative advantage over normal cells and results in this chronic myeloid proliferative disease called chronic myeloid leukemia.
  • It’s important to understand that this is a stem cell disorder so the translocation is located in early progenitor cells within the bone marrow compartment. It’s characterized by a proliferation, such that cells accumulate and patients with CML tend to have high blood counts at the time of their presentation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CML treatment

A
  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitorsImatinib (Gleevec) (blocks tyrosine kinase activity , complete cytogenetic response >90%
  • Nilotinib
  • Desatinib (Chemotherapy, Interferon, Stem cell transplant: reserved for imatinib failure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A
  • Accumulation in the blood mature lymphocytes.
  • Considerable overlap with lymphomas.
  • Most common type of CLL, accounting for 20% of all leukemia in U.S.
  • Peak incidence age 60 to 80
  • Most common form of leukemia in the western world but rare in Far East
  • Cells accumulate in blood, bone marrow, liver, spleen and lymph nodes as a result of prolonged lifespan and impaired apoptosis.
17
Q

CLL treatment

A
  • Cures are rare so approach to therapy is conservative.
  • Indolent disease, many patients never need chemotherapy
  • Treat if symptomatic: organomegaly, hemolysis, bone marrow suppression
  • Chemotherapy: chloroambucil, fludarabine, treanda, steroids
  • Monoclonal antibodies: rituxan, campath
18
Q

Hairy cell leukemia

A
  • Uncommon B cell lymphoproliferative disorder
  • Represents 2% of leukemia
  • Male: female ratio 4:1
  • Peak incidence 40-60 years
  • Clinical presentation: infections, anemia or splenomegaly
  • Lymphadenopathy is very uncommon
  • Pancytopenia is usual
  • Peripheral blood show “hairy cells” , TRAP stain positive
  • Treatments: 2 cda or pentostatin, achieves response in >80% patients, 2/3 no relapse occur.
19
Q

non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Incidence 17 in 100,000
  • Very diverse group of disease: from very fast growing disease to very indolent disease.
  • B cell lymphoma comprises 85% of cases
  • T cell and NK cell together comprises 15% of cases.
20
Q

clinical features of non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Lymphadenopathy: Asymmetric painless enlargement of lymph nodes
  • Constitutional symptoms: fever, night sweats, weight loss. Oropharyngeal involvement in 5-10%
  • Infections
  • Lab abnormalities: Anemia, neutropenia with infections, or thrombocytopenia, elevated LDH.
21
Q

workup of non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Diagnostic work up: Excisional lymph node biopsy
  • Labs: CBC, chem panel, LDH, uric acid, serum protein electrophoresis
  • Imaging for staging
  • Bone marrow biopsy
22
Q

subtypes of nonhodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Low grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • Follicular lymphoma (Most common form of NHL, Median survival about 10 years)
  • Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma (Associated with elevated IgM)
  • Mantle cell lymphoma
  • Marginal zone lymphoma
  • High grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • Lymphoblastic lymphoma
23
Q

T-cell lymphoma

A
  • Peripheral T cell lymphoma
  • Angiioimmunoblastic lymphadenopathy
  • Mycosis fungoides
  • Sezary syndrome
24
Q

hodgkin’s disease

A
  • Clinical features:
  • Can present at any age: peak incidence in young adults
  • Mediastinal involvement in 6-11%
  • Constitutional symptoms can be prominent
  • classic types: nodular sclerosis, mixed cellularity, lymphocyte depleted, lymphocyte rich, Nodular lymphocyte predominant
25
Q

treatment for hodgkin’s disease

A
  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiation
  • Both
  • Late effects of Hodgkin’s disease and treatment can include secondary lung cancer, myelodysplasia, cardiac disease.
26
Q

testing for hodgkin’s disease

A

-CT/PET scans: Helpful in initial staging and disease assessment at completion of therapy. Unclear if CT/PET scans can guide therapy. Unclear if there is a role in monitoring after therapy.

27
Q

multiple myeloma

A

-Neoplastic proliferation characterized by plasma cell accumulation in the bone marrow, the presence of monoclonal protein in the serum and or urine and related tissue damage

28
Q

multiple myeloma clinical features

A
  • Bone pain-resulting from vertebral collapse and pathological fractures
  • Anemia: Lethargy, pallor, dyspnea
  • Recurrent infections from deficiency of antibody production
  • Renal failure
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Abnormal bleeding tendency
  • Amyloidosis in 5%
29
Q

diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma

A
  • Lab tests: CBC, Creatinine, calcium, SPEP, UPEP, 24 hour urine for Bence jones protein, serum free light chain
  • Bone survey
  • Bone marrow biopsy
30
Q

treatment for multiple myeloma

A
  • Supportive: treat anemia, renal failure, hypercalcemia
  • Chemotherapy
  • Stem cell transplant
31
Q

myeloproliferative disorder

A
  • Bone marrow disorder characterized by clonal proliferation of one or more hematopoietic components in the bone marrow.
  • Three disorders: Polycythemia Vera, Essential thrombocynthemia, myelofibrosis
32
Q

polycythemia

A
  • Excess production of red blood cells, but in over half of patients there is also overproduction of WBC and platelets.
  • Clinical features: Headache, pruritus, facial plethora, splenomegaly, HTN. Gout can be a result of elevated uric acid.
  • Positive JAK 2 mutation
  • Serum epo level is low.
33
Q

treatment of polycythemia

A
  • Phlebotomy to maintain hct <45
  • Hydrea can be used for patients who cannot tolerate phlebotomy, or has progressive splenomegaly, thrombocytosis.
  • Interferon is another option. It is less convenient than oral hydrea.
  • Median survival 10-16 years. Transition to myelofibrosis occurs in 30% pts, about 5% progresses to leukemia.
34
Q

essential thrombocythemia

A
  • Sustained increase in platelet count
  • Hematocrit is normal
  • Half of patient has JAK-2 mutation
  • Clinical complications: thrombosis and hemorrhage
  • Clinical symptoms: erythormelagia, up to 40% has splenomegaly
  • Bone marrow biopsy shows increased megakaryocytes.
35
Q

treatment of essential thrombocythemia

A
  • High risk: patients over 60 years old, platelet >1000k, prior episodes of thrombosis or hemorrhage.
  • Treatment: hydroxyurea and aspirin
  • Low risk: patients < 60 years old, no previous thrombosis or hemorrhage, platelet< 1000k
  • Treatment: aspirin